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69 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
What is the lifetime prevalence rate of anxiety disorders in the general U.S. population? (349)
31% of the general population
Distinguish repression and dissociation. (474)
• Repression is a defense mechanism to ward off internal pressure.
• Dissociation as an alteration in consciousness to deflect the overwhelming impact of ongoing trauma
List the five dimensions of dissociation. (474)
1. Environment
2. Emotions
3. Physical Sensations and Agency
4. Memory
5. Identity
What assumption about dissociative disorders does the DSM-IV not make? What does the DSM-IV assert is typical about this type of disorder? (476)
• The DSM does not assume dissociative disorders develop as the result of defense mechanisms used to cope with ongoing trauma
• The DSM does assure that dissociative disorders are typically linked to traumatic events
Name the two anxiety disorders that were previously labeled as dissociative disorders (476)
• Acute Stress Disorder (ASD)
• Post Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)
Among nonclinical populations, when does dissociativity reach its peak? What personal characteristic has a similar age distribution? (478)
Dissociativity reaches a peak in early adolescence; hypnotizability
What is the reported, though likely excessive, ratio for the occurrence of dissociative disorders across genders? (478)
9:1 women to men ratio of DID diagnoses
Define autoscopy. (479)
An extreme form of depersonalization where an individual encounters a self-image outside of the body.
Name the five proposed types of depersonalization. (479)
1. Inauthenticity
2. Self-negation
3. Self-objectification
4. Derealization
5. Body detachment.
Distinguish depersonalization from psychotic episodes. (480)
• Depersonalization experiences are described as experiential detachment with intact reality testing.
• Psychotic episodes involve delusional beliefs.
What are the four most common features of depersonalization according to the literature? (480)
1. An altered sense of self (“My body doesn’t belong to me.”)
2. A precipitating event (“an accident, substance use.”)
3. A sense of unreality or a dreamlike state (“Nothing seems real.”)
4. Sensory alterations (“Colors seem less vibrant.”)
When do depersonalization episodes occur frequently among nonclinical populations? (480)
During or shortly after a traumatic event; the also can occur as a by-product of meditation or hypnosis and after psychedelic drug ingestion
What are the four types of amnesiac episodes? Briefly define each. (482- 483)
-Generalized-amnesia for all or most personal information, including name, history, identity of relatives and friends
- Localized- forgetting what transpired during a certain period although the individual remembers events prior and subsequent
- Selective- Individual may recall some but not all features of a specific event or circumstance
- Systematized- an inability to remember certain categories of experiences (ex. When someone loses a sibling tragically they can’t recall any memories that involve that sibling)
Under what conditions is prognosis for dissociative amnesia typically good? (483)
When it is not chronic and follows a traumatic event.
What two measures should be taken to rule out other possibilities besides dissociative amnesia? (483)
A detailed clinical history and laboratory analysis can usually rule out other possibilities.
What are some areas that should be investigated if a clinician suspects amnesia? (484)
• Memory gaps in everyday life,
• failure to give an account of salient episodes from late childhood onward,
• finding items that recently have been bought but for which the client has no memory.
What was dissociative identity disorder formerly called? What are its defining features? (487- 488)
• Formally called, multiple personality disorder.
• Defining features: the presence in the person of two or more distinct identities or personality states with enduring patterns of perceiving, relating to and thinking about the self, which recurrently take control of the individual. The other defining feature is psychogenic amnesia.
What is the current view of dissociative identity disorder in terms of the personality complexity? (488)
• The current view of dissociative disorder is that it fails to have the sort of complex, multifaceted, unified, personality that most of us have.
• Many aspects of personality such as acquiescent or aggressive, Playful or serious are not integrated in these people, they remain isolated and personalized nuclei.
What two issues have been vigorously debated in the mental health field about dissociative identity disorder? (489)
1. Etiology/reality of the phenomenon
2. Diagnostic reality
What percentage of general psychiatric patients reporting clinical levels of dissociation were reported by Saxe as being diagnosed with dissociative disorder NOS? (492)
60%
What variables must be considered to understand dissociative syndromes? (492)
Social, political, gender, and cultural variables must be considered to understand these syndromes
What type of phenomena are included in dissociative trance disorder? (493)
Trance or spirit possession phenomena
What is the diagnostic process for determining a somatoform disorder? (412)
Criterion (A) Symptoms must begin before age 30 and result in medical help seeking or lead to significant social or occupational impairment
Criterion (B) Requires four:
1. a history of pain related two at least four different anatomical sites or functions
2. a history of at least two gastrointestinal symptoms other than pain
3. at least one sexual or reproductive symptom other than pain
4. at least one pseudoneurological symptom not related to pain
Criterion (C): No General Medical Condition that can fully explain the symptoms or that the distress and disability are in excess of what can be medically explained
What percentage of family medicine practice visits are due to medically unexplained symptoms? (415)
25 – 60%
What factor hampers the possibility for epidemiological studies of somatoform disorders? (416)
Hampered by the necessity for medical evaluation to rule out organic explanations before the diagnosis of somatoform disorders can be made with confidence
List five common symptoms associated with conversion disorder. (421)
Symptoms resemble those of a neurological disorder
1. Gait disturbances
2. Pseudoseizsures
3. Episodes of fainting or loss of consciousness
4. Muscle tremors, spasms, weakness, or paralysis
5. Sensory changes including parenthesis or anesthesia
6. Speech disturbances (aphonia)
7. Visual disturbances (blindness, diplopia: double vision)
Define pseudocyesis. What disorder is it classified as? (421)
Defined as hysterical pregnancy. DSM-IV classifies it as somatoform disorder NOS. it is associated with endocrine disturbances, which sets it apart from other conversion symptoms.
What are common social ramifications of body dysmorphic disorder? (423)
Because patients with BDD are
• preoccupied with the notion that some aspect of their body is misshapen and ugly,
• frequently checking in the mirror to monitor their so-called defect
• may try to camouflage it, usually without success.
• convinced that others are reacting negatively to them,
• commonly have ideas or delusions of reference.
• fear embarrassment and avoid social situations, sometimes to the point of being housebound. This condition usually results in severe social disability.
What personality trait is associated with somatoform disorders? (426)
Patients with somatoform disorders are more likely to experience:
• affective and anxiety disorders.
• Also give rise to significant somatic symptoms through physiological mechanisms like hyperventilation or sleep disturbance.
• May experiences more frequent, intense, or distressing bodily sensations caused by the dysregulation of autonomic or pain control systems even in the absence of dysphoric mood.
What factors may the selective emphasis on somatic symptoms and explanations for distress have more to do with? (429)
May have more to do with attribution style, defense style, or structural factors influencing help seeking and stigmatization
Why may patients present clinically with somatic symptoms while minimizing underlying emotional distress? (429)
An unwillingness or inability to attribute the bodily concomitants of emotional arousal or affective disorder to psychological causes may lead patients to present clinically with somatic symptoms while minimizing underlying emotional distress.
What are characteristics of alexithymic individuals? (431)
Alexithymic individuals are said to
• lack the ability to discriminate feelings and bodily sensations,
• tend not to express their psychological states,
think in a concrete and action-orientated rather than a reflective way about the world, and lack a rich fantasy life.
What might increase a child’s vulnerability to a range of functional disorders? (432)
Compared to mothers with a history of stomach ulcers, mothers with irritable bowel symptoms were more likely to take their infants for treatment, providing evidence of early social reinforcement of illness behavior. This early infant experience might increase the child’s vulnerability to a range of functional disorders.
What attachment style is most associated with somatoform disorders? (433)
Evidence exists that adults with somatoform disorders tend to display insecure attachment styles.
What are four sources of social response that may aggravate or resolve somatoform disorders? (436)
• Family members,
• Employers
• Health care professionals
• Larger society
What types of intervention do many hypochondrical patients respond to? What does this point to? (438)
The observation that many hypochondrical patients respond well to systematic reassurance and reattribution training points o the limitations of their earlier encounters with physicians.
What type of psychiatric disorders are somatoform disorders commonly secondary to? (439)
Symptoms of somatoform disorders are clearly secondary to another antecedent or underlying psychiatric disorder. Somatic symptoms commonly accompany mood and anxiety disorders.
How would a patient use a symptom diary to give the clinician a better picture of his/her somatic complaints? (443)
This diary involves a form of self-monitoring that may have immediate therapeutic effects and sets the stage for subsequent cognitive and family interventions
What two MMPI-2 scales do somatoform sufferers typically have high scores on? (446)
1. Hypochondriasis
2. Hysteria
List three reasons for gender differences in prevalence of somatoform disorders. (449)
• Higher prevalence of related psychiatric disorders among women (i.e., mood and anxiety disorders)
• Social stresses and psychological conflicts associated with gender roles
• Gender bias in the diagnostic process
What type of prototypes serve as templates for somatoform symptom experience? (452)
• Prototypes in the individual’s own experience
• Prototypes in the experience of their family or friends
• Examples present through mass media
What is a panic attack? (349)
Constitute a discrete period of intense fear or discomfort that develops abruptly and peaks with 10 minutes of onset.
What are the three types of panic attacks? (349 -350)
• Unexpected (un-cued): onset associated with a situational trigger
• Situational bound (cued): the attack occurs immediately upon exposure to or in anticipation of exposure to the anxiety producing stimulus
• Situational Predisposed: The attack is more likely to occur upon exposure although not immediately and not every time
Define agoraphobia. (350)
A fear of being in public places or situations where escape might be difficult or where help may be unavailable should a panic attack occur.
Define social anxiety disorder. (351)
A marked and persistent fear of social or performance situations in which embarrassment may occur.
What is specific phobia? What are the four subtypes of specific phobia? (351)
A marked and persistent fear of clearly discernible circumscribed objects or situations.
- Animal Type
- Natural Type
- Blood-injection-injury Type
- Situational Type
Define obsessions and compulsions? (352)
• Obsessions are recurrent and persistent thoughts, impulses, or images that are intrusive and inappropriate and cause a marked anxiety or distress.
• Compulsions are repetitive behaviors or mental acts that the person feels driven to perform in response to obsessions or according to rigid rules.
What are the two requirements for the development of PTSD? (352)
Individuals are exposed to a traumatic event in which
(1) The person experienced, witnessed, or was confronted with actual or threatened death or serious injury, or a threat to the physical integrity of self or others, and

(2) The response involved intense fear, helplessness, or horror.
What are the ways that PTSD sufferers reexperience the event? (352)
Patients with PTSD report "reexperiencing" the event through recurrent and intrusive recollections or dreams, or both; suddenly acting or feeling as if the event were recurring; intense psychological or physical reactivity; and when exposed to events that symbolize or resemble some aspect of the trauma
What factor distinguishes the diagnoses of PTSD and Acute Stress Disorder? (353)
The duration requirement (ASD-2 days to 4 weeks; PTSD-longer)
According to the National Comorbidity Survey Replication (NCSR), what is the lifetime occurrence of an anxiety disorder in the general population? For the past 12 months? (356)
• Lifetime occurrence is 31.2% of the general population
• 18.7% of the sample endorsed the presence of an anxiety disorder within the past 12 months.
What are the three categories that anxiety symptoms are usually divided into? (357)
Subjective Distress (self-report),
2. Physiological Response,
3. Avoidance or Escape Behavior (overt behavioral)
What are the psychosocial treatments of choice for anxiety disorders according to compelling empirical data? What procedures do all these anxiety disorder interventions incorporate? (361)
• Behavioral or Cognitive Behavioral interventions or treatments are the psychosocial treatments of choice.
• They all incorporate exposure procedures
Across all disorders (except specific phobia), what is a predictor for poorer treatment outcome? (364)
• severe psychopathology,
• in the form of either the primary anxiety disorder,
• comorbid affective anxiety states, or comorbid Axis II disorders.
Among those with a primary anxiety disorder, what percentage of sufferers had at least one other clinically significant anxiety or depressive disorder? (365)
50%
What types of disorders demonstrate a substantial percentage of comorbidity with an anxiety disorder? (367)
An additional anxiety disorder, depressive disorder, personality disorder
Compared to children of normal parents, what is the likelihood that children of anxiety disorders patients will develop a psychiatric disorder? (373)
Over nine times as likely to have a psychiatric disorder as the children of normal parents
What are two assumptions cognitive theories make about anxiety disorders? (377- 378)
Those with anxiety disorders process threat information differently. Second, cognitive biases play a role in the maintenances, and perhaps the etiology of anxiety disorders.
What is the one type of anxiety disorder (specific phobia) that occurs more in men than women? What type of anxiety disorder occurs in equal proportions between men and women? (379)
• A fear of heights most common in men.
• OCD occurs in both men and women in equal proportions
Is there a difference across racial and ethnic groups in the rates of anxiety disorders or the symptomatic expression of these disorders? (379)
• There are few differences in rates of anxiety disorder across racial and ethnic groups.
• Differences exist in symptomatic expression of these disorders or in co-varying condition
1. How do we differentiate between normal levels and clinical levels of anxiousness?
• Impairment (social or occupational)
• Intensity
• Irrationality of the thoughts, presentation
2. Define Worry
• Uncontrollable cognitive intrusions.
• Promotes non-productivity
3. Core of anxiety treatment:
• Exposure Response Prevention
4. Methods of determining what treatment would best work for specific clients.
• Intensity
o Gradual
o Intense
• Nature (Type)
o Imaginal
o In Vivo
• In vivo/Gradual- Graduated Exposure
• In vivo/Intense- Flooding
• Imaginal/Gradual - Systemic Desensitization
• Imaginal/Intense - Impulsive Therapy
5. Why is the presence of a specific fear stimulus important?
• It gives us a place to begin for treatment
• Examples: Known fear stimulus- specific phobia, OCD, bulimia, agoraphobia
• Examples of none- panic disorder
6. How do you distinguish between factitious disorders (517) and malingering (739)?
• Factitious Disorders: motivation is to assume the sick role, but no real reward can be seen.
• Malingering: taking on the sick role; motivated by external incentives such as avoiding military duties, avoiding work, obtaining financial compensation, evading criminal persecution, or obtaining drugs.
7. What are the somatoform disorders? (least to most severe)
• Hypochondriasis
• Body Dysmorphic Disorder
• Pain Disorder
• Undifferentiated Somatoform Disorder
• Somatization Disorder
• Conversion Disorder (there is a loss of function)
8. What do they (somatoform disorders) have in common?
The apparent presence of general medical condition, but with no known form of medical explanation
9. What are the dissociative disorders (least to most severe)
• Dissociative Amnesia
• Dissociative Fugue
• Depersonalization Disorder
• Dissociative Identity Disorder (formerly Multiple Personality Disorder)