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60 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
How are Personality Disorders clustered together? (636)
• Odd & eccentric cluster A
• Dramatic, emotional, & erratic cluster B
• Anxious & fearful cluster
How are Cluster A Personality Disorders best distinguished from a nonclinical population? (637)
By the presence of odd or novel ideation & decreased levels of conscientiousness
What are the diagnostic criteria for paranoid personality disorder? (637)
• Having pervasive distrust and suspiciousness of others
• suspicion without sufficient basis that others are attempting to exploit, harm or deceive him/her
• preoccupation with unjustified doubts and loyalty or trustworthiness of friends and associates
• reluctance to confide in others due to unwarranted fears that the info. Confided will be used against him/her
• bears grudges against those that have slighted, insulted, or injured him/her
• perceives attacks on his/her reputation or character that are not apparent to others
• **A person who expects harm and is on a mission to detect evidence of impending attacks, without sufficient basis or by ignoring logical alternative
What are the behavioral, intrapsychic, and interpersonal characteristics of someone with Schizoid Personality Disorder? (640)
• Behavioral: the bland and lethargic loner
• Intrapsychic: comfort with emptiness
• Interpersonal: the lover of distance
What other disorders have been suggested to be linked with Schizoid Personality Disorder? (641)
Asperger syndrome, Autism, and Pervasive development disorder NOS
What are some of the eccentricities that characterize people with Schizotypal Personality Disorder? (642)
Behaviors, thoughts, perceptions of (5 or more of the following)
o ideas of reference
o magical thinking
o unusual perceptual experiences
o odd thinking or speech
o suspiciousness
o inappropriate or constricted affect
o behavior or appearance that is odd or peculiar
o lack of close friends (that aren’t 1st degree relatives)
o excessive social anxiety
What is the emotional difference between Schizoid Personality Disorder and Schizotypal Personality Disorder? (642)
Emotions may be constricted or inappropriate when expressed. This differs from the emotional constriction found in SPD and is associated with emotional avoidance.
Antisocial Personality Disorder diagnosis requires a history of what disorder? (643)
A history of conduct disorder in childhood and adolescence
Discuss the interpersonal style of individuals with Antisocial Personality Disorder? (644)
Their interpersonal style of individuals with ASPD are characterized by:
-Repeated betrayals of trust.
-Pervasive lack of empathy.
-General disregard for social standards and rules.
-No regard for the impact of actions on others.
Describe the relationships that a person with Borderline Personality Disorder will develop? (646)
These individuals will develop close relationships quickly and easily, and will negotiate these relationships through alternating idealizing and devaluing others.
What is the percentage of people with Borderline Personality Disorder commit suicide? (648)
10% of individuals with BPD commit suicide
What are the behavioral, intrapsychic and interpersonal characteristics of someone with Histrionic Personality Disorder? (649)
• Behavioral: Seductive and capricious
• Intra-psychic: Shallow and impressionistic
• Interpersonal: A social butterfly
How can the client-therapist relationship be distorted for a person with Histrionic Personality Disorder? (649)
Individuals with histrionic personality disorder are not detail oriented, and novel stimuli-whether in the environment or associated with other people- will easily capture their attention. This characteristic attentional style offers a potential explanation for the shallow and vague interaction. This distractability limits the ability of the person from ever forming real goals or accurate impressions of themselves and others.
What is the Narcissistic Personality Disorder prototype on the NEO-PI-R? (651)
High levels on the Neuroticism facets Angry-Hostility and Self-Conscientiousness, high levels on the Openness facet of Fantasy, high levels on the Conscientious facet of Achievement Striving. and low levels on the Agreeableness facets of Altruism, Modesty and Tender-mindedness
What is the etiology of someone with Narcissistic Personality Disorder? (652)
NPD is thought to be the product of overindulgent parents (by means of inappropriate entitlement of the child or a failure to meat the needs of the child) and may have a genetic link
What Disorders fall into Cluster C? (652, 654, 656)
Avoidant, dependent, and obsessive-compulsive personality disorder comprise Cluster C
What are the prevalence rates in the general population and outpatient psychiatric setting for those with Avoidant Personality Disorder? (653)
• General population: 2%-5%
• Outpatient psychiatric populations: 15%
What are environmental factors that could contribute to Avoidant Personality Disorder? (654)
Environmental factors include parental or peer rejection and/or ridicule.
What is the crux of the Dependent Personality Disorder diagnosis? (655)
the submissive, reactive, and clinging behavior
What other problems are associated with Dependent Personality Disorder? (656)
• (I’m not confident in this answer) mood or anxiety disorders
• Depression, eating disorders, somatic complaints, somatization disorder
How is the occupational success of someone with Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder achieved? (657)
Focus on achievement, work productivity, and striving for perfectionism leads to occupational success even when emotional and interpersonal functioning is severely impaired
Describe the etiology of someone with Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder. (658)
Those with OCPD frequently exhibit a preoccupied attachment style. As children, these individuals were punished for failing to be perfect and received no rewards for success. Affection and emotions were to be controlled and remain unexpressed. Individuals with OCPD expect others to judge and criticize them in the same way that caregivers did during their development. Therefore, individuals with OCPD judge others by the same strict standards and self-criticize in the same manner as the caregivers who once criticized them.
What are the advantages to using a standardized method of personality disorder assessment? (658)
• Increase reliability and validity
• Compensate for problems with missed diagnoses
What are some factors that increase the probability for meeting criteria for a personality disorder? (661)
Native American or black ethnicity
• Being a young adult
• Having low SES
• Being divorced, separated, or never married
• Experiences involving abuse, neglect, and maladaptive parenting styles during early childhood
• Low-closeness to caregivers
• Power assertive punishment
• Maternal control through guilt
• Having been the result of an unwanted pregnancy
What was the theme that was found in the personality disorder longitudinal studies? (662)
The long-standing nature of the maladaptive pattern does not necessarily reflect the course of personality disorders
What makes the treatment of personality disorders difficult? (665)
Dropouts from treatment in PD populations are substantially high
LQ: According to DSM-IV-TR, what are the three diagnostic criteria for mental retardation?
1. IQ less than 70
2. Learning capabilities stop at a certain age (at most 6th grade)
3. Struggles with social and other environmental stresses, may need supervision.
LQ: List and provide the basic IQ-score range for each of the four severity levels of mental retardation
Mild- lower than 70, 50-55
Moderate- 35-40 to 50-55
Severe- 20-25 to 35-40
Profound- less than 20 or 25
LQ: How does the DSM-IV-TR define the presence of learning disability? What may be unworkable or difficult about this perspective?
When a child is behind by 2 or more standard deviations below the level of academic performance. Issue comes because two years is too long to help children effectively.
LQ: List the three contexts (environmental settings) in which ADHD symptoms should be assessed.
Work, School
Social (with Peers)
LQ: List the three symptom categories used in diagnosing the presence of Autistic Disorder.
Impairment In:
1. Language
2. Social interaction
3. Odd, repetitive, and stereotyped patterns of behaviors, activities, or interests
LQ: What are the other three types of Pervasive Developmental Disorders? How do they each differ from Autism and each other?
1. Rett's Disorder: has only been diagnosed in females, whereas Autistic Disorder occurs much more frequently in males; there is a characteristic pattern of head growth deceleration, loss of previously acquired purposeful hand skills, and the appearance of poorly coordinated gait or trunk movements.
2. CDD: distinctive pattern of severe developmental regression in multiple areas of functioning following at least 2 years of normal development.
3. Asperger's Disorder: lack of delay or deviance in early language development.
LQ: Describe and differentiate between Oppositional Defiant Disorder and Conduct Disorder.
ODD is less severe than CD and deals more with issues concerning authority figures. CD's biggest criteria is the child breaking the natural laws of humans and/or animals.
LQ: Distinguish between delirium and dementia in terms of symptomatology, rate of onset, and clinical course (prognosis).
Delirium- onset: quick; symptomatology: neurological damage that is usually short term and is not labeled as dementia; course: can be cured once cause is discovered

Dementia- onset: varies on type, long to short process; symptomatology: memory loss and other neurological problems that continually progress as the patient ages; course: continues with age, no cure, but can help prolong and slow damage down
LQ: How do the disorders in the cognitive and medical disorder categories differ from the other categories of psychiatric disturbance listed in DSM-IV?
The cause of the disorders is known and is named in the diagnosis
LQ: List and provide a medical-condition example for four of the categories of neurological conditions (neuropathy) which were presented in lecture.
1. Head trauma:
1. open: gun shot wound
2. closed: cracked or fractured, nothing penetrated
1. mild: concussion
2. moderate: football player loses consciousness for short period of time
3. severe: coma, length of loss of consciousness
2. Degenerative Disorder:
1. Parkinson’s disease: tremors of extremity at rest
2. Alzheimer’s
3. Vascular Disorder
1. Stroke: occlusion of blood vessel
2. Hemorrhage: aneurism: weakening of the vessel wall, rupture of a blood vessel
4. Toxin Exposure
1. Lead paint
2. Alcohol : Fetal, crack baby
3. Lyme disease
4. Glue
5. Oxygen: hyperventilate
5. Seizures Disorders
1. Epilepsy
6. Congenital Conditions:
1. Downs Syndrome
7. Infectious Processes: parasites
1. Meningitis:
2. Encephalitis: infection of the lining in the brain
8. Neoplasms: non bilateral head pain growing over a long period of time
Brain tumors
LQ: Define and distinguish between substance abuse and substance dependence.
Abuse: ongoing substance use despite knowledge of harm

Dependence: ongoing substance use where tolerance and withdrawal occurs on top of abuse
LQ: According to the DSM-IV, how does one code (label) a condition in which a client's use of multiple substances represents a pattern of dependence, although their use of any specific substance does not appear to meet the criteria for a psychiatric disorder?
Polysubstance dependence
LQ: Distinguish between initial drug usage and long-term patterns of abuse in terms of the basic operant reinforcement patterns which these behaviors appear to follow.
Positive Reinforcement: adding something to gain desired need/want (initial drug use)

Negative Reinforcement: doing something to avoid consequences (long-term drug use)
LQ: List two potential problems or issues cognitively oriented therapists might have with specific components of 12-step of self-help group programming
1. Never fully graduate
2. Individual identified with substance for life.
LQ: List and describe (emphasizing distinctions) the sex disorders discussed in class under the heading of "the schizophrenic spectrum" of disorder.
1. Brief Psychotic Disorder- 1 day to 1 month of criteria A met
2. Schizophreniform Disorder- 1 month to 6 months of criteria A met; always provisional
3. Schizophrenia- 6 months to a year of criteria A met
4. Schizotypal Personality Disorder- Type of schizophrenia that does not meet full criteria; Social and interpersonal deficit ;No psychotic symptoms (2 year window)
5. Delusional Disorder- Does not meet Criteria A, no bizarre delusions
6. Schizoaffective Disorder- Criteria A and Mood Disorder; at least 2 weeks of hallucinations and delusions
LQ: What does DSM-IV mean by the labels "positive and negative symptoms" of schizophrenia? Provide an example symptom of schizophrenia from each category.
Positive symptoms react to antipsychotic medications and will diminish during times of recession; hallucinations

Negative symptoms do not react to the antipsychotic medications and are continual; apathy
LQ: Differentiate between Bipolar I, Bipolar II, and Cyclothymia.
Bipolar I meets the criteria for Mania.
Bipolar II does not require full blown mania (hypomania), but Major Depressive Disorder
Cyclothymia meets neither criteria for hypomania and dysthymia
LQ: What is double depression?
When someone who has dysthymic disorder later meets the criteria for MDD.
LQ: Provide the appropriate name for the following mood states: (moderately depressive feelings; moderately elevated mood)
moderately depressive feelings- dysphoria

moderately elevated mood- hypomania
LQ: Give one additional name for the class of drugs used to treat psychotic disorders (the antipsychotics).
LQ: What drug class represents the treatment of choice today for major depressive disorder?
LQ: Historically, why has the appropriate dosage of Lithium been such an important consideration in the treatment of Bipolar Disorder?
It can become toxic and has a small window of effect
LQ: Name the two components of the basic behavioral rationale for treating a specific phobia.
Response Interventions
LQ: How is normal anxiety or fear distinguished from clinical levels of anxiety (indicating the presence of a disorder)?
• Impairment (social or occupational)
• Intensity
• Irrationality of the thoughts, presentation
LQ: Why is having a specific situational stimulus important in the planning of clinical interventions for anxiety disorders? Give an example of an anxiety disorder with a clear and specific stimulus and a disorder without a clear stimulus.
• It gives us a place to begin for treatment
• Examples: Known fear stimulus- specific phobia, OCD, bulimia, agoraphobia
• Examples of none- panic disorder
LQ: Differentiate among the various behavioral strategies used in the treatment of anxiety disorders in terms of the intensity and nature (type) of the exposure utilized in the intervention.
Look at chart...

• Intensity
o Gradual
o Intense
• Nature (Type)
o Imaginal
o In Vivo
• In vivo/Gradual- Graduated Exposure
• In vivo/Intense- Flooding
• Imaginal/Gradual - Systemic Desensitization
• Imaginal/Intense - Impulsive Therapy
LQ: Name the six somatoform disorders. What do each of these disorders have in common?
• Hypochondriasis
• Body Dysmorphic Disorder
• Pain Disorder
• Undifferentiated Somatoform Disorder
• Somatization Disorder
• Conversion Disorder (there is a loss of function)

• The apparent presence of general medical condition, but with no known form of medical explanation
LQ: Distinguish between malingering and factitious disorder.
• Factitious Disorders: motivation is to assume the sick role, but no real reward can be seen.
• Malingering: taking on the sick role; motivated by external incentives such as avoiding military duties, avoiding work, obtaining financial compensation, evading criminal persecution, or obtaining drugs.
LQ: List the four types of Dissociative Disorders presented in the DSM-IV.
• Dissociative Amnesia
• Dissociative Fugue
• Depersonalization Disorder
• Dissociative Identity Disorder (formerly Multiple Personality Disorder)
LQ: Distinguish between sexual dysfunctions and sexual deviations (paraphilias). Provide an example from the DSM-IV-TR of each type of sexual disorder.
Sexual Dysfunctions involve a primary impairment in the sexual response cycle, such as in Premature Ejaculation, or Female Orgasmic Disorder.
The paraphilias involve a functional physiological sexual response which has been associated with an unnatural stimulus, such as seen in Voyerism, Rape, Pedophilia, and Frotteurism.
LQ: Distinguish between Anorexia and Bulimia. Provide two shared symptoms a description of distinctive features.
They share an intense fear of weight gain and a significant disturbance in the perception of one's shape or size.

Anorexia involves a refusal to maintain minimal body weight for age and height, an intense fear of weight gain or becoming fat, and a disturbance in the way one's body shape or weight is experienced.

Bulimia is easily differentiated as it involves recurrent episodes of binge eating and inappropriate compensatory behavior in order to prevent weight gain.
LQ: Under what two names are the categories of sleep disorder presented in the DSM-IV? What is the central feature of each type (category) of disorder?
The Dysomnias centrally involve a difficulty in initiating or maintaining sleep, being excessively sleepy, or finding sleep to be of poor quality (nonrestorative).
The Parasomnias involve abnormal behavioral or physiological events occurring in association with sleep stages or the transitions between sleep stages.
LQ: According to the DSM-IV, how is an adjustment disorder defined?
An adjustment disorder is a psychological response to an identified stressor (nontraumatic) that results in the development of clinically significant emotional or behavioral symptoms.
LQ: What is a V-code? How is this term used in the DSM-IV?
A v-code indicates that the condition which is a focus, or even the primary focus, of clinical intervention is not attributable to a mental disorder.

In the DSM-IV, clinically-relevant conditions which do not meet the criteria for a formal mental disorder may often be adequately described and communicated to others via a V-code diagnosis.