• Shuffle
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Alphabetize
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Front First
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Both Sides
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Read
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
Reading...
Front

Card Range To Study

through

image

Play button

image

Play button

image

Progress

1/61

Click to flip

Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;

Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;

H to show hint;

A reads text to speech;

61 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
AED stands for _________.
Automated External Defibrillator
Ventricular fibrillation tends to convert to ___________ within ________.
asystole; minutes
Concerning VF, the probability of successful defibrillation diminishes ____________.
rapidly over time.
How are the AED pads attached?
Place electrodes (either pads or paddles) in the conventional sternal-apical position. The right (sternal) electrode is placed to the right of the sternum, below the clavicle. The apical paddle is placed in the left mid-axillary line, approximately level
Place electrodes (either pads or paddles) in the conventional sternal-apical position. The right (sternal) electrode is placed to the right of the sternum, below the clavicle. The apical paddle is placed in the left mid-axillary line, approximately level with the V6 ECG electrode or female breast. This position should be clear of any breast tissue. It is important that this electrode is placed sufficiently laterally.
For adult defibrillation, both handheld paddle electrodes and self-adhesive pad electrodes _______ cm in diameter are used and function well.
8-12 cm
Implantable cardioverter defibrillators (ICDs) may be damaged during defibrillation if current is discharged through electrodes placed directly over the device. Place the electrode away from the device (at least ________ cm) or use an alternative electrode position (__________ or __________)
8 cm; anterior-lateral; anterior-posterior
Drugs injected peripherally must be followed by a flush of at least _____ mL of fluid and elevation of the _____________ to facilitate drug delivery to the central circulation.
20 mL; extremity for 10-20 s
IO injection achieves adequate plasma concentration in a time comparable with injection through a _________.
Central venous catheter
IO is good because it also allows for ________.
withdrawing marrow for blood gas analysis, measuring electrolytes and Hb
Where are the sites of injection via the intraosseous route?
It is appropriate to administer a ____ mg dose of epinephrine IV/IO every _________ minutes during adult cardiac arrest.
1 mg; 3-5 minutes
When VF/Pulseless VT persists shock plus CPR and administration of a vasopressor, consider administering an ___________________.
antiarrhythmic such as amiodarone
Dosage of amiodarone is ________. If VF/pulseless VT recurs, consider administration of a ______________.
300 mg IV push; second dose of 150 mg IV.
Indications for amiodarone?
The first antiarrhythmic in shock-refractory CA due to v-fib or pulseless v-tach.
Amiodarone is diluted with _____________.
5% dextrose
The dosage of lidocaine?
1.0 to 1.5 mg/kg IV push repeated every 3 to 5 min to a total loading dose of 3 mg/kg. A single dose of 1.5 mg/kg in CA is acceptable.
Do not use lidocaine in _________.
Third degree heart block
Regarding licodaine, decrease ____________ in patients with _____________ or _____________ and in patients ___________.
maintenance dose; hepatic insufficiency; CHF; over 70 years old.
Sodium bicarbonate comes in a _______ % solution.
8.4%
Give sodium bicarbonate (____ mmol) if CA is associated with ______ or ___________.
50; hyperkalemia; tricyclic antidepressant overdose
Dosage of sodium bicarbonate?
1 mEq/kg IV push
If asystole is displayed, ________.
check without stopping that the leads are attached properly
Asystole is a condition that could be exacerbated or precipitated by _________.
excessive vagal tone
If asystole is displayed on the screen, you should ...?
Check the leads and cable connections
Verify asystole in another lead
PEA might look like?
In PEA (especially) you should do what?
Search for and correct reversible causes.
Potentially reversible causes of PEA include.
Hypovolemia, Hypoxia, High H+ (acidosis), Hyper/hypokalemia, Hypothermia

Tension pneumothorax, Thrombosis (coronary, pulmonary), Tamponade, Toxins
Calcium chloride ________ the effects of ___________.
antagonizes; hyperkalemia on neuromuscular membranes
Calcium chloride can be given to reverse _______.
Hypotension induced by calcium channel blockers
What are the indications for use of a oropharyngeal airway?
(1) Upper airway obstruction caused by displacement of the soft pallate
(2) Bite block when other aiways are in place (e.g. tracheal tube).
When using the oropharyngeal airway, if glossopharyngeal reflexes are present, there is a danger of ______ or ________.
vomiting; regurgitation
Oropharyngeal airway is contraindicated in cases of __________ and ___________.
clenched jaws; bleeding from hypopharynx
What is a safar airway? What is its role?
S-shaped airway. It is basically two oropharyngeal airways, one being shorter, one longer. Opens the airway and allows breathing by mouth-to-tube.
Indications of use of nasopharyngeal airway?
(1) Upper airway obstruction caused by displacement of the soft pallate
An important complication of nasopharyngeal airway is ______.
Nasal bleeding
How do you measure the appropriate length of a nasopharyngeal tube?
Inflate the _____ first then ______.
blue pilot balloon; white pilot balloon
blue pilot balloon; white pilot balloon
Draw an endotracheal tube.
How should the head position be in endotracheal intubation?
Advantage of endotracheal intubation?
Prevents gastric distension
When is a quicktrach used?
When there is obstruction of upper airways and intubation has been unsuccessful. Also when tracheotomy cannot be done.
Generally, what is the saturation of oxygen reaching the lungs of a victim using a self-inflating bag with oxygen but without reservoir bag?
30-40%
CA in infants and children is most often the terminal result of __________ or ________.
progressive respiratory failure; shock
ABCDE?
Airway
Breathing
Circulation (chest compressions)
Drugs, Vascular access
ECG, Electrotherapy
A - Airway

Use oropharyngeal airway only in the unconscious child where there is no ___________.
gag reflex
A - Airway

Do not use nasopharyngeal airway if there is a ______ or ______.
basal skull fracture; coagulopathy
___________________ is the most secure and effective way to establish and maintain the airway.
Endotracheal intubation
Endotracheal intubation protects the lungs against _________.
pulmonary aspiration
B - Breathing

Bag-mask ventilation can be as effective as ventilation through an _______________ for short periods and may be safer.
endotracheal tube
During CPR with two rescuers, pause to give 2 breaths after ____ compressions.
15
B - Breathing

In a victim with a perfusing rhythm, but absent respiration, give ____________ breaths/minute.
12-20
If no other route is possible, lipid soluble drugs such as ____, ____, ____, ____ can be administered via an endotracheal tube.
Mnemonic: LEAN

L - Lidocaine
E - Epinephrine
A - Atropine
N - Naloxone
Epinephrine dilution for IV or IO in children?
10 mcg/kg
Mechanism of action of amiodarone?
K+ channel blocker (class III)

Increases AP duration
Increases effective refractory period
Increases QT interval
Amiodarone dose for IV/IO in children (given after third shock)?
5 mg/kg
(In children?) sodium bicarbonate should be given only after _________________.
adequate ventilation, to remove CO2.
Energy dose in children for biphasic and monophasic waveforms?
ERC:

First shock - 4J/kg
Subsequent shocks - 4 J/kg
Procedure for manual defib?
How do you read a rhythm strip?
In children: Give a second dose of amiodarone ______ if still in VF/pulseless VT after the fifth shock.
5 mg/kg
The first 2 Hs (_______ and _______) have the
highest prevalence in critically ill or injured children
hypoxia; hypovolemia