• Shuffle
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Alphabetize
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Front First
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Both Sides
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Read
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
Reading...
Front

Card Range To Study

through

image

Play button

image

Play button

image

Progress

1/172

Click to flip

Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;

Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;

H to show hint;

A reads text to speech;

172 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
What are the layers of the heart?
Pericardium - the heart and anchors it to surrounding structures

Epicardium - outer layer
Myocardium - middle layer - has bulk of cardiac muscle
Endocardium - inner layer
How does blood flow through the heart?
Body---Vena Cava---RA---Tricuspid Valve --- RV---Pulmonary Valve---Lungs---LA---Mitral Valve---LV---Aorta---Body
What is cardiac output?
The volume of blood ejected from the heart in one minute (approx. 4 - 7 L/min)
What is preload?
The amount of cardiac muscle fiber stretch that exists at the end of diastole
What is afterload?
The force the ventricles must overcome to eject their blood volume. It is the pressure in the arterial system ahead of the ventricles. (Measured as vascular resistance)
What is Atherosclerosis?
Progressive disease characterized by plaque formation in arteries.
What is ischemia?
Insufficient oxygen for cardiac muscle
What is an infarction?
Due to severe ischemia - dead or necrosed tissue.
What are the differences between the two types of angina?
Stable - predictable, usually d/t stress
Unstable - unpredictable, can occur even at rest
What are some of the risk factors for atherosclerosis?
-HTN
-Abnormal Blood Lipids
-Smoking
-Diet
-Obesity
-Diabetes
-Metabolic Syndrome
-Age: >65 yo
-Gender: - men earlier, women 10 yrs later
-Ethnic background - Blacks/Hispanics
What is the optimal LDL level?
<100
What is the optimal HDL level?
>40
What does LDL do?
Deposits cholesterol on arteries
What does HDL do?
Removes cholesterol from arteries
What is Metabolic Syndrome?
-Abdominal obesity
-Abnormal blood lipids
-HTN
-Elevated fasting blood glucose
-Clotting tendency
-Inflammatory factors
What is the implications of the C-Reactive protein test?
If elevated, is indicative of CHD.
What should you know about the Total Serum Cholesterol test?
It is used to assess for risk factors for CAD. You may need to fast for 12 hours
What is the Exercise ECG test?
aka "stress test" - ECGs are used to assess the response to increased cardiac workload. It is considered postive for CHD if myocardial ischemia is detected on the ECG, the client develops chest pain, or the test is stopped d/t to chest pain, fatigue, or dysrhythmias before predicted maximal HR is reached.
What is the Electron Beam Computed Tomography (EBCT) test?
Can identify pts at risk for developing myocardial ischemia by creating a 3D image of the heart and coronary arteries that can reveal plaque and other abnormalities.
What is the Myocardial Perfusion Imaging test?
Used to evaluate myocardial blood flow and perfusion both at rest and during stress (mental or physical). Costly.
What is the purpose of the echocardiogram?
Used on the outside of the heart to visualize chamber size, ejection fraction, flow gradients across the valves.
What is the transesophageal echocardiography (TEE) test?
A probe is inserted through the esophagus, and allows for the visualization of cardiac and extracardiac structures for diagnoses.
What is the cardiac catheterization test?
Most common and invasive test. Performed to identify CAD, pressures in the chambers of the heart, obtain a myocardial biopsy, evaluate artificial valves,perform an angioplasty, or stent an area of CAD.

A long catheter is inserted into a vein or artery from the arm or leg and is threaded to the heart. With contrast dye, the heart structures are visualized.
What are the nursing considerations for a patient undergoing cardiac catheterization?
-Very risky
-NPO 6 - 8 hrs prior
*Assess for allergies to seafood, iodine, or iodine contrast dyes
-Assess for use of NSAIDS, Viagra, or any kidney disease
*Establish VS and peripheral pulse baseline to check for circulation problems
*Monitor insertion site
What are some of the cholesterol lowering medications?
-the "statins"
-the "coles",
-Niacin
-the "fibras"
What are the nursing implications of the "statins"
-Monitor serum cholesterol and liver enzyme levels. Report elevations
*Assess for muscle pain and tenderness, rash, N/V/D
What are the nursing implications of niacin?
-Flushing may occur
-Give with meals to minimize GI effects
What are the indications and nursing implications for nitrates?
*nitroglycerine*
-used for acute and long term treatment of angina
-given SL, acts in 1-2 min
-potent vasodilator that decreases O2 demand
-HA, usual taste, and dizziness are common SEs
-Handle with gloves, keep in dark glass
What are the indications and nursing implications for beta blockers (-lols)
-First line drugs to treat stable angina
-Prevents cardiac attacks by reducing HR, contractility, and BP - thus reducing O2 demand.
-SE include severe bronchospasm (contraindicated with asthma pts)
-Document baseline HR and BP, withhold if HR <50 bpm
What are Calcium Channel Blockers?
Drugs to treat angina prophylactacly.
that work by reducing O2 demand and increase myocardial blood and oxygen supply.
-Document baseline HR and BP, withhold if HR <50 bpm
-Do not give with other heart meds
Why is low dose aspirin prescribed?
to prevent platelet aggregation and thrombus formation
How is HTN diagnosed?
3 high readings over several visits.
What are some contributing factors to primary or essential HTN?
-family hx
-high sodium intake
-high calorie intake
-physical inactivity
-excess alcohol intake
-low potassium intake
What are some contributing factors to secondary HTN?
-renal disease
-endocrine disorders
-coarctation of aorta
-neuro disorders
-drug use
-pregnancy
What is the range for pre-hypertension BP?
120-139 / 80-89
What is the BP range for Stage I HTN?
140-159 / 90-99
What is the BP range for Stage II HTN?
>160/>100
What can chronic high blood pressure lead to?
-Stoke
-Heart attack or failure
-Kidney failure
-Blood vessel damage
What are some of the medications to treat HTN?
-Diuretics (Lasix,THZ)
-CCBs ("-dipines")
-ACE inhibitors ("-prils")
-ARBs ("-sartans")
-Beta Blockers ("-lols")
-Aldosterone Receptor Inhibitors
What are the nursing implications for ACE inhibitors and ARBs?
-Assess baseline BP and WBC
-Monitor BP
-Report lab changes, hyperkalemia
-Prils may cause cough
What causes left-sided heart failure?
Decreased tissue perfusion
What causes right-sided heart failure?
-Left-sided heart failure
-MI
-Pulmonary HTN
What side HF leads to systemic congestion?
Right
What side HF leads to pulmonary congestion?
Left
What is systolic HF?
Inability of the ventricles to contract forcefully enough to eject enough blood.
What is diastolic HF?
The ventricle cannot adequately relax for filling.
What are the symptoms of Right-Sided HF?
-Dependent Edema
-JVD
-Hepatomegaly
-Cardiomegaly
-Polyuria at night
-Anorexia or nausea
-Distended abdomin
-Weight gain
-BP changes
What the symptoms of Left-Sided HF?
-Hacking cough
-Dyspnea
-Crackles/wheezes
-Frothy-pink tinged sputum
-Tachypnea
-S3 or S4 gallop
-Fatigue, weakness, dizziness
-Oliguria
-Angina
-Tachycardia
-Pallor
-Weak peripheral pulses
-Cool extremities
What is Class I HF?
Presence of HF with no limitations
What is Class II HF?
Slight limitation with ordinary physical activity
What is Class III HF?
Marked limitation with ordinary physical activity
What is Class IV HF?
Not comfortable at rest. Severe limitation.
What are some of the medications for HF?
-ACE inhibitors ("-prils")
-Diuretics (Lasix/THX)
-Nitrates (nitro)
-Beta Blockers ("-lols")
-Digitalis - slows HR, enhances contractility - decreases O2 demand
What are the SE and Nursing implications for Digitalis?
-Assess apical HR for one full minute before administering.
-Withhold Dig if HR is below 60 bpm
-Digitalis toxicity: Anorexia, N/V, abdominal pain, vision changes (diplopia, blurred vision, yellow-green or whitish halos), new dysrhythmias
-Carefully monitor potassium levels for hypokalemia
-Have Digibind ready if needed
What are some of the nursing interventions for impaired gas exchange?
Goal: promote breathing patterns to maximize oxygenation
-O2
-Turn, cough, and deep breathing
What are some of the nursing interventions for activity intolerance?
Goal: prevent fatigue and maximize function
-devise activity plan to stagger activities
What is a major sign of CHF that we must educate pts about?
Rapid weight gain - 3 lbs + weekly
What is Virchow's Triad?
1. Stasis of blood
2. Vessel damage
3. Increased blood coagulability

These three factors are associated with a risk of thrombophlebitis. Clot formation can be due to any factor.
What are some possible causes of DVTs?
-Surgery d/t immobility/hypercoagulability
-Pregnancy
-Ulcerative Colitis
-HF d/t venous stasis
-Immobility
What are the signs and symptoms of DVTs
-Calf and groin tenderness
-Edema
-Warmth
-Redness
-Swelling
What are the diagnostic tests for DVTs
-Homan's sign (controversial)
-Venous Duplex Ultrasonography (preferred test, noninvasive)
-Venography
-Plethsmography (not great for calf clots)
-MRI
What is the treatment for DVTs?
-Rest, elevation
-Drug Therapy - heparin, lovenox, clot busters, coumadin
-Thrombectomy
-Inferior Vena Caval Interruption
*Monitor for signs and symptoms of Pulmonary Embolism (SOB, blood in sputum)
What causes vericose veins?
-Weakened vein walls
-Incompetent valves
What is the Trendlenberg test?
Test to diagnose vericose veins. The leg is elevated, then an elastic tourniquet is placed around the distal thigh. Varicosities are observed as client stands. When valves of the deep vein are the cause, veins remain flat. When valves of the superficial veins are to blame, they rapidly distend.
When would it be indicated to surgically remove varicose veins?
if >4 cm or in large clusters
How do you manage varicose veins?
-Sclerotherapy (for small, symptomatic variscosities)
-Compression stockings to prevent further damage
-Surgery when indicated
What are the nursing interventions for varicose veins?
Goal: infection control/prevention
-Proper hygiene to prevent drying and cracking
-Increase fluid intake (if not contraindicated)
What are the symptoms of venous insufficiency?
-Lower extremity edema that worsens with standing
-Itching, dull leg discomfort or pain that increases with standing
-Thin, shiny, atrophic skin
-Cyanosis and brown skin pigmentation of lower leg and food
-Possibly weeping dermatitis
-Thick, hard subcutaneous tissue
-Recurrent ulcerations of medial or anterior ankle
What are the nursing interventions for venous insufficiency?
-Edema Management (wear stockings, elevate feet often)
*Proper wound care - STRICT aseptic technique
-Drug therapy - debride wound, promote healing
-Surgerical debridement - not as successful
What are some of the teaching points for venous insufficiency?
-Avoid standing still
-Avoid crossing legs
-Avoid some tight garments
-Elevate legs
-Wear AED
-Reduce weight
What is a seizure?
A single even of abnormal electrical discharge in the brain resulting in an abrupt and temporary altered state of cerebral function.
What type of seizure do older adults usually experience?
Complete Partial Seizure
What type of seizure do younger adults usually experience?
Tonic-Clonic Seizure
Why do seizures occur?
-febrile state
-CNS infection
-hypoglycemia
-toxins
-idiopathic
What seizure has no change in LOC?
Simple Partial Seizure
What is Status Epilepticus?
consistent seizure with sustained activity occuring repeatedly within a short period of time
Where can Simple Partial Seizures affect?
the face or parts of the body, ex: leg
What is the Jacksonian March?
Activity sequentially spreads to different parts of the body
What are the signs/symptoms of a Simple Partial Seizure?
-NO change in LOC
-Abnormal sensations/hallucinations
-Change in VS
-Inappropriate fear/anxiety
-"deja vu"
What are the signs/symptoms of a Complex Partial Seizure?
-consciousness impaired, amnesia
-may be preceded by an aura such as an unusual smell, deja vu, intense emotion
-repetitive, non-purposeful activity such as lip smacking, clothes picking, or aimless walking
What hemisphere of the brain and deep brain structures are are affected by generalized seizures?
Both
What are the characteristics of a absence seizure (Petit Mal Seizure)?
-motor activity ceases
-blank stare eye fluttering, lip smacking
-unresponsive
-lasts 5- 10 seconds
-can be occasional or up to 100s daily
What is the most common type of seizure in children?
Petit Mal or Absence
What is the most common type of seizure in adults?
Tonic-Clonic (Grand Mal)
What are the characteristics of a tonic-clonic (grand mal) seizure?
-May be preceded by a warning aura, such as a sense of uneasiness, metallic taste in mouth, smell of burning rubber, or seeing a bright light
What occurs in the tonic period?
n the tonic phase, there is a sudden LOC and sharp muscle contractions occur. Postural control is lost, as well as urinary and bowel continence. Breathing seizes and cyanosis develops. Pupils are fixed and dilated. Lasts an average of 15 seconds
What occurs in the clonic period?
-The clonic phase is characterized by alternating contraction and relaxation of the muscles in all extremities along with hyperventilation. The eyes roll back and the client froths at the mouth. Lasts on average 60-90 seconds
What is the postictal state?
Follows the clonic phase. Client remains unconscious and unresponsive to stimuli. Client is relaxed and breaths quietly, and later regains consciousness gradually and may be confused and disoriented. Headache, muscle fatigue,and lethargy often follow, and the client may sleep for several hours.
What is the goal of diagnosing seizure activity?
Determine the causative factor. MRI allows most vivid picture.
What is the goal of AEDs?
To control the manifestations of seizures, provide protection without impairing cognitive function or producing side effects
-Increase seizure threshold
-Limit the spread of abnormal brain activity
-individualized therapy
What are the nursing interventions for a client with known seizure activity?
-Reduce the risk of seizure activity
-promote SAFETY
What is a stroke?
A condition in which neurological deficits result from a sudden decrease in blood flow to a localized area of the brain. Can be ischemic or hemorrhagic.
What can cause a ischemic stroke?
-Embolus (blood clot)
-Thrombus (foreign material)
-Stenosis
What can cause a hemorrhagic stroke?
Blood vessel breakage.
-Can be due to HTN
-"Common" in children or infants
How long do Transient Ischemic Attacks ("Mini Strokes") last?
Symptoms last less than 24 hours, usually disappear within minutes or hours
What are the symptoms of TIAs?
-Unilateral numbness or weakness
-Aphasia (inability to communicate)
-Visual disturbances
What is Amaruosis Fugax?
Temporary blindness of one eye, described as a shade coming down.
How long does RIND (Reversible Ischemic Neurologic Deficit) last?
Symptoms last 24 - 72 hours, sometimes as long as 3 weeks
What are the characteristics of RIND?
*No permanent brain damage
-R/t plaques/clots in an artery that supplies the brain
What type of stroke usually happens overnight?
Thrombotic Stroke
What are the characteristics of a thrombotic stroke?
-Usually occurs in older adults who are sleeping
-Affects only one area of the brain
-Occurs rapidly, but progresses slowly
What is a stroke in evolution?
A series of episodes that lead to a complete stroke.
-Begins as a TIA, worsens over 1-2 days
-"Completed stroke" usually occurs in 3 days
What type of ischemic stroke can lead to a hemorrhagic stroke?
Embolic
What type of stroke occurs in younger clients who are awake and active?
Embolic
What are the characteristics of a hemorrhagic stroke (aneurysm)?
-Occurs when a cerebral blood vessel ruptures
-Occurs in cases of sustained HTN
-Occurs suddenly when client is active
-Most often fatal
Where does a Berry aneurysm usually occur?
at the bifurcation of blood vessels
Where does a Saccular aneurysm usually occur?
Any weak point in the vessel wall.
What is hemianopia?
Loss of half of the visual field of one or both eyes.
What is Agnosia?
The inability to recognize common things
What is Apraxia?
The inability to carry out some motor pattern (ex: getting dressed or brushing teeth) even when strength and coordination are adequate
What is Neglect Syndrome?
The client has a disorder of attention. The client cannot integrate and use perceptions from the affected side, and ignores that part.
What are some of the cognitive and behavioral complications from a stroke?
-Changes in LOC: mild confusion to a coma
*Emotional swings (biggest issue for discharge teaching)
*Loss of self control (swearing, nakedness)
-Decreased tolerance for stress
-Impairment of memory, judgment, and abstract thinking
-Decreased ability to concentrate
-Child-like behavior
What is aphasia?
The inability to use or understand language; may be expressive, receptive, or mixed.
What is expressive aphasia?
A motor speech problem in which one can understand what is being said but can respond verbally only in short phrases (Broca's aphasia)
What is receptive aphasia?
A sensory speech problem in which one cannot understand the spoken (and often written) word. Speech may be fluent, but with inappropriate content (Wernicke's aphasia)
What is mixed aphasia?
language dysfunction in both understanding and expression.
What is dysarthria?
any disturbance in muscular control of speech
What is hemiplegia?
Paralysis of the left or right half of the body
What is hemiparesis?
Weakness of the left or right half of the body
What is flaccidity?
Hypotonia. The absence of muscle tone
What is spasticity?
Hypertonia. Increased muscle tone, usually with some degree of weakness.
What drugs are indicated for the prevention of stroke?
Antiplatelet therapy (ex: low dose aspirin, Plavix)
What drugs are indicated to treat the client in an acute phase of a stroke?
-Anticoagulants - for ischemic strokes ONLY. (warfarin, heparin, Lovenox)
-Fibrinolytics - must be given within 3 hours of onset
-Antihypertensives if indicated
-Corticosteriods to treat cerebral edema or systemic effects.
When is surgery for a stroke indicated?
-To prevent the occurrence of a stroke
-To restore blood flow when a stroke has already occurred
-To repair vascular damage or malformations
What are nursing interventions for a patient with a stroke?
-Monitor ABCs
-Monitor LOC/mental status *any change in neurological status may indicated an impending stroke*
-Use Glasgow coma scale
What are the clinical manifestations of acute bronchitis?
-cough
-clear to purulent sputum
-fever
-headache
-SOB on exertion
-rhonci
-expiratory wheezes
-CXR clear with no consolidation
What are the clinical manifestations of infectious sinusitis?
-pain
-fever
-purulent drainage
-malaise
What are some of the management actions for acute bronchitis?
-Fluids
-rest
-antiinflammatory meds
-antivirals (if given within first 24-48 hours of symptom onset)
-antibiotics if COPD patient to prevent hospitalization
What is pneumonia?
Acute inflammation of the lung parenchyma. Alveoli and respiratory bronchioles are affected, and there is excess fluid in the lungs.
-It occurs when normal defense mechanisms are impaired
What are 3 ways organisms reach the lungs in pneumonia?
1. aspiration (from nasal and/or oral pharynx)
2. inhalation
3. hematogenous spread (from the blood)
What is the patho of pneumonia?
congestion of the airways, dilation of capillaries and alveoli, consolidation d/t decreased blood flow.
What are the characteristics of Community Acquired Pneumonia?
-Develops within the community or in first two days after admission.
-smoking is a big risk
-Best if given antibiotic within 4 hours of symptom onset - should see improvement within 48-72 hours.
What are the characteristics of Hospital Acquired Pneumonia?
-occurs after first 48 hours in hospital
-VAP (ventilation acquired pneumonia) > 48 hrs after ET intubation
-second most common nosocomial infection after UTI
-Usually bacterial
-Treat with a multi-drug resistant
What are the characteristics of Aspiration Pneumonia?
At risk if:
-Hx of LOC
-Tube feedings

Forms of aspiration pneumonia include mechanical obstruction, chemical injury, and bacterial infection.
Who is at highest risk for developing Opportunistic Pneumonia?
-malnutrition
-immune deficiency
-transplant
-chemo/radiation
How is pneumonia diagnosed?
*CXR and/or sputum culture.
-pulse ox
-ABGs
-CBC, differentials
-Blood culture
What are the clinical manifestations of pneumonia?
-chills and fever
-dyspnea
-cough
-malaise, fatigue,
-HA
-muscle ache
-pleuritic chest pain
-Elderly: Confusion, stupor

upon examination:
-Crackles
-Tactile fremitus
-Wheezing
-Dullness
What are some of the complications of pneumonia?
-Pleurisy
-Pleural effusion - usually reabsorbed
-Atalectasis - will clear with T,C,DB
-Bacteremia - bacterial infection of the blood
-Lung abscess
-Empyema - requires antibiotics and drainage
-Pericarditis - if spreads to heart
-Meningitis
-Endocarditis
What are some of the collaborative interventions for pneumonia?
-Antibiotics
-Increased fluid intake
-Rest
-Antipyretics
-Analgesics
-Bronchodilators
-O2 therapy if indicated
-vaccinations
-Caloric intake 1500/day
*Do not delay treatment while waiting on blood cultures
What are some of the nursing interventions for pneumonia?
-Teach nutrition, rest, hygiene, exercise to keep up immunities
-Prompt treatment of UTI
-Strict asepsis
-Encourage vaccinations
-Reposition pt q2 hrs
-Assist pts at risk for aspiration with eating/drinking/meds
-Assist immobile pts with turning and deep breathing
-Teach to take entire course of meds
-O2 therapy
-Maintain hydration
-Monitor labs
What is therapeutic positioning?
Patient on side with good lung down.
What is TB and what causes it?
Chronic infectious lung disease caused by myobacterium tuberculosis
-any tissue can be affected
-Multi-drug resistant TB
-Highest in HIV pts
How is TB spread?
Airborne droplets
What are the airborne precautions?
-N95 respirator
-Pressurized airflow single room
After infection of TB, how long are people at the highest risk of developing active TB disease?
2 years
What are the clinical manifestations of early stage TB?
Early stages are usually symptom free
-fatigue
-malaise
-anorexia/wt loss
-low-grade fever
-night sweats
-cough becomes frequent, often with frothy, white sputum
What are the clinical manifestations of acute TB?
-high fever
-chills
-pleuritic pain
-productive cough
-tubercle in lungs - calcification
What are the complications of TB?
-Pleural effusion and empyema
-TB pneumonia
-Miliary TB
-Other organ involvement
How is the TB Skin Test read?
Subdermal
-Measure induration size 48-72 hours
-induration indicates exposure
-sensitivity remains for life - do not test again
-if reaction is >5mm, it is considered positive
-2 step method
What are the diagnostic tests for TB?
-CXR, but a CXR alone is not diagnostic
-AFB sputum smear - send for 3 consecutive days, but must wait 8 weeks for result
-QFT - blood test
What are the nursing interventions of INH?
NO ALCOHOL AT ALL
-watch for hepatotoxicity
-hypersensitivity
-numbness and tingling of extremities
What is important to know about ethambutol?
May cause color blindness. Obtain baseline visual exam prior to therapy, and monitor vision daily?
What is important to know about rifampin?
-Educate client that body fluids willl turn orange/red
-Reduces effects of oral contraceptives
What is important to know about Rifabutin?
Will cause orange discoloration of contact lenses
What is important to know about PZA?
Monitor for hepaotoxicity!!! Monitor LFTs
What is the treatment regimen for active TB?
6 months of a 4-drug therapy
What is the treatment regimen for latent TB?
treat with INH for 6-9 months
What is the BCG vaccine?
Vaccine not approved in US - used to prevent TB in other parts of the world.
-may result in positive TST
-efficacy is not clear
What are some questions to ask in the nursing assessment of TB?
Could you have been exposed to TB recently?
-Overseas flight/travel
-Have you had any cough, night sweats, fever?
When is TB considered non-infectious?
After 3 negative AFB (sputum) smears
What is Chronic Bronchitis?
Chronic cough X3 months for 2 years
What is Emphysema?
Permanent enlargement for air spaces distal to the terminal bronchioles; destruction of their walls with or without fibrosis
What are the clinical manifestations of Emphysema?
"Pink Puffer"
-Increased CO2 retention (pink)
-No cyanosis
*Pursed-lip breathing
-Ineffective cough
-bronchi collapse on expiration
-orthopneic
*barrel chest*
-SOB
-D.O.E
-Easily fatigued
-Wheezing
-Speaks in short, jerky sentences
-Frequent URI
-Prolonged expiratory time
-Use of accessory muscles to breathe
-Thin appearance
-Leads to right-sided heart failur
What are the clinical manifestations of Chronic Bronchitis?
"Blue Bloater"
-Color dusky to cyanotic
-Recurrent cough and sputum production
-Hypoxia
-Hypercapnia
-Acidosis
-Edematous
-Increased RR
-D.O.E
-Digital clubbing
-Cardiomegaly
-Use of accessory muscles
-Cor Pulmonale
What are the clinical manifestations of COPD (limited airway disease)?
-Easily fatigued
-dyspnic
-Frequent URI
-Chronic non-productive cough
-Pursed-lip breathing
-Orthopneic
-Digital clubbing
-Thin
-Barrel chest
-Tripod position
-neck vein distention on expiration
-wheezing
-ankle edema
What are the O2 values for COPD?
PO2 - <60
SaO2 - <88%
PCO2 - >45
What are some of the complications of COPD?
-Cor Pulmonale - hypertrophy of right heart resulting in respiratory deficiency
-Exacerbation of COPD
-Acute Respiratory Failure
-Peptic Ulcer and GERD
-Depression/anxiety
What are some of the diagnostic studies performed for COPD?
-Forced Expiratory Volume in one minute (FEV1) decreased
-Forced Vital Capacity (FVC) decreased d/t narrowed airway and airflow resistance
What is AAT?
Alpha-Antitrypsin, which is produced n the liver but protects the lungs. Deficient in COPD. Is thought to be linked genetically.
What is the collaborative care for COPD?
-Bronchodilator Rx
-Corticosteroids
-Chest PT and PD
-Breathing exercises
-O2 therapy
-Surgery
When is home O2 therapy indicated in COPD?
If SaO2 is <88%
What are some of the complications of O2 therapy?
-combustion
-CO2 narcosis
-O2 toxicity - can cause alveolar damage