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617 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
Identify the four steps of a basic hand assessment |
1. Listen 2. Look 3. Feel 4. Move |
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Identify seven things to look for on physical examination of the hand |
1. Skin condition 2. Edema 3. Surgical incisions 4. Scar 5. Deformity and posture 6. Atrophy 7. Functional limitations |
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Identify seven things to feel for on a physical examination of the hand |
1. Malalignment 2. Tenderness 3. Ligament laxity 4. Sweating 5. Temperature difference 6. Pain with compression 7. Passive motion if safe |
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Identify two ways to measure edema |
1. Girth
2. Volumetric |
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Identify the motor and sensory tests for screening of median nerve |
Motor = resisted APB Sensory = tip of index |
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Identify the motor and sensory tests for screening of ulnar nerve |
Motor = resisted ADM Sensory = pulp of 5th digit |
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Identify the motor and sensory tests for screening of radial nerve |
Motor = victory sign Sensory = dorsum of 1st webspace |
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Identify eight possible therapeutic goals when working with hand injuries |
1. Manage pain and edma 2. Restore functional ROM 3. Restore normal muscle-length tension relationship 4. Manage scar tissue - functional scar 5. Restore functional strength and endurance 6. Prevent secondary complications (i.e. contractures) 7. Facilitate independence in ADLs 8. Facilitate return to valued occupations |
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Identify six treatments for pain modulation |
1. Ice/heat 2. Active motion 3. Compression 4. Elevation 5. Medication 6. CBT |
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Identify six treatments for edema control |
1. Tubigrip 2. Elevation 3. Coban tape 3. Retrograde massage 4. AROM 5. Ice |
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How do you restore functional mobility? |
Active ROM OR Passive ROM exercise, if safe for healing structures |
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Identify four treatments to restore soft tissue length-tension |
1. Static progressive splinting 2. Serial static splinting 3. Passive and active ROM 4. Functional use |
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When doing strengthening exercises, what should be restored first? |
Normal movement patterns |
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What is a wound? |
A break in the continuity of body structures caused by violence, trauma, surgery |
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Identify the three phases of wound healing |
1. Inflammatory phase 2. Fibroplasia phase 3. Maturation phase |
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At what stage in healing does inflammatory phase occur? |
3-5 days |
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At what stage in healing does fibroplasia phase occur? |
5-20 days |
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At what stage in healing does maturation phase occur? |
21 days-2 years |
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What happens during the inflammatory phase? |
Increase blood supply brings fibrin to create clotting, edema present. White blood cells hang out, engulf cellular debris |
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What is a therapy implication for the inflammatory phase? |
Often see hand surgery clients 1-3 days post operatively |
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What happens during the fibroplasia phase? |
Fibroblasts synthesize collagen and connective tissue = scar formation |
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What happens during the maturation phase? |
Collagen fibers reorganize to increase wound strength; scar tissue remodels. |
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What is tensile strength at week 3 of an injury? |
20% that of uninjured skin |
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A scar is strong but less ______ than uninjured skin. What implications does this have for recovery? |
Less elastic; vulnerable to breakdown from excessive stress |
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What occurs 24-48 hours post injury? |
Wound site is clear of bacteria and cellular debris |
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What happens immediately after an injury? |
Clotting cascade begins |
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What happens 48 to 96 hours post injury? |
Monocytes attracted to wound site and are transformed into macrophages |
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What are the four steps of fibroplasia phase? |
1. Angiogenesis 2. Epithelialization 3. Granulation 4. Tissue formation/collage deposition |
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What occurs in angiogenesis? |
New vascular networks for supply nutrients form |
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Fibronectin forms a fibre network during the remodelling phase; what are the two functions of this network? |
1. Template for collagen deposition 2. Platform for migration of cells and cellular growth |
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As more collagen is laid down, what increases? |
Tensile strength to the wound |
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Long term edema contributes to what four things |
1. Increased scar formation 2. Development of tight structures 3. Decreased motion 4. Decreased function |
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During the inflammatory stage, the edema has what properties and should be managed in what way? |
Liquid soft Compression, elevation, gentle active motion and massage (DON'T use excessive heat or exercise) |
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During the fibroplasia stage, the edema has what properties and should be managed in what way? |
"Exudate," more viscious Same methods as inflammatory + lympahtic massage, AROM and tendon gliding to minimize adhensions |
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During the maturation stage, the edema has what properties and should be managed in what way? |
Can be thick Massage, compression garments, PROM and AROm to prevent adhesions, and orthotic intervention to assist with formation of functional scar and remodelling |
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In what four ways are wounds classifies |
1. Intentional vs. unintentional 2. Closed vs. open 3. Contamination 4. Color |
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What does a red wound mean? |
Health, evidence of granulation tissue |
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What should you do for a red wound? |
Gentle cleansing and protection with topical antimicrobial agent/moisture retentive dressing |
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What does a yellow wound mean? |
Shows evidence of drainage |
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What should be done for a yellow wound? |
Cleansing to remove nonviable tissue, dressing to absorb drainage if needed |
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What does a black wound mean? |
Necrotic tissue |
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What should be done for a black wound? |
Surgery or similar |
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What are four signs of wound infection patients should be aware of? |
1. Increased redness 2. Increased temperature 3. Increased pain 4. Tracking up the arm |
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What are three major considerations of wound management? |
1. Bacterial balance 2. Necrotic tissue 3. Moisture balance |
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What can be used to treat wound infections? |
Antibiotics |
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Why is necrotic tissue bad? |
Impairs development of granulation tissue, impedes healing and is a medium for bacteria overgrowth |
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Why is it important to keep moisture in a wound balanced? |
Wound with too much moisture can damage surrounding tissue, which can slow down healing |
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What is progressive desensitization program and what is the functional purpose? |
Massage, textures, immersion, vibration on wound to increase functional use of affect hand/reintroduce it to sensation |
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What is a serial static splint? |
Slow, progressive increases in ROM by repeated remolding of the splint or cast. |
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What is a static progressive splint? |
A static mechanism that adjusts the amount or angle of traction acting on a part. Increase allows for elongation of tissues (better for very stiff contractures) |
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What is a static splint? |
No movable components and immobilizes a joint or part. Fabricated to rest or protect, to reduce pain, or to prevent muscle shortening or contracture. |
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Identify 5 meanings associated with hands |
1. Work 2. Socialization 3. Independence 4. Communication 5. Sense of self |
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Identify four psychosocial impacts of hand injury |
1. Change one's body image 2. Interfere with occupations 3. Interfere with relationships 4. Change family/personal relationships |
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Identify 3 myths about adjustment to hand injury |
1. Magnitude of accident dictates magnitude of psychosocial response 2. If they look OK on outside, must be OK on inside 3. Injury to non-dominant hand is not as significant as injury to dominant hand |
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Identify five issues that may negatively influence recovery andpsychological adjustment |
1. Inability to perform occupations 2. Unsupportive relationships 3. Attribution of responsibility for injury 4. Pre-injury psychosocial issues 5. Litigation and compensation |
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Identify five potential psychosocial issues following a traumatic hand injury |
1. Flashbacks/nightmares (most prevelant) 2. Anxiety 3. Depression 4. Adjustment problems 5. Cognitive difficulties |
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Identify an assessment tool that might be used to look at psychosocial issues post hand injury |
Impact of Event Scale - used to identify people with distress related to trauma, looks at intrusive and avoidance symptoms |
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PTSD is characterized by what three clusters of symptoms? |
1. Recurrent re-experiencing of event 2. Avoidance of trauma stimuli 3. Hyper-arousal |
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What are two kinds of coping?
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Problem focused coping Emotion focused coping |
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Identify eleven possible coping strategies |
1. Comparing 2. Positive thinking 3. Relying on personal capacity 4. Distancing 5. Distracting attention 6. Accepting the situation 7. Seeking social support 8. Maintaining control 9. Solving practical problems themselves 10. Pain relieving actions 11. Active processing of trauma experience |
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What are five possible social issues post hand injury? |
1. Social isolation/anxiety due to avoidance of social situations 2. Avoidance of public interactions resulting in increased dependence 3. Role changes 4. Financial stress 5. Relationship stress |
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What are eight things therapists can do to mitigate risk of psychosocial symptoms post hand injury? |
1. Listen and empathize 2. Facilitate ADL independence ASAP 3. Facilitate return to roles 4. Encourage good sleep 5. Encourage normal social routine 6. Ask about changes 7. Screen for psychosocial difficulties and refer ASAP 8. Focus on function |
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What is the Injured Works Survey? |
Brief screening tool developed to identify patients with hand injuries needing further psychosocial assessment and intervention |
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What is a bifocal lens?
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Therapist views and analyzes performance issues while looking through a lens that provides both biological and occupational focus |
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What framework should be used for orthotic practice? Why?
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Bio-occupational; should consistently use both, because using only one does not give a full image of the client's OPI |
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What are three purposes of orthotics?
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Corrective Assistive |
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What is the overall goal of orthoses?
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To improve occupational performance |
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What do protective orthoses do?
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Immobilize the joint, block joint motion, and promote joint alignment; stabilize an unstable joint, tendon or fractured bone
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What kind of force does protective orthoses exert on a joint?
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Traction force |
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What do protective orthoses protect?
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Vulnerable or healing structures |
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What do corrective orthoses do?
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Correct joint contracture or subluxation of joints or tendons |
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What do assistive orthoses do?
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Assist movement of joints during functional activities when muscles are weak or paralyzed |
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What do assistive orthoses reduce?
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Muscle tone of spastic muscles to promote joint mobility |
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How does tissue respond to gentle prolonged stretch in the ELASTIC range?
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Promotes growth of soft tissues
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How does tissue respond to reduction or removal of tension?
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Promotion of resportion of tissue |
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What happens to tissue when stretched by a tensile force that exceeds the normal elastic limit?
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Microscopic tearing of fibers = inflammation = small hemorrhages = scarring of tissue, restriction of mobility :( |
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What is the position of rest?
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Position in which has least amount of tension on muscles and tendons and best biomechanical position for efficient function when orthotic removed |
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What is a loose packed position and what is its purpose?
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Resting position (least joint surface congruency), purpose is protection |
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What is a closed packed position and what is its purpose?
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Position with most amount of joint congruency and that maintains tissue length; purpose is correction |
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What is the loose packed position of the radiocarpal joint?
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Neutral with slight ulnar deviation |
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What is the loose packed position of the MCP joint of fingers?
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Slight flexion |
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What is the loose packed position of the MCP joint of thumb?
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Midway between abduction adduction and flexion extension |
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What is the loose packed position of the interphalangeal joints?
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Slight flexion |
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What is the close packed position of the radiocarpal joint?
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Extension with radial deviation
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What is the close packed position of the MCP joint in the fingers?
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Full flexion |
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What is the close packed position of the MCP joint in the thumb?
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Full opposition |
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What is the close packed position of the interphalangeal joint?
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Full extension |
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Identify the five categories of orthoses
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2. Static 3. Serial static 4. Static progressive 5. Dynamic |
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What is a non-articular orthosis?
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Does not cross any joint and has no direct influence on joint mobility, e.g. fracture bracing |
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What does a non-articular orthosis do?
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Protect or correct a body segment or bone |
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What is a static orthosis?
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Immobilizes one or more joints |
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What four things are static orthosis designed to do?
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2. Rest injured/inflamed tissues 3. Unload tissues to promote resportion of lax structures 4. Reduce muscle tone |
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What is a serial-static orthosis
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Immobilizes one or more joints - different from static in that it is serially remolded as tissue length changes |
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What two things is a serial static orthosis designed to do?
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1. Reduce muscle tone of spastic muscles 2. Corrects contractures by applying gentle, prolonged stretch to promote growth of contracted soft tissues |
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What does a static progressive orthosis do? |
Applies gentle prolonged stretch to promote growth of contracted soft tissue |
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What does a static progressive orthosis correct? |
Contracures |
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How would you make a static progressive orthosis? |
Attach an elastic or non elastic component to a thermoplastic base and adjust by small increments, to apply a gentle stretch |
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What is a dynamic orthosis used for? |
To provide passive assist for weak or absent motor function due to paralysis *OR* to apply gentle stretch, similar to static progressive orthoses, but at a different point in the tissue healing process |
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What does a dynamic orthosis do? |
Applies passive force in one direction while permitting active motion in the opposite direction using rubber bands, etc. |
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Identify five optimal orthotic outcomes |
1. Pain relief 2. Appropriate extensibility of soft tissues for adequate ROM, joint stability, functional use 3. Protection of vulnerable tissues 4. Enablement of valued activities and participation 5. Enhanced emotional well-being |
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What is pressure? |
Force per unit of area |
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What is the equation for pressure? |
Force over surface area |
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How can you reduce pressure when fabricating orthotics? |
Decrease force or increase surface area |
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What do contours of an orthosis increase? |
Rigidity and strength of orthosis |
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Good contour of an orthosis decreases what? |
Pressure |
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What does appropriate strapping decrease in an orthoses? |
Pressure |
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On an orthosis, the location of the straps should optimize what? |
The lever arm and joint controlling forces |
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What should you ensure is long enough to support the limb in the orthosis? |
Lever arm |
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The forearm trough of an orthosis should extend how far? Why? |
Half-way up sides of limb > contour and increased level arm improve support of limb |
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The length of the orthosis should extend how far up the forearm? Why? |
2/3 the length of the forearm > to increase the lever arm, thereby improving support of hand/wrist |
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What two things should you consider when placing straps on orthosis? |
1. Location optimizes lever arm 2. They are appropriate width and conformity to distribute securing force over large surface area |
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Identify six reasons an orthosis might not be used |
1. Discomfort and pressure 2. Embarrassed by appearance 3. Lack of comprehension 4. Occupational hindrance 5. Cultural beliefs 6. Too heavy |
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Why shouldn't we use the term compliance? |
Not client-centered - should focus on why orthosis isn't right for them instead |
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What are the guiding principles for taking a biopsychosocial approach to orthotics? |
1. Client centered 2. Consider psychosocial factors 3. Optimize body structure/function 4. Enable activity and participation 5. Well engineered 6. Optimize usability 7. Provide choice 8. Optimize comfort 9. Minimize harm 10. Optimize cosmoses 11. Use a less is more approach 12. Provide comprehensive patient education 13. Monitor and modify 14. Evaluate outcomes |
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What is the goal of an orthosis for joint effusion? |
Rest inflammed joints to reduce inflammation and pain |
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What is the goal of an orthosis for overstretched tendons? |
Unload slack tendons to promote resportion of redundant collagen fibers |
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What is the goal of an orthosis for ruptured or lacterated tendons? |
Protect healing tendons and/or to facilitate controlled tendon extension to promote healing |
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What is the goal of an orthosis for contracted soft tissues? |
Promote growth of contracted tissue |
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What kind of orthosis would you use for joint effusion? |
Static |
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What kind of orthosis would you use for overstretched tendons? |
Static |
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What kind of orthosis would you use for ruptured or lacerated tendons? |
Static to protect, dynamic to promote healing |
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What kind of orthosis would you use for contracted soft tissue? |
Serial static, serial progressive or dynamic |
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How does rheumatoid arthritis affect joints? |
Painful, swollen, stiff; symmetrically; primarily affects small joints but also large; movement decreases pain |
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How does osteoarthritis affect joints? |
Pain without swelling, asymmetrically, affects large weight-bearing joint such as hips, knees, spine; movement increases pain |
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What is rheumatoid arthritis? |
Chronic auto-immune inflammatory condition, brought on by body's immune system attacking its own joint tissues, bones |
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What kinds of joints are most commonly affect by rheumatoid arthritis? |
Synovial |
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What are the 7 classification criteria for active RA? |
1. Morning stiffness 1 hour + 2. Arthritis in 3+ joint areas 3. Arthritis in 1 hand joint 4. Symmetrical 5. Rheumatoid nodules 6. Positive serum rheumatoid factor 7. Radiographic changes (4/7 = active RA) |
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What is synovitis? |
Inflammation of synovial membrane - first sign of joint pathology |
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What is effusion? |
Swelling in body cavity caused by excess of synovial fluid |
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What happens in RA when the synovial membrane proliferates? |
Grows over articular cartilage, cutting off from synovial fluid and erroding bone and soft tissues. Articular cartilage erodes. |
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Without cartilage, what can grow across joint space? |
Fibrous and bony tissue, resulting in fibrous ankylosis which can result in bony ankylosis |
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Identify six things that suggest joint pathology |
1. Synovitis 2. Instability of joints and tendons 3. Malalignment/deformity 4. Weakness 5. Limited ROM 6. Functional limitations |
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Deformity in joints is more likely to occur when? |
When joints are active |
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Unstable joints are more susceptible to joint what? |
Deforming forces |
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Movement may aggrevate what? |
Synovitis and tenosynovitis but also important for fluid circulation, strength of connective issue, and tendon glide |
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What is known to reduce synovitis and tenosynovitis? |
Rest |
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What are seven things that can relieve pain and inflammation in joints? |
1. Mobility aids 2. Orthoses - protective 3. Ice 4. Medications 5. Balance of rest and activity 6. Joint protective 7. Adaptive equipment |
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Identify six OT interventions for arthritis |
1. Energy conservation 2. Joint protection 3. Ax and provision of adaptive equipment 4. Orthotic intervention 5. Psychosocial support 6. Work, home, activity modification |
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What six common issues in RA contribute to hand deformity and with it, loss of meaningful occupation? |
1. Joint laxity 2. Joint subluxation 3. Tendon subluxation 4. Tendon rupture 5. Bone erosion 6. Cartilage loss |
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What is subluxation? |
Partial loss of joint alignment |
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What leads to joint laxity and instability in RA? |
Capsule and ligaments overstretched |
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How should you position unstable joints for someone with RA? |
Loose-packed position to promote resorption of lax connective tissues |
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What results in MCP volar subluxation and ulnar drift in someone with RA? |
Lax collateral ligaments and fibrous sheath stressed by strong flexion forces |
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Tendon subluxation leads to _____ drift |
Ulnar |
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Laxity in sagittal bands leads to what? |
Ulnar subluxation of extensor tendons |
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What can an intrinsic spasm lead to? |
Intrinsic muscle tightness, MCP flexion contracture |
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MCP joint volar subluxation is secondary to what? |
Lax ligaments and pull of flexor/extensor tendons |
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What five things contribute to ulnar drift of the fingers and MCP joint subluxation? |
1. Joint laxity 2. Ulnar subluxation of extensor tendons 3. Ulnar pull of flexor tendons 4. Lumbrical and interossei muscle spasm 5. Joint subluxation |
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Dorsal subluxation of lateral bands leads to what? |
Swan neck deformity |
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What does swan neck deformity look like? |
Flexion of DIP/MCP, extension of PIP |
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What kind of orthosis can be used to address swan neck deformity? |
Oval ring |
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What is the intrinsic stretch and test? |
Extent MCP, DIP; flex PIP = if this can be done, intrinsic muscles can have normal length |
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What can cause fixed intrinsic plus position? What does this contribute to? |
Spasm or contracture of lumbricals; swan neck deformity
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Volar subluxation of lateral bands leads to what? |
Boutonniere deformity (flexion of PIP, extension of MCP and DIP) |
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Three ways joints change in OA |
1. Uneven cartilage thinning 2. Secondary bone formation around joint margins 3. Hardening of subchondral bone |
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What is OA? |
Group of conditions associated with defective articular cartilage and changes in nderlying bones |
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What are two risk factors of OA? |
Mechanical forms causing abnormal joint lifting and aging |
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What are Heberden's Nodes? |
hard or bony swellings that can develop in the distalinterphalangeal joints (DIP) caused by formation ofosteophytes (calcific spurs) of the articular (joint)cartilage in response to repeated trauma at the joint. |
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What are Bouchard's Nodes? |
bony growths in the proximal interphalangeal (PIP) jointsof the hand. |
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Thumb CMC OA is a common functional issue; what causes it? |
Joint laxity and bone subluxation |
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What are two symptoms of thumb CMC OA? |
1. Pain at base of thumb 2. Positive grind test |
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What is a grind test? |
Provocative test to reproduce joint tenderness by axial loading with rotation of thumb |
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During lateral pinch, compression force at _______________ surface is 12x that generated at thumb and index finger |
Trapezio-metacarpal surface |
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What is the rationale for thenar muscle strengthening? |
Strong pull of adductor pollicis + weak opposing intrinsic muscles, inefficient extrinsic muscles = adduction deformity of the thumb |
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Lateral pinch promotes ulnar drift when? |
First dorsal interosseous muscle is weak |
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Evidence suggests hand exercises for OA can do what three things? They are appropriate in what circumstances? |
1. Increase grip 2. Improve function 3. Reduce pain > appropriate when joint is not inflamed and is stable and pain free |
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What orthoses would you use for CMC OA? |
Long and short opponens orthoses (both reduce pain and subluxation, but patients prefer short) |
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Offering clients a choice of CMA OA orthosis allows what? |
Vary use, depending on degree of inflammation and type of activity |
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Custom CMC orthoses are more appropriate for what clients? |
Acutely inflammed |
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Stretching exercises help maintain what in OA and RA? |
ROM |
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Strengthening exercises help maintain what in OA and RA? |
Maintain and increase grip strength |
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Joint protection education for OA/RA improves what? |
Function |
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What is an alternative splinting option for CMC OA? |
MCP joint moves from 30 degrees flexion to full flexion with CMC joint free |
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What is one intervention for phantom limb pain? |
Desensitization and sensory re-education |
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What does central slip do? |
Extension of finger |
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What is compression neuropathy? |
An injury occurring at specific anatomical sites, the mechanism of which combines mechanical pressureand/or ischemia, usually resulting from multiple orrepetitive insults to the nerve |
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What are the three layers of a nerve? |
1. Endoneurium (around nerve fiber) 2. Perineurium (around fasicle) 3. Epineurim (around nerve) |
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Describe the 5 classifications of nerve injury |
1. Temporary conduction block, with remylenation, recovery in 12 weeks 2. Axonal disruption 3. Endoneurial and axonal disruption 4. Perineurium and contents disruption 5. Complete nerve transection, requires surgery |
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What are the symptoms and impacts on sensation and motor function with a MILD nerve injury |
Symptoms: intermittent and position dependent Sensation: decreased vibration threshold = increased perception of vibration Motor: mild weakness |
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What are the symptoms and impacts on sensation and motor function with a MODERATE nerve injury |
Symptoms: sensory deficits are intermittent and progressive Sensation: increased vibration threshold = decreased perception of vibration Motor: weakness may be noted |
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What are the symptoms and impacts on sensation and motor function with a SEVERE nerve injury |
Symptoms: persistent sensory changes, loss of sensation Sensation: abnormal 2 point discrimination Motor: muscle wasting and weakness |
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What are the treatment guidelines for mild nerve injury? |
Conservative measures - activity and job modifications, splinting, medication |
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What are the treatment guidelines for moderate nerve injury? |
Conservative measures for 3 months then surgery if fails |
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What are the treatment guidelines for severe nerve injury? |
Surgery |
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What is the goal of clinical examination for nerve compression? |
Locate site of nerve compression and determine severity based on history and symptoms |
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What are the five components of assessment for nerve compression? |
1. History 2. Screen for proximal nerve compression if appropriate 3. Sensibility evaluation - 2 point discrimination, pressure 4. Provocative testing - Tinel's, Phalen's 5. Motor testing |
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What are three syndromes caused by the median nerve? |
1. Pronator syndrome 2. Anterior interosseous syndrome 3. Carpal tunnel syndrome |
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What is the relevance of the palmar cutaneousbranch of the mediannerve? |
Superficial to flexor retinaculum, remains functioning during carpal tunnel syndrome |
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Where does the median nerve lie with relation to FDS, FCR and PL tendons? |
Between FDS and FCR; dorsal to PL |
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What are the main symptoms of carpal tunnel syndrome? |
Compression of the median nerve in thecarpal canal resulting in pain, tingling andnumbness in median nerve distribution |
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What are four factors influencing pressure in the carpal tunnel? |
1. Anatomic (fracture, carpal dislocation) 2. Neuropathic (diabetes, pregnancy) 3. Mechanical (repetitive motion) 4. Obesity |
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What is threshold in clinical examination for nerve compression and what does it reflect? |
Point at which stimulus is perceived; compression and laceration |
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What is innervation density in clinical examination for nerve compression and what does it reflect? |
Number of nerve fibers innervating a specified area; decreases with nerve laceration and severe nerve compression |
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Slowly adapting nerve fiber types perceive what? |
Constant touch, pressure, lateral stretch |
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Quickly adapting nerve fiber types perceive what? |
Movement |
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What are six general principles for sensibility and sensory testing? |
1. Quiet area 2. No distractions 3. Demonstrate test first in intact area 4. Eyes must be closed 5. Avoid giving feedback 6. Support hand to prevent motion |
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What are Semmes Weinstein Monofilaments used to test and how is this test done? |
Slowly adapting fibers = threshold Apply filaments and ask if patient feels - amount of pressure applied gradually increases |
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What does a 2 point discrimination test used to evaluate? |
Innervation density Moving 2pt tests quickly adapting fibers, static 2pt tests merkel cells |
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What is Tinel's used to evaluate and how would you do it? |
Lightly tap middle of carpal tunnel, positive is tingling in thumb, index and middle fingers Used to test carpal tunnel syndrome |
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What is Phalen's used to evaluate and how would you do it? |
Evaluates carpal tunnel syndrome Hold wrist in complete/forced flexion for 30-60s |
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Identify four OT interventions for carpal tunnel syndrome? |
1. Orthotics 2. Egonomic ax and modification 3. Education 4. Modify work postures, tool handles |
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What is the rationale for splinting for carpal tunnel syndrome? |
To relieve intra-carpal tunnelpressure, maximizing blood flow to themedian nerve. |
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Identify four possible causes of tenosynovitis |
1. Rheumatologic disorder 2. Bacterial infections 3. Repetitive movements 4. Age, comorbidities |
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What is tenosynovitis vs tendinosis? When would you suspect one vs. the other? |
Tenosynovitis is inflammation Tendinosis is damage to tendon but no inflammation -itis = acute, osis = chronic - suspect -osis if has been experiencing for a long time, if old |
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What are three typical interventions for tendinitis? |
1. Orthotics to rest tissue 2. Ergonomic assessment and modification 3. Modalities and exercises |
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What two tendons are involved in de quervain's tenosynovitis? |
Abductor pollicus longus and extensor pollicus brevis |
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What is de quervain's tenosynovitis? |
Entrapment of the tendom sheath of the APL and/or EPB tendons at the radial styloid process - may be swelling and pain with thumb abduction and extension |
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What symptoms might suggest de quervain's tenosynovitis? |
Pain over radial styloid Thumb motion may be difficult or painful, esp. abduction, flexion, extension Tenderness and swelling of 1st extensor compartment |
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What are two provocative tests for de quervain's tenosynovitis? |
1. Resisted thumb extension 2. Finkelstein test |
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How would you do a Finkelstein test? |
Wrap fingers around thumb, passively move wrist into ulnar deviation; "excruciating pain" at radial styloid = positive |
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What are the symptoms of intersection syndrome? |
Radial wrist pain, crepitus with wrist motion, inflammation and swelling |
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What causes intersection syndrome? |
Friction between 1st and 2nd compartment tendons (APL/EPB and ECRL/ECRB) |
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What is the provocative test for intersection syndrome? |
Pain with resisted wrist radial deviation |
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What are the symptoms of Wartenberg's syndrome? |
Radial wrist pain not dependent on thumb movement, paresthesia over dorsum of 1st webspace |
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What causes Wartenberg's syndrome? |
Entrapment of superficial branch of radial sensory nerve between ECRL and BR tendons during pronation |
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What are 2 provocative tests for Wartenberg's syndrome? |
1. Positive Tinel's over course of the nerve 2. Elbow extension + hyperpronation forearm + wrist ulnar flexion numbness and tingling over dorsoradial aspect of hand |
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What is trigger finger/thumb? |
Common hand condition characterized by pain,swelling and clicking of a digit during flexion orextension. In advanced cases, digit can lock in flexion/extension |
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What is the cause of trigger finger? |
Exact cause unknown |
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What is the most common location of trigger finger in digits and at the thumb? |
Digit = A1 pulley volar to MCP joint Thumb = sesamoid bones where FPB inserts |
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What are five possible treatments for trigger finger? |
1. Orthotic 2. Education 3. Minimize edema/scar if secondary to injury 4. Medical 5. Surgery |
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What is the rationale for orthotics for trigger finger? |
Decrease inflammation by altering mechanics of pressure at A1 pulley that occurs with loading and prevent nodule from getting caught on A1 pulley =decrease inflammation, provide rest and recovery |
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How do you decide what orthotic is best for trigger finger? |
Use interview to identify when trigger finger occurs - with full fist OR with hook fist and full fist? |
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What five things does a FIT chart assess? |
Personal capacity, occupational demands, environmental demands, goodness of fit, targets for change |
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What are three models of addiction? |
1.Moral model (addicts chose to use drugs in a problematic manner) 2. Disease model (addiction is caused by biological factors) 3. Final common pathway (addiction comes from biological, psychological, and social factors but results in permanently re-wired brain) |
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In what four ways is substance use occupational? |
1. Disrupts occupation 2. Enables occupation 3. Deprives occupation 4. Is an occupation |
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What is one consideration about substance use as an occupation for treatment? |
During recovery, individuals can have 16-18 hours of time - excess free time is linked with relapse |
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What are five person factors related to addiction and relapse? |
1. Genetics 2. Lack of coping skills 3. Cultural vulnerabilities 4. Concurrent disorder 5. Unresolved grief |
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What are five environment factors related to addiction and relapse? |
1. Trauma, abuse, neglect, abandonment 2. Early exposure to substances 3. Social disadvantage and economic hardship 4. Inadequate parenting/role models 5. Stress |
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What are five occupation factors related to addiction and relapse? |
1. Specific activity - risks 2. Method/route of engagement in use 3. Time allotted to engage 4. Routine 5. Paraphernalia |
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What are two methods to address excess free time in addictions rehab? |
1. Activity schedule
2. Cope alert card (identifies high risk situation and plan to address it) |
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What is a decisional balance scale in addictions rehab? |
Looks at benefits and cons of using and benefits and cons of changing |
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What are eight interventions for stress management? |
1. Visualization 2. Progressive muscle relaxation 3. Box breathing 4. Sleep hygiene 5. Healthy eating 6. Social supports 7. Exercise 8. Social skill training |
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What are four ways substance use can disrupt occupations? |
The 4 L's 1. Love - relationships 2. Liver - health 3. Legal 4. Livelihood - productivity |
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What is a wellness toolkit? |
activities and coping methods that help someone feel well; includes a daily maintenance plan, triggers and an action plan, and early warning signs |
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What is one of the strongest predictors of successful recovery from substance use? |
Engagement in vocation |
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What three things have higher incidence among people who are homeless? |
1. Mental health concerns 2. Substance use 3. Various physical health issues, including arthritis, hepatisis c, asthma, etc. |
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Why are mental health challenges more prevalent in individuals who are homeless? |
Can exacerbate symptoms of MI or untreated MI can be a risk of unemployment, poverty, and lack of social supports, leading to homelessness |
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Why are physical health challenges more prevalent in people who are homeless? |
Being homeless can lead to poor physical health (e.g. access to food, exposure to elements, risk, violence, and lack of access to facilities) OR having poor physical health can be a risk for unemployment, poverty and thus homelessness |
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What are five barriers to accessing healthcare for people who are homeless? |
1. No OHIP card 2. Refused healthcare in the past 3. Experienced discrimination 4. Negative experience with hospital security 5. Not able to follow treatment |
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Why should OTs work with people who are homeless? |
1. Intersection between homelessness and mental and physical disability 2. Disrupts ability to do and learn IADLs 3. Limited occupational repertoires that cannot be improved by housing alone |
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What are two environmental interventions for homelessness? |
1. Housing 2. Social and occupational advocacy |
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What is Housing First? |
A recovery-oriented approach to homelessness that involves moving people who experience homelessness into independent and permanent housing as quickly as possible, with no preconditions |
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What are the five core principles of Housing First? |
1. Immediate access to permanent housing with no readiness requirements 2. Consumer choice and self determination 3. Recovery orientation 4. Individualized and client driven supports 5. Social and community integration |
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What are six IADLs you might work on with a client with a history of homelessness? |
1. Managing finances 2. Cooking 3. Grocery shopping 4. Meal planning 5. Activity scheduling 6. sleep hygiene |
|
What happens during the inflammatory phase of fracture healing? |
Fracture hematoma clots and serves as initial support of fracture gap; cells remove necrosed bone and debris and initiate tissue growth. This phase has LOW strength and fails with excess load. |
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What happens during the reparative phase of fracture healing? |
New capillaries form, cells synthesize woven bone and initial soft callus converted to hard callus with appropriate stability and loading (but still can fail with excess load) |
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What happens during the remodelling phase of fracture healing? |
Hard callus is mineralized into lamellar bone; blood blow returns to normal; bone remodelling to normal pre-injury state can take years |
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Describe the four steps of fracture healing. |
1. Hematoma formation 2. Soft callus formation 3. Hard callus formation 4. Bone remodelling |
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What three factors may confound fracture healing and how? |
By disrupting blood supply 1. Certain medications 2. Diabetes, infection, surgical trauma, crush injuries 3. Age |
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What is one of the most influential factors in fracture healing? |
Motion |
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The amount of motion across fracture site will determine what? |
Strength and rate of bone healing or FAILURE of healing
|
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What kind of forces facilitate healing? |
Compression or weight bearing forces that are intermittent |
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What kind of forces have adverse effects on healing? |
Shear and angularM |
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Motion should only be applied to a fracture when? |
It is stable |
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What is the incidence of a metacarpal fracture? |
Metacarpal (30-50%) |
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Where does a metacarpal fracture most commonly occur? How often does it take to heal? |
At the neck 3-5 weeks |
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A transverse metacarpal fracture may do what? |
Dorsally angulate |
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Oblique torque force will cause what to a metacarpal fracture? |
Shortening and rotation - scissoring may occur |
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What is the incidence of a proximal phalanx fracture and how long does it take to heal? |
1. 15-20% of hand fractures 2. 3-5 weeks for prox., 5-7 weeks for mid-shaft |
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What are three possible complications of a proximal phalanx fracture? |
1. Volar angulation 2. PIP joint unstable mid-shaft = bone shortening, tendon adherence |
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What is the incidence of a middle phalanx fracture and how long does it take to heal? |
1. 8-12% of hand fractures 2. 7-12 weeks > may take longer in middle shaft due to large amount of cortical bone |
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What is the incidence of a distal phalanx fracture? How long does it take to heal? |
40-50% of hand fractures 3 weeks |
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What should you do if extensor tendon attachment is involved in a distal phalanx fracture? |
DIP extension orthotic for 6 weeks 24/7 |
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What kind of orthosis might you use for a distal phalanx fracture for protection? |
Volar finger orthosis |
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If a distal phalanx fracture is caused by a crush, what might be needed? |
Desensitization to improve tolerance to touch and pressure (lots of nerve endings) |
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What are the three kinds of distal phalanx fractures? |
1. Longitudinal 2. Tuft (end is all smashed) 3. Transverse (horizontal) |
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What are four ways to classify a fracture |
1. Location on the bone 2. Angle of the fracture (transverse, oblique, longitudinal) 3. Number of fragments 4. Skin open or closed |
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What is primary fracture healing? |
Fixation that compresses the fracture and provides stability permits direct bone re-grow (= internal fixation via surgery) |
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What is secondary fracture healing? |
When motion is minimized across the fracture gap, healing goes through fibrous callus repair that is converted to bone (= a cast) |
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Non operative treatment of a fracture is appropriate for what kind of fractures? |
STABLE fractures 1. Muscles are not likely to displace fragments 2. Fracture is not articular and not likely to be displaced with motion |
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What are the general rehab guidelines for the primary stage of fracture healing (1-6 weeks)? |
1. Orthosis/cast of joints proximal and distal to fracture using safe position for splinting. To be worn at all times unless physician allows for removal for skin care and AROM 2. PROM at 4 weeks if fracture stable and enough healing has occurred) |
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What are the general rehab guidelines for the secondary stage of fracture healing (3-6 weeks)? |
1. Discharge immobilization orthosis = key difference from primary stage (i.e. clinically healed metacarpal fracture) 2. AROM 3. PROM |
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What are the general rehab guidelines for the tertiary stage of fracture healing (6-8 weeks)? |
1. Avoid resistive activity/work/ADL/avocational activity until fracture is “clinically healed” (versus x-ray) 2. May require orthosis to increase joint motion 3. Progressive strengthening |
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When is it safe it do AROM and PROM after a hand fracture? |
AROM = when fracture is stable PROM = when fracture is stable and initial healing has occured |
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What are the four steps to clinically assess fracture healing/ |
1. Apply firm pressure 2. Ask client to rate pain 3. Document and refer to bone healing chart 4. Based on that info, decide when to initiate PROM and progress to light strengthening |
|
What are three operative treatments for bone fractures? |
1. Closed reduction internal fixation 3. Open reduction internal fixation (unstable fractures, or where early mobilization is required) 3. Open/closed reduction external fixation (external fixator inserted into bone to maintain fracture alignment) |
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What are the four kinds of metacarpal fractures? |
1. head 2. Neck 3. Shaft 4. Base |
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What are three possible treatments for metacarpal neck fractures? |
1. Buddy taping 2. Ulnar gutter orthosis 3. Hand/finger based orthosis |
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What are the two kinds of metacarpal shaft fractures? |
Oblique or transverse |
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What starts to decrease after 30 degrees of dorsal metacarpal angulation in a metacarpal neck fracture? |
Grip power |
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A metacarpal shaft fracture can shorten what? |
the metacarpal |
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Proximal phalanx fractures tend to be what kind of fractures? |
Oblique or transverse |
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Middle phalanx fractures tend to be what kind of fractures? |
Transverse |
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Spiral and long oblique fractures tend to do what? |
Rotate |
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Transverse and short oblique fractures tend to do what? |
Angulate |
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Proximal phalanx fractures often angulate what way? Why? |
Palmarly because of interossei muscle |
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Stable, closed and non-displaced fractures are treated what way? |
Either dorsal blocking orthosis and/or buddy-taping and immediate motion |
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Displaced or mal-aligned fractures are treated what way? |
if stable after reduction are treated with an orthosis or casting |
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What is the most commonly seen fracture? |
Wrist - most commonly fractured wrist bone is radius (and 3/4 of all wrist injuries are radius or ulna fractures) |
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What occurs at the distal radio ulnar joint? |
Pronation and supination |
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The distal radio ulnar joint is stabilized by what? |
The Triangular fibro-cartilage Complex (TFCC) comprised of a central articular disc and ligament on the periphery |
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What are the two wrist joints? What do they do? |
1. radiocarpal 2. mid-carpal > flexion and extension > radiocarpal = radial and ulnar deviation |
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How much force does the radiocarpal vs. ulnar carpus transmit? What happens if this is disrupted? |
Radiocarpal - 80% Ulnar carpus = 20% > leads to alternations in force transmission |
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What happens if the force balanced in power grip is disrupted? |
The radius moves proximally during power grip. If force transmission is altered, flexor and extensor tendons that cross wrist pull the proximal row against the radius and TFCC which = axial compression |
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What happens to the radius in pronation? |
Moves proximally causing a relative positive ulnar variance |
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What happens to the radius in supination? |
Radius moves distally causing a relative negative ulnar variance |
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What are three vulnerable structures for a FOOSH injury? |
1. Radius 2. Scaphoid 3. Ligaments |
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What are four mechanisms of wrist fracture injury? |
1. Compression 2. Avlusion 3. Shearing 4. Combined |
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What are the six kinds of wrist fractures? |
1. Colles fracture 2. Smith's fracture 3. Barton's fracture 4. Chauffeur's fracture 5. Ulnar styloid fracture 6. Scaphoid fracture |
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What is a Barton's fracture?
|
Intra-articular fracture of distal radius |
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What is a Chauffeur's fracture? |
Fracture of radial styloid |
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What is a Colles fracture? |
Extension fracture that occurs when FOOSH in extension Most are ulnar styloid fractures |
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What can occur after a colles fracture? |
Extra-articular dorsal angulation, with radial deviation/shortening |
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What is a Smith's fracture? |
Flexion fracture - FOOSH injury that occursin hyperflexion or supinationWh |
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What can a Smith's fracture result in? |
Palmar angulation, ulnar deviation |
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Where do scaphoid fractures occur? |
Proximal 1/3, waist, tubercle |
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What is the healing timeframe for a scaphoid fracture? |
Dependent on location, 6-12 weeks or longer |
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How should a scaphoid fracture be managed? |
If non-displaced, casting May require ORIF with screw and bone grafting |
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What is ulnar variance? |
The ulnar order of distal radius is level with the radial border of the distal ulna; this difference is the variance |
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What does positive ulnar variance lead to? |
Change in force transmission during gripping; LESS transmission through radiocarpal and MORE through ulnocarpus |
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What is the result of positive ulnar variance? |
Irritation and compression of the TFCC and pain |
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In cast immobilization, what position is the wrist placed in? What does this do? |
1. Flexed, pronated and ulnarly deviated position 2. Places FDS and FDP in relaxed position 3. Pressure in carpal tunnel increased |
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What are six possible complications during fracture healing? |
1. Non union 2. Malunion 3. Infection 4. Chronic instability 5. Chronic regional pain syndrome 6. Arthritis |
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what are four possible outcome measures following a hand fracture? |
1. patient rated wrist evaluation 2. Michigan hand outcomes questionnaire 3. Disabilities of the arm, shoulder, and hand 4. Upper extremity functional index |
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What kind of orthosis might be used for a scaphoid fracture? |
Early: Volar wrist-thumb As healing progresses: radial wrist thumb orthosis |
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What might you consider when making a fracture orthosis for an elderly client living alone? |
1. Lightweight material for function 2. D-ring strapping to ease application 3. Cotton liner to prevent skin breakdown |
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What might you do when splinting around protruding wires? |
Protective thermoplastic hood |
|
What does the 3 brain model hypothesize about trauma? |
Amygdala is directly related to the "noticing" brain and "soothing" brain; it not directly linked to prefrontal cortex. When traumatic sensory input occurs, amygdala reacts, institutional response occurs, and part of brain that reasons/problem solves does not interact with process. |
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Under conditions of trauma and extreme distress, humans develop what five automatic defensive responses that are self protective? |
1. Flight 2. Fight 3. Freeze 4. Submit 5. Attach |
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What are two goals of attachment? |
1. Protection against threats 2. Provide secure base to support exploration of environment |
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What are the four kinds of attachment styles? |
1. Secure attached 2. Insecure attached 3. Insecure avoidant 4. Disorganised attached |
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What kind of caregiving is associated with a disorganized attachment style? |
Child received abuse form caregivers/unable to receive support from them as caregivers hurt the, |
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What kind of caregiving is associated with a insecure-anxious attachment style? |
During childhood, caregivers are inconsistently responsive….more likely to attend to physical needs or when the child is in high distress |
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What kind of caregiving is associated with a insecure-avoidant attachment style? |
In childhood, caregivers are unresponsive to physical and emotional needs |
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What kind of caregiving is associated with a secure attachment style? |
As a child, the caregiver forms a secure base of support, safe haven and is responsive to the child’s needs |
|
What is trauma informed care? |
That which implements an understanding of trauma in service delivery, and in which the goal is to augment trauma survivor's safety as they are receiving care |
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What are three reasons trauma informed care is important? |
1. It can be challenging for clients to cope with symptoms of trauma in absence of a safe environment 2. Health care environments can be interpreted as unsafe 3. Risk of re-traumatization hinders clients from seeking and accessing necessary services for mental health concerns or engaging effectively in treatment |
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The umbrella of safety includes what nine concepts? |
1. respect 2. rapport 3. taking time 4. sharing information 5. sharing control 6. respecting boundaries 7. mutual learning 8. understanding non-linear healing 9. demonstrating an understanding of sexual abuse |
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What does SAVE the situation stand for? |
1. Stop - focus on present 2. Appreciate - and understand person's situation 3. Validate - the person's experience 4. Explore - next steps with the client |
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When clients are experiencing high intensity distress, they needed skills that are what three things? What does this help do? |
1. Quick to implement 2. Easily accessible 3. Easy to recall > helps in calming the emotional brain and activating the rational thinking brain |
|
What does the DBT crisis intervention skill STOP stand for? |
S - Stop, resist urge to respond T - take a step back, leave the room and take a deep breath O - observe; notice feelings and thoughts, don't judge as good or bad P - proceed mindfully - what do I want, how will my urge make this situation better or worse |
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What does the DBT crisis intervention skill TIPP stand for? |
T - tipping temperature of your face (splash cold water) I - intense aerobic exercise for 20+ minutes P - paced breathing P - paired muscle relaxation |
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What might someone with a secure attachment style's self-concept be like? |
Has Sufficient resiliency - Healthy self concept |
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What might someone with a secure attachment style's relationship with the clinician be like? |
Belief that staff are reliable and trustworthy “Help will be sufficient” Decreased Staff burnout Awareness of impact of help seeking on staff |
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What are some recommendations for care providers working with individuals with secure attachment styles? |
Offering empathetic support consistent with all other practices |
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What might someone with a insecure anxious attachment style's self-concept be like? |
Decreased faith in caring for oneself Belief that care will be provided if helpless |
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What might someone with a insecure anxious attachment style's relationship with the clinician be like? |
Become clingy and anxious Compulsive care seeking Dependant traits Consistently finding others help to be insufficient Approval Seeking |
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What are some recommendations for care providers working with individuals with insecure anxious attachment styles? |
Clear boundary setting Meet with client at Regularly Scheduled appts ONLY Always be prompt for appts Staying for agreed upon duration |
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What might someone with a insecure avoidant attachment style's self-concept be like? |
Belief that no one will help them at time of distress…..staff will let them down Staff are not reliable Belief they are better off on their own |
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What might someone with a insecure avoidant attachment style's relationship with the clinician be like? |
Distant “Compulsive self reliance” Restricted range of affect even when describing distress Difficulty relating to others Rebuffs attempts at empathy Undermine symptoms Reject recommendations for fear of future contact with staff |
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What are some recommendations for care providers working with individuals with insecure avoidant attachment styles? |
Respect need for independence Allow them to determine how much space they need A genuine willingness to accommodate to their needs Demonstrate how to identify emotions |
|
What might someone with a disorganized attachment style's self-concept be like? |
Difficulty understanding their experiences: “Incoherent Narrative” Due to past trauma see world as “unsafe place” See others as “threatening and rejecting” See selves as undeserving of love and care |
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What might someone with a disorganized attachment style's relationship with the clinician be like? |
Extreme Help seeking accompanied by dismissiveness Present to be in crisis mode consistently Difficulty self soothing Have high expectations from staff to regulate their anxiety Limited trust in providers |
|
What are some recommendations for care providers working with individuals with disorganized attachment styles? |
Acknowledge and validate their frustration and provide realistic expectations Consistent Team Communication Require long term therapy on emotional regulation fostering healthier relationships Help rewrite a “coherent narrative” |
|
What would be the trauma-informed and strengths based approach to asking what is wrong? |
What has happened |
|
What would be the trauma-informed and strengths based approach to "disorder response" |
Symptoms adaptations |
|
What would be the trauma-informed and strengths based approach to attention seeking |
The individual is trying to connect in Best way they know how |
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What would be the trauma-informed and strengths based approach to borderline |
The individual is doing the best they can given their early experiences |
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What would be the trauma-informed and strengths based approach to controlling |
The individual is trying to assert their power |
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What would be the trauma-informed and strengths based approach to manipulative |
The individual has difficulty asking directly for what they want |
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What are four things to do when inquiring about trauma history? |
1. Direct inquiry about abuse history by HCP 2. Normalize inquiry 3. Stress incidence and frequency of issue and importance to health 4. Opens door for client to disclose if they choose |
|
What are eight response principles for disclosure of trauma history? |
1. Acceptance 2. Acknowledgment of prevalence 3. Validation 4. Express empathy 5. Address time limits 6. Discuss implications of abuse history 7. Identify needs for self care 8. Recognize action is not always required |
|
What are six unhelpful responses to trauma disclosure? |
1. No reaction or silence 2. You don't have to tell me this if you don't want to 3. Advice giving 4. Intrusive questions 5. Minimizing impact 6. Making assumptions |
|
What is vicarious trauma? |
Refers to the cumulative transformative effect on the helper working with the survivors of traumatic life events |
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What kind of change can vicarious trauma create? |
Temporary or permanent change in the therapist’s personal and professional life and their view of the world and relationships with others. The therapist incur similar symptoms of trauma including hypervigilance, affect dysregulation, occupational imbalance, health problems, and so forth |
|
What are five self care principles for managing vicarious trauma? |
1. Restore occupational balance 2. Establish boundaries 3. Debrief 4. Review and balance case loads 5. Stress management |
|
What four things does prolonged exposure treatment do? |
1. Helps stop avoidance 2. Encourages confrontation 3. Helps reduce anxiety 4. Helps improve functioning and sense of mastery |
|
What two methods does prolonged exposure treatment use? |
1. Imaginal exposure 2. In vivo exposure |
|
What is in vivo exposure? |
Deliberate, systematic engagement with stimuli that arefeared despite being safe or having low probability ofdanger or harm |
|
What are three principles of in vivo exposure? |
1. Modification of the fear structure 2. New information is available for the modification 3. Anxiety habituation |
|
What three things does the Subjective Units of Distress Scale do? |
1. Help communicate anxiety 2. Help in monitoring progress 3. Allow for construction of exposure hiearchy |
|
How would you develop an in vivo exposure hierarchy? |
This is tool used to guide systematic exposure. Identify triggers w/ client and create a list; rate form least to most distressing. |
|
How would you use an in vivo exposure hierarchy to guide therapy? |
Have client conduct exposure targeting mildly distressing trigger. Reduce use of safety behaviours and problem solve behaviours. Have client periodically rate SUDs; remain here until SUDs decreases and then target next trigger in hierarchy. |
|
What are safety behaviours? |
Maladaptive coping strategies used when feeling anxious or anticipating anxiety. In short-term lead to relief but in long-term maintain or increase anxiety. |
|
What are the three stages of trauma recovery? |
1. Stabilization, reflection, grounding 2. Mourning and remembrance 3. Reconnection and increased personal growth |
|
What occurs during the stabilization, reflection, grounding stage of trauma recovery? |
Self care, symptom control, acknowledging trauma, functioning, and express of affect and impulses productively. |
|
What occurs during the mourning and remembrance stage of trauma recovery? |
Focus on narratives connected to the events, tell stores, in vivo exposure. |
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What occurs during the reconnection and increased personal growth stage of trauma recovery? |
Reconciling with oneself, reconnecting with others, resolving the trauma |
|
What does the frontal cortex vs. limbic system do? |
1. Frontal: decision making, self control 2. Limbic: learning, emotions |
|
What is neuroception? |
Outside of conscious awareness or control |
|
How do we switch between circuits? |
Not cognitive - based on detection of safety vs. threat in internal and external environment. When challenged by threat, revert to older circuits to survive |
|
Explain what happens when an individual with PTSD experiences a trigger |
1. trigger (reminder of unsafe experience) 2. faulty reading of cues (neutral stimuli interpreted as danger) 3. reenactment (inappropriate autonomic/behavioural response - fight or flight) 4. environmental outcome |
|
What implications does neuroplasticity have for trauma? |
Neurons that fire together wire together - if certain stimuli become associated with trauma, your brain strengthens that pathway and makes it more efficient (can also be used in recovery context however) |
|
What is the modulation model? |
Looks at hyperarousal, hypoarousal and the window of tolerance - where an individual can think, feel and sense, and be in a calm focused state. W |
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What impact does trauma have on the modulation model? |
Window of tolerance is more narrow and arousal can escalate beyond one's ability to tolerate it and they will be unable to integrate their experience. Tendency to overshoot and move from hyper to hypoarousal and back again. |
|
What are two skills to manage hypo and hyperarousal? |
Use your five senses (bring to present moment, increase awareness and capacity for self-care) Practice being present (activates prefrontal cortex) |
|
Why is grounding important? |
Brings individuals back into window of tolerance, brings focus to present moment, and reduces emotional intensity. Directs attention to something else in order to feel safe. |
|
What are five grounding methods for hyperarousal? |
1. Focus on the breath 2. Count number of blue objects in room 3. 5-5-5 technique 4. Hold grounding stone 5. Smell soothing essential oil |
|
What are four methods of grounding for hypoarousal? |
1. Sit upright in chair with hands on knees and push your hands into your knees and straighten spine 2. Squeeze left arm 3. Smell activating essential oil 4. Stand up |
|
What is the difference between grounding and mindfulness? |
Grounding = distraction to lower emotional intensity Mindfulness = practice of staying with sensation, whether pleasant or unpleasant, and can increase disregulation when far outside of window |
|
What is a traumatic re-enactment? |
When both survivor and provider get caught in traumatic transference. (The survivor experiences the provider in a way that is similar to a traumaticaspect of a historical relationship, and the provider finds him/herself pulledinto a dynamic with the survivor that may feel out of proportion to thesituation.) |
|
What is important to consider when fitting a spinal brace in Ontario? |
Can be considered setting a fracture which requires formal delegation (is a controlled act) |
|
What are mobility orders? |
Based on stability of patient's vertebral column = inform mobility decisions |
|
What are three kinds of spinal braces? |
1. Cervical 2. Thoracic 3. Lumbar |
|
What is arterial line?
|
Goes in hand, used to take blood pressure/samples
|
|
What is a CentralVenous Catheter? |
Usually inserted in arm or chest = used for medication, fluid, nutrients, blood products over a long time |
|
What is a PICC line?
|
Inserted into arm, leg or neck; provides long term IV antibiotics, nutrition, medications |
|
What is a NG or OG tube? |
NG tube = nutrition through nose OG tube = nutrition tube through mouth |
|
What is a G or J tube?
|
G = directly into abdomen for nutrition J = directly into small intensive for nutrition |
|
What is a foley catheter? |
Inserted to bladder to drain urine |
|
What is an external ventricular drain? |
used to relieve elevated intracranial pressure |
|
What are endotracheal tubes? |
Tube placed into windpipe through mouth or nose |
|
What are three things to consider in an acute setting?
|
1. Having multiple lines and tubes does not exclude you from being able to work with clients 2. Know what equipment is and its purpose 3. Importance of infection control and interprofessional collaboration |
|
What are thirteen things to consider before walking into the room in an acute setting?
|
1. Diagnosis
2. Other relevant medical issues 3. Prognosis 4. Activity orders 5. Assistance devices 6. Reason for referral 7. Physician and team progress notes 8. Spoken language 9. Lines/tubes and precautions 10. Recent tests 11. Blood/lab values 12. Communication with nurse and medical team 13. Safety/quality indicators, e.g. falls, delirium (aka...review their chart) |
|
What five pieces of information might you get from a monitor?
|
1. Heart rate 2. Blood pressure 3. Oxygenation 4. Temperature 5. Respiratory rate |
|
Identify six different vital signs |
1. Blood pressure 2. Mean arterial pressure 3. Heart rate 4. Oxygen values 5. CO2 levels 6. Cerebral perfusion pressure |
|
What are high flow oxygen systems? |
will meet or exceed patient’s flow demands andgive a fixed concentration of oxygen or FiO2 |
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What are low flow oxygen systems? |
oxygen delivery is varied based on the device,the patient’s respiratory rate and tidal volume |
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Identify three oxygen delivery devices |
1. Nasal prongs (low flow) 2. Venturi mask (high flow) 3. Non-rebreather |
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Identify five signs of respiratory distress |
1. Increased respiratory rate - 25-30 2. Decreased SpO2 < 88% 3. Sweating on face and head 4. Turning blue 5. Pursed lip breathing |
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Identify four things to do when a patient is in respiratory distress
|
1. Check vitals 2. Put patient on higher FiO2 to meet minimum O2 3. Sit patient up in bed for better lung expansion 4. Call someone |
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What three things should happen in the first session in a crisis clinic? |
1. Detailed history
2. safety plan 3. identify treatment goals |
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Identify three tools you can use for self-management in a crisis clinic context |
1. Cue cards to identify coping statements 2. Cue cards to identify strengths and accomplishments 3. Thought record |
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What does it mean to 'examine the evidence' of a thought? |
Instead of assuming negative thought is true, look at evidence, e.g. if you never do anything right, look at instances you did something successfully |
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What does the double standard method of examining thought distortion refer to? |
Instead of putting self down in harsh way, talk to yourself in same way you would to a friend with same problem |
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What does the experimental technique refer to? |
Do experiment to test validity of negative thought, e.g. during episode of panic, run down flight of stairs to prove you will not have a heart attack |
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What does thinking in shades of grey refer to?
|
Instead of thinking of extremes, evaluate on scale of 0 to 100. can think of things as partial success rather than total failure. |
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What does the survey method mean?
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Ask people questions to find out if your thoughts and attitudes are realistic. For example, ask friends if they feel nervous before a presentation. |
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What does define terms mean? |
When you label yourself by a negative term, e.g. loser, ask what does that mean |
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What does the semantic method mean? |
Substitute language that is less emotionally loaded, e.g. taking out should statements |
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What does re-attribution mean? |
Instead of automatically assuming you re bad, think about all the factors that contributed to a problem. Focus on solving the problem. |
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What is cost-benefit analysis? |
List the advantages and disadvantages of a feeling, negative thought, behaviour |
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Identify eight ways to help clients in crisis if you're not working in mental health |
1. Don't be afraid to ask questions 2. Ask specifically about suicidal thoughts 3. Ensure their safety 4. Ask about supports 5. Liaise with team 6. Help make a plan 7. Listen and validate 8. call 911 if needed |
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What are six crisis resources? |
1. Emergency department
2. Crisis phone lines 3. Gerstein centre 4. Mobile crisis team 5. Supports 6. safety plans |
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Describe five qualities of ACT clients |
1. have a major/complex mental illness
2. have significant functional impairments 3. have difficulty effectively using traditional office-based outpatient services 4. have multiple previous admissions and ED visits 5. require a high level of support in the community |
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Describe eight qualities of the ACT model |
1. Collaborative approach and shared caseload 2. Individualized recovery-oriented service 3. Continuity of care 4. Long term follow up if needed 5. Assertive community outreach 6. Frequent contact 7. Case management 8. After hours supports |
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Identify six goals of ACT |
1. Support clients in achieving recovery goals 2. Promote independent living 3. Support clients in achieving optimal management of MI symptoms 4. Advocate for community resources 5. Provide holistic care 6. Support clients in developing meaningful roles |
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What are six general roles an OT might assist with on an ACT team?
|
1. Substance abuse counselling 2. Family education 3. Crisis intervention 4. Advocacy 5. Medication support 6. Housing support |
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What are six of the OT's specific roles on an ACT team? |
1. Goal setting 2. Functional and environmental assessments 3. Independent living skills 4. Employment skills 5. Developing meaningful roles and occupations 6. Discharge planning |
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Identify the five steps of the crisis intervention process |
1. Ensure client safety 2. Establish rapport and listen 3. ask questions and try to understand problem 4. Develop crisis plan 5. Monitor plan and reassess |
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What are four things to consider when assessing suicide risk
|
1. Ask directly 2. Ask if they have a plan 3. Ask if they have resources 4. Ask if how HCP can support them |
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What are three considerations for managing safety concerns |
1. Is client agreeable to going to emergency dept? 2. Can you accompany client to emergency? 3. If not and you have serious concerns, Form 1, Form 2, or call police and ask for mobile crisis team |
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What do housing crises often result from? |
Poor fit between housing environment and client's needs, skills, abilities |
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What is the OT's role in a housing crisis? |
1. Meeting with housing manager 2. Assess the fit between the housing environment and client's skills, needs, abilities 3. Work with client to enhance fit through skill development, advocacy, environmental modifications 4. Liaise with housing worker if remains poor fit |
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What are six things you should do for clients without housing? |
1. Ensure they have food and shelter 2. Contact central shelter intake program 3. Crisis bed 4. Out of the cold program 5. Meal programs and food banks 6. Complete access point application |
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Identify six strategies for client demonstrating psychosis |
1. Priortize their safety and safety of others 2. If client able to engage, try to understand situation 3. Bring them somewhere quiet, redirect to safe area 4. If highly agitated, use verbal deescalation and ask for backup from other clinicians 5. Call for security if client or others are at risk 6. if in community: check with housing staff/family to get info, be aware of environment |
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What are six things to consider when assessing risk during psychosis |
1. What is the client's baseline 2. Consider client's history 3. Require about homicidal ideation, plan, intent 4. Use clinical observation skills 5. Pay attention to your own discomfort 6. Communicate with team |
|
What are three ACT team challenge? |
1. Clients are hard to engage and find 2. Often need to triage clinical tasks when crises occur 3. Severity of MI may affect clients' level of insight and ability to voice needs |
|
What does motivational interviewing assume? |
That people are ambivalent about change- andmust work towards their own decision concerning thechange |
|
What is the aim of motivational interviewing? |
To produce an internal drive to change, usingnon-confrontational techniques |
|
What is the purpose of motivational interviewing? |
To effect change – evident of the negative consequences ofthe behaviour are elicited from the client, so that the clientsees and accepts the advantages of change |
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What are three qualities of the spirit of motivational interviewing? |
1. Collaboration (vs. confrontation)
2. Evocation (vs. education) 3. Autonomy (vs. authority) |
|
What are the four main principles of motivational interviewing?
|
1. Express empathy 2. Develop discrepancy 3. Roll with resistance 4. Support self-efficacy |
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Where does motivational interviewing fall in the directing > following continuum? |
Guiding; uses aspects of both (telling people what to do AND seeking to understand) |
|
What are the two kinds of talk you hear with ambivalence? |
1. Change talk (statements that favour change) 2. Sustain talk (arguments for not changing) |
|
What are the six aspects of the Transtheoretical Model for Change?
|
1. Pre-contemplation (no intention of changing)
2. Contemplation (aware problem exists but no commitment to action) 3. Preparation (intent on taking action) 4. Action 5. maintenance 6. Relapse |
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What does OARS stand for with reference to early motivational skills and strategies?
|
Open ended questions Affirm (statements that recognize strengths) Reflect (shows that you understand another's meaning) Summarize |
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Why is reflection crucial to motivational interviewing? |
Helps show empathy Helps guide client toward change |
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What is simple vs. complex reflection? |
Simple - conveys understanding but adds no meaning Complex - adds meaning to what client has said |
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What are the four kinds of complex reflections? |
1. Feeling: reflecting affect 2. Feeling and content: link thoughts, feelings, events 3. amplified reaction: restate in more extreme fashion 4. Double sided reflection: reflect back resistance with their other side and using AND |
|
What is summarizing used for in motivational interviewing? |
Reflects what person has said and shows you have been listening. Allows to draw together motivations, intentions and plan for change.
|
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How does motivational interviewing guide clients toward their goals? |
By eliciting and reinforcing change talk while limiting sustain talk |
|
What is preparatory vs. mobilizing change talk? |
Desire/ability/reason/need vs. commitment/activation/taking steps (DARN CAT) |
|
How do you provide info with a motivational interview spirit?
|
FOCUS: First ask permission Offer ideas Concise Use a menu - provide more than 1 option Solicit what client thinks |
|
What is mindfulness? |
“The intentional cultivation paying attentionof moment to moment on purpose in anon-judgmental manner” |
|
What are four aspects of the intention component of mindfulness? |
1. Stress regulation 2. Stress management 3. Self compassion 4. Awareness |
|
What is attention in mindfulness? |
Observing the moment-to-moment processes |
|
What are the three aspects of attitude in mindfulness? |
Non-judging Accepting Non-striving |
|
Identify five kinds of mindfulness used in health care |
1. Mindfulness based stress reduction 2. Mindfulness based cognitive therapy 3. Mindfulness based self compassion 4. DBT 5. Acceptance and commitment therapy |
|
What are seven impacts of mindfulness on cognition? |
1. Heightened state of presence and improved awareness
2. Improved sustained attention 3. Decreased mind wandering 4. Improved working memory 5. Improved memory retrieval 6. Improved cognitive flexibility 7. Enhanced learning |
|
How does mindfulness change the brain? |
Changes the structure and function ofthe brain regions involved in regulation ofattention, emotion and self-awareness |
|
What 6 brain regions are altered in mindfulness? |
1. Meta-awareness 2. Awareness of body 3. Memory formation 4. Emotional responses 5. Self-regulation 6. Attention |
|
What is the default mode network? |
When you switch off, distinctive network of brain areas not involved in focused attention bursts into action >> makes mind wander, takes attention away from where we are in space and where we are in time |
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Identify six ways in which mindfulness is relevant to OT |
1. Evidence based task oriented interventions 2. Fits well with holistic approach 3. Provides means to empower clients to self-management and healthy lifestyle modification and allows insight into ways to increase participation 4. Meditation is an occupation 5. Meditation integrates physical, cognitive, psychological, spiritual components and fits with biopsychosocial approach to pain management 6. Process and outcome can positively impact neurological function |
|
Why is mindfulness important for self-care? |
1. Improves quality of HCP care
2. Uptake by HCP is best way to disseminate benefits through healthcare system |
|
What is an ALC patient? |
A patient who no longer requires the full range of services which acute careprovides |
|
What factors ALC rates? |
1. Age of population
2. Availability and integration of healthcare services |
|
Why are ALC patients still in the hospital?
|
The shortage of diverse options that meet the needs of ALCpatients outside the hospital is the main reason ALC patients are not dischargedfrom hospital as soon as they no longer need acute care |
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What is the cost of a hospital vs. long-term care vs. home care bed? |
Average daily cost: 842 126 42 |
|
What does the discharge plan consider?
|
Patient's home environment, support system, level of functioning
|
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Disposition of discharge planning has been linked to what six demographics of patients?
|
1. Age 2. Socioeconomic status 3. Caregiver support 4. Living situation 5. pathology 6. Impairments |
|
What are seven discharge planning considerations? |
1. Patient and family wishes
2. Prognosis 3. Expected return of function/recovery 4. Community resources 5. Housing options 6. Baseline occupational performance 7. Current functional status (cognitive, physical, emotional, ADLs) |
|
What are eight things you might assess or recommend in a acute setting? |
1. Self-care 2. Home management 3. Child care 4. Return to driving 5. Return to work 6. Cognitive status 7. Home supports 8. Return to hobbies |
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What are nine things you might treat or educate patients on in an acute setting? |
1. Energy management 2. Equipment 3. ADL retraining 4. Physical facilitation 5. Implementation of cognitive strategies 6. Family education 7. Coping strategies 8. Behavioral management strategies 9. Patient education |
|
What do CCACs provide? |
Provide access togovernment-fundedHome/communityservices, ConvalescentCare and to LongTerm Care homes. |
|
What seven things does a CCAC care coordinator do? |
1. Liaise with local CCAC coordinator to determine service plan options 2. Determine services required for transition 3. Determine professional services required 4. Orders medical supplies and equipment 5. Link to adult day programs and other supports 6. Assess eligibility for convalescent care, OHIP respite care, LTC 7. Conduct capacity evaluations for LTC |
|
What five skills do case managers use? |
1. Advocacy 2. Communication 3. Education 4. Identification ofservice resources 5. Service facilitation |
|
What is care coordination? |
Collaborative process of assessment, planning, facilitation, carecoordination, evaluation, and advocacy for options and servicesto meet an individual’s and family’s comprehensive health needsthrough communication and available resources to promotequality, cost-effective outcomes. |
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What is the intensity of case management dependent on? |
Client's needs |
|
What is a general rehab facility vs. a specialty rehab facility? |
General = rehab unit or collection of beds for rehab, part of general hospital offering multiple levels of care Specialty = provides more extensive and specialized inpatient rehab, usually a freestanding facility or special unit |
|
Identify four kinds of rehab programs?
|
1. Slow stream
2. Active stream 3. High tolerance long duration 4. Complex continuing care |
|
What is complex continuing care? |
Provided for people with complex chronic and oftenfluctuating physical conditions such as complex chronic illness, end stage renalfailure, multi-system decline, diabetes, and/or advanced degenerative disorderssuch as multiple sclerosis. |
|
What seven things must you balance in discharge planning?
|
1. Patient expectations 2. Family expectations 3. Team expectations 4. Institutional policy 5. Resource allocation 6. Unknown resources 7. Community constraints |
|
What is cancer? |
Disordered & uncontrolled growth of cellswithin a specific organ or tissue type. > Malignant tumors have no clear cutborder, invade surrounding tissue & havethe ability to spread to other parts of thebody |
|
What causes cancer? |
Results from a genetic change ordamage to a chromosome |
|
How does cancer spread? |
Direct extension Through the blood Through the lymphatic system (Tumours begin at primary site and metastases occur when cancer cells break off and travel elsewhere) |
|
What are five tests that might be used to look for cancer? |
1. Physical exam 2. lab test 3. Imaging technique 4. Scope 5. Biopsy |
|
In what three ways are tumours clasisfied? |
1. Where is it growing 2. How fast is it growing? (high vs. low) 3. How big has it grown? (staging) |
|
What is the TNM staging system? |
Classification system for cancer. T = size of tumour N = degree of spread to lymph node M = presence of metastasis |
|
What are five cancer treatment methods? |
1. Active surveillance 2. Surgery (biospy, resection, prophylactic) 3. Radiation 4. Drug therapies (chemo, hormone, immuno) 5. Stem cel transplants |
|
What are nine persistent and late effects of cancer? |
1. Second primary cancer 2. psychological distress 3. Lymphedema 4. Premature menopause, infertility, osteporosis 5. Hormone deprivation 6. Weight gain or loss 7. Cardiovascular disease 8. Fatigue 9. Cognitive impairment |
|
What is reported as the most common and distressing symptom experience by patients with cancer? |
Fatigue |
|
What five things can cancer-related fatigue affect?
|
1. ADLs 2. Emotional and physical distress 3. cognition 4. Psychological wellbeing 5. Healthcare usage |
|
What are six ways OTs can intervene for cancer-related fatigue?1 |
1. Identify factors impacting it 2. Assess impact on occupation 3. Energy conservation 4. Relaxation strategies 5. Equipment 6. Community resourcse |
|
What are six ways cancer pain can reduce QoL? |
1. Affect occupation 2. Cause emotional distress 3. Disturb sleep 4. Diminish appetite 5. Reduce movement/exercise 6. Increase feelings of occupation |
|
What are six ways OTs can intervene on cancer pain? |
1. Assess impact 2. Adapt activities 3. Education on pain 4. Education on relaxation 5. Equipment needs 6. Comfort supports as neded |
|
What five modifiable risk factors are highly associated with chronic disease? |
1. Tobacco 2. Alcohol 3. Nutrition 4. Physical inactivity 5. Obesity |
|
What are 11 OT roles in oncology? |
1. Social support 2. Cognition 3. Enable ADLs 4. Pain management 5. Positioning and seating 6. Environmental modifications 7. Adaptive equipment 8. Relaxation techniques 8. Energy conservation 10. Home safety assessments 11. Education |
|
What are six practice settings where OT can work in oncology? |
1. At home 2. In hospital 3. In a cancer centre 4. In rehab programs 5. In CCC 6. In palliative care unit or hospice |
|
What are twelve precautions and considerations when working with cancer patients? |
1. Bony metastases 2. Spinal metastases 3. Myelosuppression 4. Lung metastasis 5. Edma/lymphedema 6. DVT/PE 7. Steroid myopathy 8. Peripheral neuropathy 9. Seizures 10. Intracranial pressure 11. High/low blood pressure 12. Bowel and bladder changes |
|
What are some considerations with bony metastases? |
Risk of fracture. Avoid strength testing, use of weights,avoid bridging. Confirm activity and weight bearingorders. |
|
What are some considerations with spinal metastases? |
May cause spinal cord compression or instability andaltered sensation. Confirm activity order. Considersitting balance and seating needs. |
|
What are some considerations with myelosuppression? |
May have decreased blood counts especiallyhemoglobin, platelets, neutrophils. At risk for infectionor bleeding. Check counts prior to doing activity. |
|
What are some considerations with lung metastasis? |
May cause increased O2 requirements or desaturationwith activity. Check O2 orders. Consider equipmentneeds. |
|
What are some considerations with edema/lymphedema? |
Lymphedema refers to swelling in a part of the bodywhich may result from surgery to remove lymph nodesand/or radiation.Common among patients with gynecological,genito/urinary, gastrointestinal cancers; may impactmobility and ADLs; may cause sitting discomfort. |
|
What are some considerations with DVT/pE? |
Allow 24 hrs. of anticoagulation prior to activity. |
|
What are some considerations with steroid myopathy? |
May occur after prolonged administration of high dose steroids.Known to cause progressive proximal muscle weakness of theupper and lower extremities which may affect transfers. Maybenefit from graded activity. |
|
What are some considerations with peripheral neuropathy? |
Pain, tingling, numbness caused by damage to nerves which canbe caused by chemotherapy drugs. Teach compensatorystrategies (i.e.. Fine motor, footwear, altered sensation). |
|
What are some considerations with seizures? |
A seizure is a side-effect of a brain tumour and happensbecause of abnormal electrical activity in the brain. People whohave seizures can experience many different things that rangefrom a feeling of tingling in an arm or leg or the face (called focalseizures), all the way to a full body seizure (called generalizedseizures) where the patient falls to the ground, has twitching ofall limbs and may become unconscious. |
|
What are some considerations with intracranial pressure? |
The pressure inside of the skull. Brain tumours (the mass)and their treatment (associated swelling) cause a rise inpressure of the cerebrospinal fluid. Many patients receivesteroids to control swelling. Symptoms include headaches,seizures, neurological symptoms, decreased consciousnessand vomiting. Patients require education regardingpositioning and appropriate intensity exercise (mild-moderate). |
|
What are some considerations with high/low blood pressure? |
May have dizziness or fainting. |
|
What are some considerations with bowel and bladder management? |
May have be incontinent or need to frequent washroomfrequently. |
|
What is the Cancer Care Ontario Model? |
Prevention Screening Diagnosis Treatment <> recovery/survivorship > end of life care |
|
What are four survivorship concerns |
1. Ability to access health care and follow up treatment 2. Late effects of treatment 3. prevention and management of secondary cancers 4. quality of life and overall wellbeing |
|
DBT is based on what model? |
Affect regulation - symptoms at surface but core problem is emotion regulation system |
|
Explain the DBT model of emotion dysregulation |
Problems that need to be solved lead to > cue or trigger> emotional dysregulation >> temporary relief |
|
What are the 4 DBT skills modules? |
1. Interpersonal effectiveness 2. Emotion regulation 3. Distress tolerance 4. Mindfulness |
|
What are the five steps to opposite action? |
1. What emotion do you want to change 2. Check the facts 3. Identify your action urges 4. Act opposite all the way to your action urges 5. Repeat until emotional sensitivity to prompting event decreases and urge to act on emotion decreases |
|
What is the opposite action for fear? |
Action urge is avoid Opposite action is approach > do thinks you are afraid of over and over, notice you are safe, breathe |
|
What is the opposite action for anger? |
Action urge is anger Opposite action is gently avoid Do something nice rather than mean, put yourself in other's shoes, relax |
|
CBT is premised on what idea? |
It’s not situations that cause negative emotions, butthoughts about these events or the perception of theseevents. (Faulty thinking patterns result in anxiety/depression) |
|
How does CBT believe one can recover from anxiety or depression? |
Cognitive restructuring |
|
What does CBT treatment consist of? |
Correcting faulty or illogical thinkingby countering cognitive distortions using thought records,exposure strategies, behavioral activation, problemsolving and anxiety management strategies. |
|
What is the CBT model of anxiety? |
Trigger leads to what if, leads to worried thoughts, leads to anxiety, which lead to a cycle of behavioural avoidance and excessive behaviours and ineffective problem solving and cognitive avoidance, which lead to more worried thoughts |
|
What is the CBT approach to understanding problems? |
Look at the thoughts, behaviours, bodily sensations and emotions involved in a situation |
|
What are eight kinds of cognitive distortions? |
1. All-or-Nothing Thinking 2. Mental Filter 3. Disqualifying the Positive 4. Jumping to Conclusions: - Mind reading - Fortune Teller Error 5. Magnification 6. Emotional Reasoning 7. “Should” Statements 8. Personalization |
|
What seven components might be included in a thought record? |
1. Situation 2. Mood 3. Automatic thoughts 4. Evidence that supports that thought 5. Evidence that does NOT support that thought 6. Alternative thoughts 7. Rate mood now |
|
What are three objectives of a circumferential thumb CMC-MCP stabilizing orthosis? |
1. Relieve pain and stabilize CMC and MCP 2. Promote healing 3. Position thumb in functional position to oppose fingers |
|
What are five indications for a circumferential thumb CMC-MCP stabilizing orthosis |
1. Inflammation of the CMC joint with MCP joint 2. CMC arthoplasty 3. Thumb metacarpal fracture 4. Sprain of thumb MCP joint, most commonly ulnar collateral ligament injury 5. Median nerve injury causing paralysis of the thenar muscles resulting in loss of thumb opposition |
|
What three things should be unrestricted with a circumferential thumb CMC-MCP stabilizing orthosis? |
1. Thumb IP flexion 2. Finger MCP flexion at distal edge 3. Unrestricted wrist motion |
|
What's the wearing regimen for a circumferential thumb CMC-MCP stabilizing orthosis? |
as required to relieve pain, promote healing and enable hand function |
|
What are four benefits of a volar thumb-hole wrist orthosis? |
1. Provides optimal support to the carpal bones 2. Recommended for joint inflammation or instability 3. The volar surface of the hand is naturally well padded and tolerates the palmar base well 4. Can be used to mount flexion outriggers |
|
What is the benefit of a thumb-hole design over radial bar design? |
The bridge of thermoplastic that goes from the thumb web space and behind the thumb to thewrist, acts as a strut that increases the stability of the palmar support. Thus, thinnerthermoplastics are usually thickenough for most adult applications |
|
What are the five biological goals of the volar thumb-hole wrist orthosis? |
1. Reduce pain and inflammation 2. Protect against joint damage 3. Immobilize to promote healing 4. Prevent or correct contractures 5. Optimally position to control wrist radial deviation, prevent MCP ulnar drift, AND reduce carpal tunnel pressure |
|
What are eight indications for a volar thumb-hole wrist orthosis? |
1. Tendonotis/tenosynovitis or wrist 2. Joint inflammation 3. Skin graft 4. Unstable wrist joint 5. Wrist sprain 6. Congenital hand deformities 7. Paralyzed/weak wrist extensors 8. Carpal tunnel |
|
With a volar thumb-hole wrist orthosis ROM should be unrestricted at what three points? |
1. Elbow 2. Finger MCPs 3. Thumb |
|
What are four styles of a volar wrist-hand orthosis? |
1. Volar wrist hand - c bar style (goes through thumb web space) 2. Mitt style cradles thumb 3. Volar wrist and finger MCP - thumb and IPs free 4. Bisurfaced wrist hand - uses leverage of forearm base to lever wrist into extension |
|
What are the three purposes of the volar wrist-hand orthosis? |
1. Stabilize and support wrist, MCPs, and IPs of fingers and thumb 2. Promote healing, reduce pain and inflammation 3. Prevent or reduce contractures |
|
What are 11 indications for a volar wrist-hand orthosis? |
1. Hand trauma 2. Skin graft 3. Scleroderma 4. Dupuytren's release 5. Boxer's fracture 6. Burns 7. Inflammatory joint disease 8. Crush injury 9. Replantation 10. Flaccid paralysis 11. Spasticity |
|
What are the indicators for a D4-5 MCP Extension-Blocking Orthosis? |
Ulnar nerve injury at level of wrist; partial claw hand deformity where lumbricals and interossei are paralyzed. Client is able to fully flex digits but in extension D4 and D5 joints hyperextend and IP joints remain flexed |
|
What are the two objectives of a D4-5 MCP Extension-Blocking Orthosis? |
1. provide hyperextension block for D4 and D5 MCP joints while still allowing full flexion of MCP and IP joints 2. blocking hyperextension of the MCP joints will transmit force of extensor digitorum to the IP joints, allowing full extension |
|
What is the purpose of a Finger-based MCP flexion-blocking orthosis? |
Block MCP flexion caused by trigger finger |
|
A Finger-based MCP flexion-blocking orthosis should have unrestricted motion at what three points? |
1. Thenar and hyperthenar eminences 2. Finger PIP flexion 3. Finger MCP flexion of adjacent finger |
|
What is the goal of flexor tendon rehab? |
Maximize tendon excursion in order toachieve full finger composite flexion andextension and a return to valued functionalactivities |
|
Where is the A1 flexor pulley? |
MCP |
|
Where is the A2 flexor pulley? |
Proximal phalanx |
|
Where is the A3 flexor pulley? |
PIP joint |
|
Where is the A4 flexor pulley? |
Middle phalanx |
|
Where is the A5 flexor pulley? |
DIP joint |
|
Which pulleys are most important to repair?
|
A2 and A4 - they are the biggest |
|
Describe the flexor tendon zones? |
1 = distal to insertion of FDS 2 = proximal part of A1 pulley to insertion of FDS 3 = distal end of transverse carpal ligament to proximal end of A1 pulley 4 = area of transverse carpal ligament 5 = musculotendinous junction of flexor tendons to prox. border of transverse carpal ligament |
|
What is flexor tendon zone 2 the most difficult to rehabilitate? |
FDS and FDP are really close together - if you have a laceration and repair and these two tendons are not moving then they may get stuck together |
|
What is the goal of Zone 2 flexor tendon rehab? |
Prevention of tendonadherence and promotionof tendon gliding zone 2 |
|
What are three goals of surgical repair for flexor tendons? |
1. Provide the tendon withstrength to withstand earlymotion 2. Offer minimal resistance to tendon gliding 3. Repair tendon to promote function |
|
What are seven factors to consider before deciding on a therapy approach for a flexor tendon injury |
1. Mechanism of injury 2. Date of injury and tendon repair 3. Location 4. Percentage of laceration 5. Quality and type of repair 6. Other associated injuries 7. Client factors |
|
Suture strand number relates to what? |
Strength of repair, which affects therapy decisions. Suture strength = number of strands that cross tendon repairWh |
|
What is the motion protocol for a 2 strand repair vs a 4 and 6 strand repair?
|
2 = passive motion 4 and 6 = passive and active |
|
What is the difference between 2 strand repair and 4 and 6 strand repair during weeks 1-3 of recovery? |
2 strand = passive mobilization 4 and 6 = Early AROM Protocol(perform PROM for thepurpose of improvingjoint motion anddecreasing work oftendon) |
|
What is the difference between 2 strand repair and 4 and 6 strand repair during weeks 4-12? |
NoneW |
|
What should you do in weeks 4-6 of strand repair? |
PROM plus specifictendon glidingexercises. Addblocking exercises at5-6 weeks. Addresslong flexor tightness |
|
What should you do in weeks 6-8 of strand repair? |
Graduatedstrengthening, tendongliding, blockingexercises and lightADL |
|
What should you do in weeks 8-12 of strand repair? |
Progressivestrengthening andincreased functional use.At 12 weeks, unrestricteduse. |
|
What are three benefits of early protected mobilization for flexor tendons |
1. Improves tendon excursion 2. Decreases adhesion formation 3. Improves clinical and functional outcome |
|
What are two factors to consider before deciding on a therapy approach for flexor tendons |
1. Need at least 4 strand repair in order to perform AROM 2. Must know BEFORE as otherwise could cause rupture (too much force), adherence (too little force), gap scar formation (tendon lengthening) |
|
Immobilization for flexor tendons is used in what circumstances? |
Complex or unreliable patients, e.g. children |
|
What are three ways extensor tendons differ from flexor tendons? |
1. No synovial sheath or pulleys along digits 2. There are many tendon insertions and connections therefore motion at proximal locations has less effect on injured tendon 3. Extensor tendons have less excursion |
|
How do extensor tendons differ from flexors in terms of recovery? |
Unlike flexor tendon injuries that require extensiveimmobilization proximally to prevent tendon retraction andtransmission of force, extensor tendon injuries require immobilizationof fewer joints depending on the zone |
|
What are the 7 extensor tendon zones? |
1 = dip 2 = middle phalanx 3 = pip 4 = proximal phalanx 5 = mcp 6 = metacarpal 7 = extensor retinaculum |
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What causes a mallet finger? |
Forced flexion of the DIPjoint while finger is extended |
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What is a bony mallet injury vs an extensor tendon injury? |
Bony = also fracture (hits straight on) Extensor tendon = just muscle (hits while flexed) |
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What joints do you have to immobilize for mallet finger? |
DIP joint |
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How long should a mallet finger rothosis be worn? |
6-8 weeks, fulltime; if it is removed and DIP flexes, must start over for 6-8 weeks |
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What is critical for successful treatment of mallet injury? |
Education e.g. condition, orthosis, skin, hygieneW |
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What should you monitor in treatment of mallet injury? |
Orthosis fit, skin condition, PIP joint ROM |
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What six things should you do at weeks 6 to 8ish of treatment of mallet injury? |
1. Initiate AROM 9 (NO PROM or blocking) 2. Assess ROM 3. Avoid gripping 4. Wear orthosis for forceful gripping 5. Initiate light ADLs 6. Wear orthosis at night |
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What occurs at week 12 of treatment for mallet injury? |
Unrestricted functional strengthening |
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What is the goal of extensor tendon rehab? |
Maximize tendon excursion in order to achieve fullfinger composite flexion and extension and areturn to valued functional activities |
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What are the four levels of the spinal cord? |
Cervical Thoracic Lumbar Sacral |
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What do cervical spine nerves serve? |
head, neck, diaphragm& upper extremities |
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What do thoracic spine nerves serve? |
trunk muscles |
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What do lumbar spine nerves serve? |
lower extremities |
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What do sacrum nerves serve? |
bowel, bladder, &sexual function |
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What do ascending/afferent tracts do? |
Bring sensory info to brain |
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What do descending/efferent tracts do? |
Bring info from brain to muscles |
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What is a spinal cord injury |
Trauma orpathology to thespinal cordresulting in loss ofmovement andsensation, whichcan result in lossof function. |
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What is tetrapelgia? What is affected? |
Injury to the spinal cord in the cervical region (C1-T1) Upper and lower extremity function affected; bowel and bladder also affected |
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WHat is paraplegia? What is affected? |
Injury to the spinal cord in the thoracic,lumbar or sacral region, T2 or below Function in bowel, bladder, lower extremities& possibly trunk are affected |
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What is traumatic vs. non-traumatic spinal cord injury? |
Traumatic = Damage to the spinal cord caused by an externalforce Non-traumatic = Congenital or non-congenital damage to the spinalcord caused by disease or pathology, |
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What is complete vs. incomplete spinal cord injury? |
Complete = all sensory and motor function lost below level of injury Incomplete = preservation of some sensory & motorfunction below level of injury |
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What is the ASIA scale? |
Standardized classification of neurologic impairmentdue to spinal cord injury; determines level and completeness of injury, tests motor and sensory components |
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Does the ASIA scale measure non-traumatic injuries? |
No |
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Describe the ASIA Scoring system form A-E |
A = Motor & Sensory Complete B = Sensory Incomplete, MotorComplete C = Motor Incomplete (half or more keymyotomes are < grade 3) D = Motor Incomplete (half or more keymyotomes are > grade 3 / functional) E = Normal Movement & Sensation |
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What are seven implications of spinal cord injury on general health? |
1. Blood pressure 2. Pain 3. Spasticity 4. Sexual health 5. Respiration 6. Swallowing 7. Cognition |
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What are four education interventions about sexuality post spinal cord injury |
1. Physiology 2. Positioning and devices 3. Directing caregiver 4. Coping with self esteem and body image challenges |
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What are two ways spinal cord injury can affect emotional well-being? |
1. Relationships 2. Mood and thought content |
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What are two interventions for emotional well-being post spinal cord injury |
1. Liase w/ team re: emotional status 2. Provide emotional support |
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What are two bladder and bowel implications of SCI? |
1. Neurogenic bladder (Dysfunction of the urinary bladder due todisease of the CNS involved in control ofurination > causes difficulty to pass urine w/o catheter or other method) 2. Neurogenic bowel (Dysfunction of the bowel due to disease ofthe CNS involved in the control of bowelfunction = fecal incontinence, chronic constipation or both) |
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What are seven interventions for bladder management post SCI |
1. Splinting to improve hand function 2. Education on catheters 3. Managing catheterization tools 4. Provide positioning strategies and assist with barriers 5. Equipment 6. Provide visual aids 7. Provide strategies for improving independence |
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What are seven interventions for bowel management post SCI |
1. Teach techniques for independence 2. Equipment trial and prescription |
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What are two skin care implications of SCI? |
1. Skin health 2. Pressure ulcers |
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What are 7 skin care interventions post SCI |
1. Provide education about pressure distribution 2. Provide education about pressure ulcers 3. Teach client how to complete skin checks 4. teach client how to direct caregiver to complete skin checks 5. Pressure mapping 6. Consider skin health when prescribing seating and mobility devices 7. Prescribe hospital bed and mattress |
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What are five self-care implications of SCI |
1. Feeding 2. Dressing 3. Grooming 4. Bathing 5. Toileting |
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What are five self-care interventions post SCI |
1. Bottom up vs. top down 2. Energy conservation 3. Directing care 4. Tenodesis grasp training - C6-7, using wrist extension to grasp |
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What are four eating interventions post SCI |
1. practice hand to mouth movement 2. U-Cuff 3. Built up utensils 4. Adapted utensils |
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What are three drinking interventions post SCI |
1. Camel back 2. Adapted mugs 3. Long straws |
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What are five dressing interventions post SCI |
1. Collaborate with physio re: balance, strength, etc. 2. Equipment / adaptive aids 3. Adapted clothing 4. practice in bed and wheelchair 5. Prescription of bed and mattress |
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What are three grooming interventions post SCI |
1. U-Cuff or other splints 2. Built up electric toothbrush 3. Adaptive aids |
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What are five bathing interventions post SCI |
1. Bathroom renovation recommendations 2. Equipment trial and prescription 3. Adaptive aids 4. Safety awareness 5. Practice transfers |
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What are six toileting interventions post SCI |
1. Practice donning and doffing clothing 2. Adaptive aids for peri-care 3. Transfer practice 4. Safety awareness and equipment 5. Bathroom renovation recommendations 6. Equipment trial and prescription |
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What are four housing interventions post SCI |
1. Equipment recommendations 2. Recommendations for home mods. 3. Liaise with social work re: funding 4. Safety recommendations for kitchen |
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What are three driving interventions post SCI |
1. Provide info re: driver assessment 2. provide accessible parking pass 3. connect with vendors re: accessible vehicles |
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What are three work interventions post SCI |
1. Energy conservation 2. Strategies for works station set-up 3. Refer to functional eval. centre |
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What are five community integration interventions post SCI |
1. Provide resources for community services 2. practice grocery shopping and banking 3. Adapted wallets 4. Problem solve community mobility 5. Outings |
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What is sexuality |
A central aspect of being human throughout life andencompasses sex, gender identities and roles, sexualorientation, eroticism, pleasure, intimacy andreproduction...” |
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Sexuality has what five qualities? |
1. Natural and healthy 2. Fundamental part of human experience 3. Physical, emotional, spiritual, cultural, psychological 4. Connected to self worth, self esteem, roles, ability to give/receive love and affection 5. At base of Maslow's hierarchy of needs |
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What is sexuality not |
1. Just sexual intercourse 2. Separate entity, divisible from person 3. Absent in face of illness or disability 4. Adequately addressed by HCP |
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What are six patient barriers to raising sexual concerns? |
1. Embarrassment 2. Lack of privacy 3. Waiting for HCP to address it 4. Lack of knowledge about what is normal 5. Stigma/taboos 6. Cost |
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What are seven HCP barriers to addressing sexuality? |
1. Waiting for patient to raise it 2. Lack of time 3. Discomfort 4. Lack of privacy 5. Role confusion 6. Lack of knowledge and training 7. Own attitudes, values, beliefs |
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What is a consistent finding about sexuality and OT? |
Gap between ideology and practice (think it's important but isn't addressed) |
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What are six reasons OTs should address sexuality? |
1. Essential component of holistic care 2. Enable people to engage in valuable meaningful occupations 3. Sex is ADL 4. Sexuality expresses and instills meaning 5. We work with clients on private stuff 6. Value in therapeutic relationshipW |
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What's OT's confidence in addressing sexual health issues connected to? |
Education and training |
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What enablement skill is important to addressing sexuality? |
Coaching |
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What does the PLISSIT Model do? |
Offers an approach for communicating withpatients/clients about sexuality that allows the HCP togear this communication to their own level of comfortand competence |
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What is the PLISSIT Model? |
Permission (to discuss sexuality; create open environment) Limited Info (related to specific client; dispel myths) Specific Suggestion (action steps for client - whether OT does this depends on problem/OT comfort in addressing it - may refer at this point) Intensive Therapy |
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What are seven benefits of kegel exercises
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1. Strengthen PC muscles 2. Increase blood floor and supply to pelvic region 3. Restoration of vaginal muscle tone and improved vaginal health 4. Increase thickness of vaginal wall and lubrication after menopause 5. Prevention and treatment of urinary stress incontinence 6. Recover from physical stress of childbirth 7. Improve sexual response and function |
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What are three ways to challenge negative thoughts about sexuality? |
1. Remember you are your own worst critic 2. Focus on parts of your body you like 3. Balance with negative thought with one positive |
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What are three ways to challenge negative thoughts about sexuality? |
1. Remember you are your own worst critic 2. Focus on parts of your body you like 3. Balance with negative thought with one positive |