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96 Cards in this Set

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What form is used to provide information needed for requisitioning supplies from government sources?
1. DD-1149
2. CG-4940
3. DD-1348-6
4. DLTF 4200.1.2 CG
CG-4940
What form is used to provide information needed for requisitioning supplies from commercial sources?
1. SF-30
2. OF-347
3. DOT F 4200.1.2 CG
4. SF-1165
DOT F 4200.1.2 CG
Which source of supply should be used primarily for all procurement actions regardless of dollar value?
1. DRMO
2. GSA
3. Unicor
4. Agency inventory
Agency inventory
True or False. All orders containing hazardous materials must have an MSDS attached and the HAZMAT coordinators signature on a Statement of Essential Need (SEN).
1. True
2. False
True
If a product is considered hazardous it is required to have a __________ under the OSHA standard?
1. DD-1149
2. MSDS
3. Cage number
4. 1348-1
MSDS
What is the name of the online supply and maintenance system for updating and maintaining baseline configuration data and replacement materials?
1. FLIS
2. LUFS
3. MICA
4. CMPLUS
CMPLUS
Who provides the electronic test equipment program for the Coast Guard?
1. MLC
2. SMEF
3. ELC
4. Area
MLC
What document specifies electronic maintenance philosophy?
1. EIM
2. EIMB
3. ELC
4. EILSP
EILSP
Fedlog is a logistics information system that allows the user to retrieve supply data and ordering information from the _____________?
1. CMPlus
2. MICA
3. FLIS
4. Cosal
FLIS
Who is responsible for developing a unique test equipment list for a unit?
1. ELC
2. Area
3. Supply officer
4. CGPMS Manager
CGPMS Manager
___________ provides authorization for NTNO test equipment?
1. CG-642
2. CG-643
3. OPNAV 4790
4. CG-410
CG-642
Who has final authority for a unit's test equipment allowance lists?
CGPMS manager
1. ELC
2. MLC
3. Commandant
Commandant
Who provides authorization for NTNO test equipment?
1. Commandant (G-SCE-2)
2. Commandant (G-SCE-3)
3. MLC
4. ELC
Commandant (G-SCE-2)
Who shall make changes to the units SPETERL as the appropriate Program/Project/Acquisition/Platform manager modifies the configuration of a supported unit?
1. ELC
2. Area
3. Commanding Officer
4. MLC
MLC
True or False. MLC provides procedures for unit calibration under the NICP and the NLCP.
1. True
2. False
True
How many different types of casualty reports does the Coast Guard currently use.
1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 5
4
When must a unit send an Initial Casrep?
1. Within 48 hours of an equipment malfuntion or deficiency.
2. When casualty cannot be corrected within 24 hours.
3. When the casualty can be corrected within 48 hours.
4. Within 24 hours of an equipment malfunction or deficiency.
Within 24 hours of an equipment malfunction or deficiency.
A 4790/CK is divided into ___ sections
1. 3
2. 4
3. 5
4. 6
4
What form is used to report completion (or partial completion) of alterations and maintenance actions that resulted in a configuration change?
1. OPNAV 4790 CK
2. CG-4940
3. Form 5451
4. OPNAV 4790 7B
OPNAV 4790 CK
Containers used for the accumulation of Secret classified waste shall be destroyed after ___ or be entered into the accountability records of the Security Control Point.
1. 30 days since the last item of classified waste is deposited.
2. 60 days since the last item of classified waste is deposited.
3. 30 days since the first item of classified waste is deposited.
4. 60 days since the first item of classified waste is deposited.
30 days since the first item of classified waste is deposited
Emergency Action Plan drills shall be conducted and documented ___ to ensure that those responsible for emergency destruction are familiar with the implementation of the EAP.
1. Monthly
2. Quarterly
3. Semi-Anually
4. Anually
Semi-Anually
What manual provides instructions for safeguarding classified material and shall be followed whenever classified records are destroyed, transferred, or otherwise disposed of?
1. COMDTINST M10550.25B
2. COMDTINST M5510.23
3. COMDTINST M8000.2D
4. COMDTINST M4750.3
COMDTINST M5510.23
True or False? Two people are required for the destruction af all classified material and must have no knowledge of the actual material being destroyed.
1. True
2. False
False
What is the preferred method of destroying non-record copies of FOUO materials?
1. Burning
2. Shredding
3. Tearing
4. Pulping
Tearing
What is the approved residue particle size requirement for crosscut shredders when used for destruction of classified paper material?
1. 1/16 inch in width and 1/4 inch in length
2. 1/16 inch in width and 1/2 inch in length
3. 1/32 inch in width and 1/4 inch in length
4. 1/32 inch in width and 1/2 inch in length
1/32 inch in width and 1/2 inch in length
True or False? Shredders shall be utilized in the destruction of classified microfilm, microfiche, or similar high information density human readable material.
1. True
2. False
False
What process should be used to destroy classified microfilm or microfiche?
1. Shredding
2. Chemical
3. Jettisoned at Sea
4. Pulverizing
Chemical
Classified material may be jettisoned at sea to depths of ______ fathoms or more?
1. 10
2. 100
3. 1,000
4. 10,000
1,000
True or False? Only persons accomplishing the destruction must sign for the number of bags destroyed or items being destroyed.
1. True
2. False
True
How often are EAP drills conducted?
1. Annually
2. Bi-monthly
3. Monthly
4. Semi-annually
Semi-annually
True or False. Shredding is an approved method of destruction for floppy disks.
1. True
2. False
True
True or False. Personnel who witness the destruction of material are not required to hold a security clearance.
1. True
2. False
False
Excess Materials(i.e., materials from the Coast Guard or other Government agencies) can be obtained from______.
1. DRMO
2. DLA
3. ELC
4. Unicor
DRMO
What Is the DOD Defense Logistics Management System consisting of standards, procedures, codes, formats, and documents for requisitioning material from the Federal Stock System called?
1. FEDLOG
2. MILSTRIP
3. FLIS
4. CMPLUS
MILSTRIP
A copy of the METRL (Metrology requirements List Navsea OD45845) may be obtained from what source?
1. ELC
2. ESD
3. ESU
4. MLC
MLC
What does C2CEN stand for?
1. Command and Control Engineering Center
2. Command and Civil Engineering Center
3. Control center for engineering
4. Coastal Command Engineering Center
Command and Control Engineering Center
Who is the administrative coordinator for all telecommunications systems in the military?
1. TISCOM
2. GPETE
3. SMEF
4. C2CEN
TISCOM
Who Provides supply support for Navy publications, instructions, directives, technical manuals, and other digital documents?
1. FLL (Fleet Logistics Library)
2. DLL (District Logistics Library)
3. NLL ( Naval Logistics Library)
4. SLL (Support Logistics Library)
NLL ( Naval Logistics Library)
What reference is the user guide for the Naval Logistics Library?
1. NAVSUP P2003
2. NAVSUP P724
3. NAVSEA OP4303
4. COMDINST 10550.25C
NAVSUP P2003
As an ET, what will you use to revise your local drawings?
1. black pen or pencil
2. blue pen or pencil
3. red pen or pencil
4. All of the above
red pen or pencil
Who do you send your revised local drawings to have the originals updated?
1. MLC
2. ESU
3. ELC
4. Lant/Pac Area
ELC
The most common revision designator for a drawing shall be identified by a/an___________.
1. Number/Numbers
2. Upper case Letter or Letters
3. Both A and B
4. None of the above
Upper case Letter or Letters
What contains revision notes and appears on sheet one of a revision?
1. Revision Block
2. Title Block
3. Manual Drawings
4. Revision Designator
Revision Block
On all engineer drawings what contains the drawing title, drawing number, sheet number, and scale of the drawing?
1. Revision Block
2. Title Block
3. Reference Designator
4. Engineering drawings
Title Block
On a revised drawing what appears next to a revised area and may have a superscript?
1. Block A-Activity
2. Revision Designator
3. Triangular Revision Symbol
4. Plan-Set Number
Triangular Revision Symbol
What is constructed with less stringent requirements than engineering drawings?
1. Publication and Manual Drawings
2. Originals Drawings
3. Reproducible Drawings
4. Platform Drawings
Publication and Manual Drawings
What on an engineer drawing lists "US Coast Guard, Washington, D.C. 20593," and the "Office of Naval Engineering.
1. Revision block
2. Title block
3. Revision designator
4. Block A-activity
Block A-activity
What drawings are stored at ELC (02T) and printed on Mylar or velum?
1. Publication and Manual Drawings
2. Engineering Drawings
3. Original Drawings
4. Reproducible Drawings
Original Drawings
What drawings are used for reference documentation, design alterations, and maintenance?
1. Publication and Manual Drawings
2. Engineering Drawings
3. Original Drawings
4. Reproducible Drawings
Engineering Drawings
MLCLANT and MLCPAC maintain copies of which drawings?
1. Publication and Manual Drawings
2. Engineering Drawings
3. Original Drawings
4. Reproducible Drawings
Reproducible Drawings
What is incorporated into the drawing number and is assigned to all platform class drawings?
1. Plan-Set Number
2. Revision Designator
3. Triangular Revision Symbol
4. Block A-Activity
Plan-Set Number
What program do you use to record completed maintenance actions for a local unit?
1. AIM
2. MICA
3. CMPlus
4. Fedlog
CMPlus
What are Maintenance Tasks also known as?
1. Maintenance Task Completion
2. Maintenance Task Execution
3. Maintenance Evolution
4. Maintenance Procedure
Maintenance Task Execution
What is the first step in accessing and using CMPlus for recording maintenance actions?
1. Receive a CMPlus User ID and Password from the System Administrator
2. Enter a Maintenance Procedure number into the information block
3. Determine the CMPlus System Administrator
4. Select task from the Maintenance Task List
Determine the CMPlus System Administrator
How often are checks and audits of all tag-outs performed?
1. Daily
2. Weekly
3. Bi-Weekly
4. Monthly
Bi-Weekly
What governs lock-out procedures at shore units?
1. COMDTINST M10550.25B
2. COMDTINST M9077.1C
3. CO's Standing Orders
4. OSHA Regulations
OSHA Regulations
What governs lock-out procedures for all units except shore units?
1. COMDTINST 10550.25B
2. COMDTINST 9077.1C
3. CO's Standing Orders
4. OSHA Regulations
COMDTINST 9077.1C
When should abbreviated tag-out audits be conducted?
1. As part of routine watch relief
2. As part of Duty Section relief
3. Weekly
4. As Needed
As part of routine watch relief
Sheet 1 of a multi-sheet drawing contains all but which of the following?
1. Sheet Index
2. Title Block
3. Author's Signature
4. Revision Block
Author's Signature
What type of drawings describe hull, mechanical, electrical (HM&E), ordnance, and electronic systems and equipment installed on Coast Guard platforms?
1. Platform Drawings
2. Engineering Drawings
3. Fleet Drawings
4. Contract Guidance Drawings
Engineering Drawings
The LOEP is divided into how many sections?
1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 5
2
True or False? Non-calendar periodicities cannot initially be scheduled for, on any schedule?
1. True
2. False
True
What is section I of a 4790/CK used for?
1. Component configuration change identification
2. Job description / remarks
3. Job identification
4. Special purpose
Job identification
What is section II of a 4790/CK used for?
1. Special purpose
2. Job description / remarks
3. Component configuration change identification
4. Job identification
Job description / remarks
What is section III in a 4790/CK used for?
1. Component configuration change identification
2. Job description / remarks
3. Special purpose
4. Job identification
Component configuration change identification
What is section IV in a 4790/CK used for?
1. A Job identification
2. Job description / remarks
3. Component configuration change identification
4. Special purpose
Special purpose
How many numbered fields are there in a 4790/CK document?
1. 21
2. 33
3. 30
4. 5
30
Which instruction covers electronic equipment loaned by the Navy?
1. OPNAVINST 4301
2. OPNAVINST 4790.4
3. COMDTINST M4400.19
4. COMDTINST M10550.25B
OPNAVINST 4790.4
Which FBR reports technical discrepancies inhibiting PMS performance?
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. Urgent
B
Where can you find the instructions on completing an FBR?
1. Back of 5451
2. Back of 4790/7B
3. CGPMS/ELC@internet.uscg.mil
4. OPNAVINST 4790.4
Back of 4790/7B
Which FBR Involves safety of personnel and potential or actual damage to equipment?
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. Urgent
Urgent
True or False. CGPMS and the CMplus System covers equipment procured by the Navy.
1. True
2. False
False
Which form reports Non-technical discrepancies inhibiting PMS performance?
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. Urgent
A
In which manual would you find instructions for auditing spare parts and inventory?
1. COMDTINST M4400.19
2. COMDTINST M1414.8
3. COMDTINST M4105.8
4. COMDTINST M10550.25
COMDTINST M4400.19
How many parts are there in MICA?
1. 3
2. 4
3. 5
4. 6
5
Which of the following is not in MICA Part II?
1. List of parts by equipment nomenclature
2. List of Coast Guard and/or Navy Drawing numbers
3. Stock Number Sequence Lists
4. List of Maintenance Procedure Cards for a piece of equipment
Stock Number Sequence Lists
Which of the following physical inventory methods is unscheduled?
1. Wall-to-Wall
2. Cycle Count
3. Special Material
4. Classified Material
Wall-to-Wall
If you have an inventory of 2600 parts, what is the sample size and number of errors allowed for a Sample Count?
1. 80 Items, 3 Errors
2. 125 Items, 7 Errors
3. 200 Items, 14 Errors
4. 315 Items, 21 Errors
125 Items, 7 Errors
Which of the following is not an acceptable means of documenting discrepancies and errors for a physical inventory report?
1. CMplus Physical Inventory Report
2. Count Sheets
3. Adjustment Form (CG-3114)
4. Inventory Discrepancy Log
Inventory Discrepancy Log
This is used to facilitate physical inventories and includes the NSN, ACN, or part number and CAGE code, item nomenclature, unit of issue, all storage locations for each item, quantity of the item, and a Remarks section for additional notes.
1. SIM
2. CMplus Inventory List
3. MICA
4. Count Sheets
Count Sheets
Inventories that include all OM&S with a unit price less than $1000; allowance; SIM and non-SIM material; and classified, hazardous, and shelf-life material.
1. Allowance Items
2. Scheduled Inventories
3. Unscheduled Inventories
4. CMplus Inventory
Scheduled Inventories
Which maintenance schedule is used to plan and schedule maintenance requirements to be conducted during each calendar quarter?
1. Weekly
2. Quarterly
3. Monthly
4. Cycle
Cycle
Which maintenance schedule displays the work centers PMS requirements to be performed during a specific three month period?
1. Weekly
2. Monthly
3. Quarterly
4. Cycle
Quarterly
Which maintenance schedule displays the planned maintenance scheduled for accomplishment in a given work center during a specific week?
1. Weekly
2. Monthly
3. Quarterly
4. Cycle
Weekly
Which maintenance schedule is updated after overhaul (dry-dock) or component change?
1. Weekly
2. Monthly
3. Quarterly
4. Cycle
Cycle
Which maintenance schedule is updated weekly and provides a ready reference to the status of PMS for each work center?
1. Weekly
2. Monthly
3. Quarterly
4. Cycle
Quarterly
Which maintenance schedule is posted in each work center and is used by the work center supervisor to assign and monitor the accomplishment of required PMS tasks by work center personnel?
1. Weekly
2. Monthly
3. Quarterly
4. Cycle
Weekly
Which section of the quarterly PMS schedule requires the department head's signature?
1. Header section
2. Work center section
3. Body section
4. Approval signature section
Header section
What are the two types of periodicity codes?
1. Weekly and Monthly
2. Calendar and non-calendar
3. Monthly and Annually
4. Scheduled and unscheduled
Calendar and non-calendar
What form is used to report completion (or partial completion) of alterations, maintenance actions that resulted in a configuration change, and to correct discrepancies and errors in the configuration files?
1. Field change
2. OPNAV 4790/CK
3. OPNAV 4790/7B
4. CG 5451
OPNAV 4790/CK
What type of maintenance is performed before going into a yard period where the equipment is unused and covered?
1. R
2. U
3. LU
4. SU
LU
How many different types of feedback reports are there?
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
3
What type of FBR involves safety of personnel and potential or actual damage to equipment?
1. A
2. B
3. Urgent
4. Both A and B
Urgent
HOW MANY ALLOTMENT FUND CONTROL CODES (AFC) ARE THERE FOR OE BUDGET?
1. 15
2. 12
3. 20
4. 18
15
HOW MANY ALLOTMENT FUND CONTROL CODES (AFC) ARE THERE FOR RT(RESERVE TRAINING) BUDGET?
1. 15
2. 2
3. 12
4. 4
2
HOW MANY ALLOTMENT FUND CONTROL CODES (AFC) ARE THERE FOR RP RETIRED PAY APPROPRIATIONS BUDGET?
1. 12
2. 2
3. 5
4. 8
2