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110 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
1) the agent causes syphilis

2) The tx of syphilis
1) Treponema pallidum

2) PCN for all stages
1) The name of agent cause Lyme disease

2) Tx
a) Acute
b) Chronic
1) Borrelia burgdorferi; ttransmitted by tick

2)
a) Tetracycline/doxycycline or amoxicillin
b) PCN G
Signs of "Bull's-eye rash", you think of --->?
Lyme disease
Minimun age for

1) doxycycline/tetracycline
2) FQ
1) 8 years old because discoloration of teeth

2) 18 years old because of joints.heart disorders
The most 3 commons bugs for respiratory infections?
1. Strep pnuemoniae

2. Haemophilus influenza

3. Moraxella
which bug often cause pneumonia in alcoholics?
Klebsiella
Which bug--> walking pnemoniae?
Mycoplasma pnemonia
What are common bug in UTI?
Think of PEKEPS
P: Proteus
E:E coli
K: Klebsiella
E: Entercoccus
P: Psudomonas
S: Stap saprophyticus
common 2 bugs causing Endocarditis?
1. Strep viridans

2. Staph aureus
DOC for cat bites and dog bites?
Augementin
who needs endocarditis prophylaxis?

Miteral valve prolapse?
No, mitral valve prolapse dose not require prophylaxis
DOC for endocarditis prophylaxis?
1) Amoxcillin 2 g PO 30-60 minus prior to procedure

2) If PCN allergy,
a. Clindamycin 600 mg PO
b. Azithromycin 500 mg
c. Clarithromycin 500 mg PO 30-60 min prior procedure

XX if IV: Cefazolin or Ceftriaxone 1 g IM/IV or clinda IM/IV)
"Stomach flu" = GI bacterial infections.
List 7 common bugs invovled stomach flu.
1. Salmonella
2. Shigella
3. Camphylobacter
4. E . coli (toxigenic 0157)
5. Hrlicobacter
6. C. difficle
7. (mild s/sx) Giardia
List 5 Meds for Traveler's diarrhea?
1. Pepto-Bismol (black tongue and stool)

2. Imodium
3. Cipro
4. Azithromycin
5. Xifaxan
Tx for CAP (Community acquired pnemnia) in adults?

1. Healthy adults
2. high risk patients
3. initial tx
1. Macrolides (erythromycin, clarithromycin, azithromycin)

2. Quninolones (avelox, factive or Lrvaquin)

3. doxycycline
DOC for Chlamydia?
1st line --> doxycycline 100 mg BID for 7 days

2nd line--> Azithromycin 1 g single dose; also recommended durning pregnancy
DOC for Gonorrhea?
DOC
Ceftriaxone 125 mg IM x 1

(also cefixime)
DOC for Syphilis?
1st line: Long acting pen G IM

2nd Line:
- doxycycline or tetracycline for 14 days
- ceftriaxone 1 g for 8 to 10 days
DOC for Trichomonoas?
Metronidazole 2 g x 1

( Try -Metro-subway)
2 Drugs for impetigo?
1. Bactroban (MRSA) TID for 3-5 days

2. Altabax (MSSA) BID for 5 days
Tx of skin candidasis?
Mycolog II apply BID

( 2 ingredients: Nystatin and triamcinolone acetonide)
what is Vusion?
Rx ointment for diaper rash (due to candida)

Contains:
-Miconazole,
- zinc oxide

-
1) What is the cause agent for Scabies?

2) Most common symptoms?

3)Tx of scabies? directions?
1. MItes (yes, it can spread)

2. Severe itching, worse at night

3. Elimite cream (Permethrin 5%) (Age > 2 months older)

Apply from head to toe leave on for 8-14 hours, and then wash off. May repeat in 2 weeks
Drugs for Pinworm?
1. Vermox (Mebendazole) x 1 , can repeat in 3 weeks

2. Albenza (Albendazole)

3. OTC PIN-X, or PIN-Rid (Pyantel pamoate)
what is Bicillin L-A?
Benzathine pencillin for

Syphyilis 2.4 millio units IMx1
3* syphilis: IM q week x 3 wks
-Not for neurosyphilis
Benzathine pencilline (Bicillin LA ) cab be used for syphilis and what else?
Group A strep

Rheumatic fever
Bicillin CR vs. Bicillin LA?
Bicillin CR: Procaine procaine + benzathine pencillins)

Bicillin LA: Benzathine pencillin
which drug is used for neurosyphilis?
Penicillin G (IV) 8-24 million units/day divided 4-6 hours
what is Pen Vee K, or Veetids?
Pencillin V (PO)

Take QID on empty stomach
what is Pre-Pen (Benzylpeniclloyl polylysine)?
Skin test for PCN allergic patients

( 1 drop in needle scratch; then 0.01-0.02 ml intradermally if no reaction)
Ampicillin with or without food?
without food
Ampicillin suspensin

1. how many days at room temperature?

2. how many days in the fridge?
1. room tem: 7 days

2. fridge: 14 days
Amoxcillin

1. 1st line for otitis media; dosage for otitis media?
2. dental prophylaxis
3. dosing frequency?
3.
1. 40-90 mg/kg
2. 2 grams 1 hour priot to procedure
3. TID, BID and QD (Moxatag, amoxicillin ER: 775 mg QD for strep throat)
Concentration of Amoxicillin infant drops?
50 mg/ml
2 IV antipseudomonal pencillins?
1. Zosyn
2. Timentin
what is Zosyn?
Piperacillin + tazobactam
what is Timentin?
Ticarcillin + clavulanate
what is Unasyn?
Ampicillin + sulbactam
What is the concentration of Augmentin ES?
600 mg/5 ml (All augmentin suspensions MUST be refridged)
What is Augmentin XR?
1000 mg Amoxicillin,
62.5 mg of Clavulanic acid

1 PO BID
DOC for surgical prophylaxis?
Cefazolin (Ancef) 1 gm IV q6-8H
2nd GEN of CEPH
Cover anaerobes?
Fox-Met-(for)-Tea

Cefoxitin
Cefmetazole
Cefotetan
3rd generation CEPH

for psedomonas aeruginosa?
Ceftriaxone and Ceftazidime
List 5 3nd gen CEPH are available in PO form?
1. Cefdinir (Omnicef)
2. Cefditoren (Spectracef)
3. Cefixime (Suprax)
4. Cefpodoxime (Vantin)
5. Ceftibutin (Cedax)
Dosages of cefepime (Maxipime)

1. regular dose?
2. for febrile netropenia
1. 1-2 grams IV/IM Q12H
2. 2 gm IV Q8H
doribax
doripenem;
1. 4th gen carbapenems
2. for complicated UTI, kidney, and intra-abdominal infections
Azactam (Aztreonam)
Monoactam

Only cover G(-)
Vancomycin

Time-dependent killing or concentration-dependent killing?
Time-dependent killing

peak: 20-30 mcg/ml
trough:5-15 mcg/ml
Aminoglycosides

Time-dependent killing or concentration-dependent killing?
concentration-dependent killing (post antibiotic effect)
Daptomycin (cubicin)
QD dosing,
Fridge
Only NS
Flourquinolones should avoid in what populations?
1. children < 18 y.o.
2. Pregnancy

(due to arthropathy: cartilage erosion)
BBW of FQ?

(1A2 inhibitor)
Tendure rupture (increased if given wit corticosteroids)
Cipro v.s. Tube feeding
Stop tube feeding for 2 hours before and 4 hours after quinolones

(same for antacids)
IV cipro v.s. PO Cipro?
IV Cipro = 80% of Cipro PO
ProQuin XR?
CiproXR = 500 mg QD
What is Ciprodex?
ear drop

Ciprofloxacin + dexamethasone
What is Ciloxacin?
cipro drop for the eye

1-2 gtts q2h for 2 hours while awake; then 1-2 gtts q4h for 5 days
Maxaquin
Lomefloxacin

(acute bronchitis not due to Strep pneumoniae, simple UTI,

--> 400 mg PO QHS
Levaquin IV v.s. PO
IV = PO dose
How do you take Levaquin oral solution?
on empty solution
What is Zymar?
Gatifloxacin ophthalmic 0.3% solution

(1 gtt q2h while for 2 days and then 1 gtts q4h for 5 days)
what is Avelox? Vigamox?
Moxifloxacin (PO) and Ophalmic 0.5% solution
(1 gtt tid for 7 days)
What is Factiva?
4th Gene FQ

Gemifloxacin comes only in 320mg tabs

chronic bronchitis 320 mg QD x 5days

CAP: QD for 7 days
what is the sign of discontinuing Factiva?
Rash
why do we infuse IV Avelox (Moxifloxacin) OVER 60 minutes?
To prevent QT prolongation
List 3 drugs in Macrolides group?
1. Erythromycin
2. Clarithromycin
3. Azithromycin

1 & 2 strong 3A4 inhibitors
How do you take Clarithromycin XL?
Always Take with food
How do you storage Biaxin suspension?
DO not fridge
How do advise patient to take ZMAX?
Zmax is azithromycin suspension (2 gam/60 ml single dose bottle); take on empty stomach
What is Perioatat?
low dose doxycycline (20 mg) for treatment periodonitis
A Rx written for
" Tetracycline 250-500 mg PO BID". what is the indication?
for acne vulgaris
Counseling points on Tetracyclines PO.

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
1. on empty stomach
2. Increased INR
3. decreased efficacy of OC
4. don't use outdated tetracyclines (Fanconi's syndrome: kidney malfunctions)
5. avoid children < 8 years old
What is Oracea?
for rosacea

- Low dose doxycyclines 40 mg PO QAM

- NO ABX effects

- antiinflammatory effects
what is Solodyn?
1) ER form of Minocycline

2) for moderate to severe acne

3) QD
What is the spectrum activity of Clindamycin?
G(+) and anerobes
List AE of Flagyl?
1. Disulfiram reaction
2. Darken urine
3. Metallic taste
4. GI upset
what is standard dilution of Flagyl?
NS
Flagyl v.s. light exposure?
darkening of products
Flagyl ER

with foods or without foods?
without foods
MacroBID

with foods or without foods?
1) with foods

2) Also darken urine
Zyvox comes with --..
(Linezolid)
PO,
suspension: do not shake bottle
IV
List 3 major AEs of Zyvox?
1. Thrombocytopenia
2. MAO inhibitors
3. Peripheral and otic neuropathy
Synercid
quinupristine + dalfopristin

Only IV form
Tygacil (tigecycline)

Only IV

1) mininum age: 18 y.o. (like FQ)
glycylcline (like tertacycline; 5x more potent)
what is the power component of in Bactrim?
Trimethoprim (like MTX)

--> acute bone marrow suppression
what are CI using Bactrim?
1. megaloblastic anemia due to folate deficiency

2. new born
(Kernicterus)

3. < 2 months old

4. pregnant and nursing women

5. severe hepatic and renal failure
How to prepare Bactrim IV?
1. 5 ml of Bactrim mix with 125 ml D5W;

2. MUST use in 6 hours
List 5 ABXs are safe in pregnancy
1. Pencillin & CEPH

2. Erythromycin & Azithromycin

3. Clindamycin

4. Nitrogurantion

5. Daptomycin
List 6 drugs are NOT safe in pregancy
1. Tetracyclines
2. FQ
3. Bactrim
4. Clarithromycin
5. AG
6. Metronidazole
List 2 ABX solutions should NOT be fridged.
1. Cleocin
2. Biaxin
Oral ABX solution needs to be fridged
Augmentin

(can not be left at room temperature for > 8 hours)
Did pts have to threw away the following oral solutions if left to room?

- PCN solution
- CEPH solutions
- Pediazole (Erythromycin + sulfisoxazole)
No, ok up to 24 hours
What is indication of Xigris?
Drotrecogin (recombinant version of human activated protein C)

to reduce mortality in sepsis
List 2 antifungals need acidic environment to get absorbed.
1. Itraconazole
2. Ketoconazole

(strong P450 3A4 inhibitors)
Vefend
Voriconazole

--> check visual with treatment (> 28 days)
List 3 drugs for CMV?
-All renal toxic
-
1. ganciclovir
2. Valganciclovir
(1 AND 2 BONE Marrow suppression)

3. Cidofovir--> increased IOP
4. foscarnet
Amantadine (Symmetrel) and Rimantadine (Flunadine)
Only influenza A
Tamiflu and Relenza (diskhaler, not in the fridge)
Influenza A and B
Foscarnet (Foscavir)
- supplied in either glass bottle and IV bags
renal failure and seizure
Intron A (interferon alfa-2b)...
interfer with your head

AE: sucidal
List 3 drugs for CMV?
-All renal toxic
-
1. ganciclovir
2. Valganciclovir
(1 AND 2 BONE Marrow suppression)

3. Cidofovir--> increased IOP
4. foscarnet
Amantadine (Symmetrel) and Rimantadine (Flunadine)
Only influenza A
Tamiflu and Relenza (diskhaler, not in the fridge)
Influenza A and B
Foscarnet (Foscavir)
- supplied in either glass bottle and IV bags
renal failure and seizure
Intron A (interferon alfa-2b)...
interfer with your head

AE: sucidal
Major AE of Tyerka
Telbivudine

-Lactic acidosis; irregular heartbeat
ringworm
fungal
pinworm
parasite
Vermox (mebedazole) 100 mg x1, may repeat in 3 weeks if needed
List drugs for Antimalariasls
1. Malarone ( # days travel + 9 = # prescribed0
2. Hydroxychloroquine (plaquenil)
3. Aralen
4. Lariam (Mefloquine)
Pyantel
OTC (PIN-X, Pin-RID)