Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;
Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;
H to show hint;
A reads text to speech;
184 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
What are the three sections of the stomach?
|
fundus, which lies above and to the left of the cardiac orifice; the middle two thirds, or body; and the pylorus
|
|
What does the stomach secrete to break down proteins?
|
Pepsin acts to digest proteins
|
|
What does the stomach secrete to deal with fat?
|
gastric lipase acts on emulsified fat
|
|
What is the first part of the small intestine and how big is it?
|
duodenum, 12inches
|
|
What opens into the duodenum at the deuodenal papilla?Where?
|
common bile duct and pancreatic duct open into the duodenum at the duodenal papilla, about 3 inches below the pylorus of the stomach.
|
|
How long is the large intestine and what is its function?
|
t 4½ to 5 feet long, with a diameter of 2½ inches. Water absorption takes place here. Mucous glands secrete large quantities of alkaline mucus that lubricate the intestinal contents and neutralize acids formed by intestinal bacteria. Live bacteria decompose undigested food residue, unabsorbed amino acids, cell debris, and dead bacteria through a process of putrefaction.
|
|
Where is the liver?
|
right upper quadrant of the abdomen, just below the diaphragm. Its inferior surface almost embraces the gallbladder, stomach, duodenum, and hepatic flexure of the colon.
|
|
What are the components of the liver?
|
four lobes containing lobules, the functional units. Each lobule is made up of liver cells radiating around a central vein. Branches of the portal vein, hepatic artery, and bile duct embrace the periphery of the lobules
|
|
What is the route of bile from the liver?
|
Bile secreted by the liver cells drains from the bile ducts into the hepatic duct, which joins the cystic duct from the gallbladder to form the common bile duct.
|
|
Where is the hepatic artery from?
|
Aorta
|
|
Where does blood from the portal vein come from heading towards the liver?
|
portal vein carries blood from the digestive tract and spleen to the liver
|
|
How many hepatic veins are there and where do they drain to?
|
Three hepatic veins carry blood from the liver and empty into the inferior vena cava.
|
|
How long and where is the gallbladder?
|
pear-shaped organ about 4 inches long, lying recessed in the inferior surface of the liver
|
|
What is the function of the gallbladder?
|
concentrate and store bile from the liver
|
|
What hormones causes the gallbladder to release bile into the cystic duct?
|
cholecystokinin
|
|
Where is the pancreas?head?tip?
|
behind and beneath the stomach, with its head resting in the curve of the duodenum and its tip extending across the abdominal cavity to almost touch the spleen
|
|
What is the pancreas exocrine function?
|
the acinar cells of the pancreas produce digestive juices containing inactive enzymes for the breakdown of proteins, fats, and carbohydrates.
|
|
What is the endocrine gland function of the pancreas?
|
islet cells produce insulin and glucagon.
These are secreted directly into the blood to regulate the body's level of glucose. |
|
Where do the exocrine enzymes of the pancreas empty into?
|
duodenum at the duodenal papilla, alongside the common bile duct
|
|
Where is the spleen?
|
left upper quadrant, lying above the left kidney and just below the diaphragm
|
|
What is the function of the white pulp of the spleen?
|
part of the reticuloendothelial system to filter blood and to manufacture lymphocytes and monocytes.
|
|
What is the function of the red pulp of the spleen?
|
contains a capillary network and venous sinus system that allow for the storage and release of blood, permitting the spleen to accommodate up to several hundred milliliters at once.
|
|
Where are the two kidneys? include V-levels
|
retroperitoneal space of the upper abdomen. Each extends from about the vertebral level of T12 to L3
|
|
Which kidney is lower and why?
|
right is lower, because of liver on it
|
|
How much cardiac output does the kidney receive?
|
one eighth of the cardiac output through its renal artery
|
|
Where are electrolytes, glucose, water, and small proteins, actively resorbed in the kidney?
|
proximal tubule
|
|
What hormone controls the urinary volume of the kidney?
|
ADH
|
|
What is the endocrine function of the kidney?
|
production of renin, which is important for the ultimate control of aldosterone secretion. It is the primary source of erythropoietin production in adults, thus influencing the body's red cell mass. In addition to synthesizing several prostaglandins, the kidney produces the biologically active form of vitamin D.
|
|
What is the linea alba and where is it?
|
a tendinous band, is located in the midline of the abdomen between the rectus abdominis muscles. It extends from the xiphoid process to the symphysis pubis and contains the umbilicus
|
|
When does the aorta become the two common iliac arteries?
|
about the level of the umbilicus
|
|
When do the pancreatic buds, liver, and gallbladder all begin to form?
|
week 4 of gestation
|
|
The motility of the gastrointestinal tract develops in what type of direction in the fetus ? WHY? When?
|
cephalocaudal direction, permitting amniotic fluid to be swallowed by 17 weeks of gestation
|
|
What is meconium?
|
end product of fetal metabolism
|
|
When is the gastrointestinal tract capable of adapting to extrauterine life?
|
36 to 38 weeks
|
|
When can Pancreatic islet start producing insulin?
|
12 weeks gestation
|
|
When is the spleen active in blood formation?
|
during fetal development and the first year of life. After that time, the spleen aids in the destruction of blood cells and in the formation of hemoglobin.
|
|
When does Nephrogenesis begin?
|
second embryologic month
|
|
When can the kidneys produce urine?
|
12 weeks gestation
|
|
When do new nephrons cease in development?
|
36 weeks gestation
|
|
What is the GFR before 34 weeks gestation and then what is the final amount?
|
glomerular filtration rate is approximately 0.5 mL/min before 34 weeks of gestation and gradually increases in a linear fashion to 125 mL/min.
|
|
What is diastasis recti?
|
separation of the rectus abdominis muscles
|
|
WHEN in a pregnant women does decreased pressure of the lower esophageal sphincter start? Peristaltic wave velocity in the distal esophagus also decreases.
|
second trimester
|
|
In pregnant women, Incompetence of the pyloric sphincter may result in _____
|
alkaline reflux of duodenal contents into the stomach. Heartburn is a common complaint.
|
|
Why are gallstone common in 2nd and 3rd trimester?
|
gallbladder may become distended, accompanied by decreased emptying time and change in tone. The combination of gallbladder stasis and secretion of lithogenic bile increases formation of cholesterol crystals in the development of gallstones
|
|
In pregnant women, why is Dilation of the ureter greater on the right side than on the left
|
probably because it is affected by displacement of the uterus to the right by an enlarged right ovarian vein.
|
|
What causes a increase microhematuria in pregnant women?
|
After the fourth month the increase in uterine size, hyperemia, and hyperplasia of muscle and connective tissue cause elevation of the bladder trigone and thickening of the posterior margin, which produce a marked deepening and widening of the trigone by the end of the pregnancy
|
|
What happens to the colon in pregnant women?
Talk about movement and changes in nutrient handling. side effects |
displaced laterally upward and posteriorly, peristaltic activity may decrease, and water absorption is increased. As a result, bowel sounds are diminished, and constipation and flatus are more common
|
|
In the intestine of a older adult, what function is affected most by age?
|
Motility of the intestine is the most severely affected; secretion and absorption are affected to a lesser degree
|
|
Why is motility in the intestine decreased in in older adults?
|
Altered motility may be caused in part by age-related changes in neurons of the central nervous system and by changes in collagen properties that increase the resistance of the intestinal wall to stretching
|
|
What age does liver size start to decrease?
|
50 y/o
|
|
How does the pancreas change with old age?
|
No change in size, increase in fibrous tissue and fatty deposition with acinar cell atrophy; however, the large reserve of the organ results in no significant physiologic changes. The functional reserve of the pancreas may be reduced, although this can occur as a result of delayed gastric emptying rather than pancreatic changes.
|
|
Why do older adults have increase risk for gallstones?
|
increase of biliary lipids, specifically the phospholipids and cholesterol.
|
|
What is Chyluria ?
|
milky urine
|
|
Cause of acute diarrhea from traveling outside the US?
|
Escherichia coli, Salmonella, Shigella, or Entamoeba histolytic
|
|
Acute diarrhea from camping is caused by what two organisms?
|
Giardia and Campylobacter through untreated water.
|
|
Outbreaks of diarrhea in the US from contaminated water is from what organism?
|
Cryptosporidium
|
|
Diarrhea from undercooked poultry is caused by what organism?
|
Salmonella or Campylobacter jejuni
|
|
Diarrhea from undercooked beef or unpasteurized milk is caused by what organism?
|
E. coli 0157:H7
|
|
Raw shellfish is the source of what virus which can cause acute diarrhea?
|
Norwalk virus
|
|
Mechanical cause for GERD?
|
Relaxation or incompetence of the lower esophagus
|
|
burning chest pain, localized behind the breastbone that moves up toward the neck and throat
|
Heartburn
|
|
functional disorder of the intestine that produces a cluster of symptoms, consisting most commonly of abdominal pain, bloating, constipation, and diarrhea. experience alternating diarrhea and constipation. Mucus may be present around or within the stool.
|
Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS)
|
|
part of the stomach has passed through the esophageal hiatus in the diaphragm into the chest cavity
|
hiatal hernia
|
|
hiatal hernia is clinically significant when accompanied by acid reflux
What disease state? |
esophagitis
|
|
Patients complain of epigastric pain and/or heartburn that worsens with lying down and is relieved by sitting up or with antacids, of water brash (the mouth fills with fluid from the esophagus), and of dysphagia
|
HIATAL HERNIA WITH ESOPHAGITIS
|
|
most common form of peptic ulcer disease
|
duodenal ulcer
|
|
organism that causes peptic ulcers?
|
Helicobacter pylori and cause increased gastric acid secretion
|
|
localized epigastric pain that occurs when the stomach is empty and that is relieved by food or antacids.
|
DUODENAL ULCER
|
|
In DUODENAL ULCER, what type of ulcer is more likely to bleed and which is more likely to perforate?
|
Anterior ulcers are more likely to perforate, whereas posterior ulcers are more likely to bleed.
|
|
chronic inflammatory disorder of the gastrointestinal tract that produces ulceration, fibrosis, and malabsorption.
|
Crohn disease
|
|
Most common sites for Crohn Disease?
|
terminal ileum and colon
|
|
On colonoscopy the mucosa has a characteristic cobblestone appearance. Fissure and fistula formation, sometimes extending to the skin, is common. Patients exhibit chronic diarrhea, compromised nutritional status, and often other systemic manifestations such as arthritis, iritis, and erythema nodosum
|
CROHN DISEASE
|
|
Patients presents first with cheilitis, gingival redness and swelling, or mouth sores.) what GI problem can cause this?
|
Crohn Disease
|
|
Inflammation, transmural bowel wall thickens, lumen narrows; mucosa ulcerated, cobblestone appearance, mesenteric fibrosis
|
Crohn disease
|
|
Inflammation confined to mucosa; starts in rectum, progresses through colon; vascular engorgement of submucosa,; mucosa ulcerated and denuded with granulation tissue; minimal fibrosis
|
Ulcerative colitis
|
|
Cramping diarrhea, mild bleeding, occurs anywhere in gastrointestinal tract; fissure, fistula, abscess formation; periumbilical colic; malabsorption; folate deficiency
|
Crohn disease
|
|
Mild to severe symptoms; bloody, watery diarrhea; no localized peritoneal signs; weight loss, fatigue, general debility; may progress to carcinoma of colon
|
Ulcerative colitis
|
|
chronic inflammatory disorder of the colon and rectum that produces mucosal friability and areas of ulceration; fibrosis is minimal.
|
ULCERATIVE COLITIS
|
|
characterized by bloody, frequent, watery diarrhea, with patients reporting as many as 20 to 30 diarrheal stools per day. Patients may also exhibit weight loss, fatigue, and general debilitation
|
ULCERATIVE COLITIS
|
|
Gastric carcinomas are most commonly found in the ___
|
lower half of stomach
|
|
What cells do Gastric carcinomas arise from
|
epithelial cells of the mucous membrane.
|
|
Symptoms may be vague and nonspecific, and include loss of appetite, feeling of fullness, weight loss, dysphagia, and persistent epigastric pain. Physical examination may reveal tenderness in the midepigastrium, an enlarged liver, positive supraclavicular nodes, and ascites. An epigastric mass is not palpable until late stages of the disease.
|
STOMACH CANCER
|
|
produces left lower quadrant pain, anorexia, nausea, vomiting, and altered bowel habits, usually constipation. The pain usually becomes localized at the site of the inflammatory process. The abdomen may be distended and tympanic with decreased bowel sounds and localized tenderness.
|
DIVERTICULOSIS
|
|
occult blood in the stool detectable by fecal occult blood testing; changes in the frequency or character of stools. : Think?
|
COLON CANCER (COLORECTAL CANCER)
|
|
Third leading cause of cancer deaths in the US?
|
Colorectal cancer
|
|
diffuse or patchy hepatocellular necrosis
|
Hepatitis
|
|
What are the common causes of Hepatitis ?
|
viral infection, alcohol, drugs, or toxins
|
|
jaundice, hepatomegaly, anorexia, abdominal and gastric discomfort, clay-colored stools, and tea-colored urine.
|
HEPATITIS
|
|
self-limited type of hepatitis that may occur after natural disasters because of fecal-contaminated water or food.
|
Hepatitis E (epidemic)
|
|
occurs only in persons infected with hepatitis B, either as a co-infection in acute hepatitis B, or as a superinfection in chronic hepatitis B.
|
Hepatitis D
|
|
destruction of the liver parenchyma. Often the liver is initially enlarged with a firm, nontender border on palpation; but as scarring progresses, the liver mass is reduced, and it generally cannot be palpated
|
CIRRHOSIS
|
|
Symptoms are ascites, jaundice, prominent abdominal vasculature, cutaneous spider angiomas, dark urine, light-colored stools, and spleen enlargement. The patient often complains of fatigue, and in late stages muscle wasting may be evident.
|
Cirrhosis
|
|
liver enlargement and a hard, irregular border on palpation. Nodules may be present and palpable, and the liver may be either tender or nontender. Associated symptoms can include ascites, jaundice, anorexia, fatigue, dark urine, and light-colored stools.
|
LIVER CARCINOMA
|
|
abdominal pain, jaundice, and weight loss.
A mass may be palpable in the upper abdomen. |
GALLBLADDER CANCER
|
|
pain in the right upper quadrant with radiation around the midtorso to the right scapular region. The pain is abrupt and severe, and lasts for 2 to 4 hours.
|
symptom of acute cholecystitis
|
|
associated stone formation in 90% of all cases, causing obstruction and inflammation
|
Acute cholecystitis
|
|
exhibit fat intolerance, flatulence, nausea, anorexia, and nonspecific abdominal pain and tenderness of the right hypochondriac region.
|
Chronic cholecystitis
refers to repeated attacks of acute cholecystitis in a gallbladder that is scarred and contracted. |
|
What race has a higher incidence of gallbladder disease then any other group?
|
Native Americans/American Indians
|
|
Chronic inflammation of the pancreas produces constant, unremitting abdominal pain; epigastric tenderness; weight loss; steatorrhea; and glucose intolerance.
|
CHRONIC PANCREATITIS
|
|
Malignant degeneration results in abdominal pain that radiates from the epigastrium to the upper quadrants or back, weight loss, anorexia, and jaundice.
|
PANCREATIC CANCER
|
|
organ most commonly injured in abdominal trauma because of its anatomic location.
|
SPLEEN
|
|
pain in the left upper quadrant with radiation to the left shoulder (positive Kehr sign), hypovolemia, and peritoneal irritation.
|
symptoms of splenic rupture
|
|
Inflammation of the capillary loops of the renal glomeruli usually produces nonspecific symptoms. The patient complains of nausea, malaise, and arthralgias. Hematuria may occur. Pulmonary infiltrates may be present.
|
GLOMERULONEPHRITIS
|
|
dilation of the renal pelvis from back pressure of urine that cannot flow past an obstruction in the ureter. If secondary infection is present the patient experiences hematuria, pyuria, and fever.
|
HYDRONEPHROSIS
|
|
Infection of the kidney and renal pelvis is characterized by flank pain, bacteriuria, pyuria, dysuria, nocturia, and frequency. Costovertebral angle tenderness may be evident.
|
PYELONEPHRITIS
|
|
localized infection within the cortex of the kidney. The patient may complain of chills, fever, and aching flanks. Fist percussion produces costovertebral angle tenderness.
|
RENAL ABSCESS
|
|
Renal calculi are composed of ___, ___, ___, ___.
|
calcium salts, uric acid, cystine, and struvite
|
|
Which type of urine increases chaces of Renal Calculi? Alkaline or Acidic
|
Alkaline
|
|
Symptoms include fever, hematuria, and flank pain that may extend to the groin and genitals.
|
RENAL CALCULI
|
|
This is the sudden, severe impairment of renal function causing an acute uremic episode. The impairment may be prerenal, renal, or postrenal. Urine output may be normal, decreased, or absent. The patient may show signs of either fluid overload or deficit.
|
ACUTE RENAL FAILURE
|
|
slow, insidious, and irreversible impairment of renal function.
Uremia usually develops gradually. The patient may experience oliguria or anuria and have signs of fluid overload. |
CHRONIC RENAL FAILURE
|
|
silent event or a full-blown syndrome of flank pain and tenderness, hematuria, hypertension, fever, and decreased renal function.
|
RENAL ARTERY EMBOLI
|
|
Odor of Urine: Maple syrup
|
Maple syrup urine disease
|
|
Odor of Urine: Mousy, musty
|
Phenylketonuria
|
|
Odor of Urine: Dead fish
|
Fish odor syndrome (trimethylaminuria)
|
|
Odor of Urine: Cat's urine
|
Cat syndrome (similar to Werdnig-Hoffman disease)
|
|
Odor of Urine: Yeastlike, celery
|
Oasthouse urine disease (methionine)
|
|
Odor of Urine: Fishy, musty
|
Tyrosinemia/tyrosinosis
|
|
Odor of Urine: Rancid butter
|
Rancid butter syndrome (hypermethioninemia)
|
|
Odor of Urine: Ammonia
|
Urea-splitting bacteria (especially Proteus)
|
|
Odor of Urine: Rotting fish
|
Uremia (di-, trimethylamines)
|
|
Odor of Urine: Stale water
|
Acute tubular necrosis
|
|
Odor of Urine: Violets
|
Turpentine ingestion
|
|
Odor of Urine: Medicinal
|
Antibiotics: penicillin, cephalosporins
|
|
prolapse of one segment of the intestine into another causes intestinal obstruction.
|
INTUSSUSCEPTION
|
|
Common age for INTUSSUSCEPTION?
|
infants between 3 and 12 months old
|
|
acute intermittent abdominal pain, abdominal distention, vomiting, and passage at first of normal brown stool. Subsequent stools may be mixed with blood and mucus with a red currant jelly appearance
|
INTUSSUSCEPTION
|
|
sausage-shaped mass may be palpated in the right or left upper quadrant, whereas the lower quadrant feels empty (positive Dance sign
|
INTUSSUSCEPTION
|
|
Symptoms include regurgitation progressing to projectile vomiting (i.e., vigorous, shoots out of the mouth, and carries a short distance); feeding eagerly (even after a vomiting episode); failure to gain weight; and signs of dehydration. A small, rounded mass is often palpable in the right upper quadrant, particularly after the infant vomits.
|
PYLORIC STENOSIS
|
|
lower intestinal obstruction caused by thickening and hardening of meconium in the lower intestine. Identified by the failure to pass meconium in the first 24 hours after birth and by abdominal distention, it is often the first manifestation of cystic fibrosis.
|
MECONIUM ILEUS
|
|
congenital obstruction or absence of some or all of the bile duct system. Symptoms include jaundice that usually becomes apparent at 2 to 3 weeks of age, hepatomegaly, abdominal distention, poor weight gain, and pruritus. Stools become lighter in color and urine darkens.
|
BILIARY ATRESIA
|
|
associated with prematurity and immaturity of the gastrointestinal tract. Signs include abdominal distention, occult blood in stool, and respiratory distress. The condition is often fatal, complicated by perforation and septicemia.
|
NECROTIZING ENTEROCOLITIS
|
|
mass in the adrenal medulla of the young child, but a mass may occur anywhere along the craniospinal axis. A firm, fixed, nontender, irregular and nodular abdominal mass that crosses the midline is often found. Symptoms include malaise, loss of appetite, weight loss, and protrusion of one or both eyes. Other symptoms arise from compression of the mass or metastasis to adjacent organs
|
NEUROBLASTOMA
|
|
most common intraabdominal tumor of childhood, usually appears at 2 to 3 years of age.
|
WILMS TUMOR (NEPHROBLASTOMA)
|
|
a firm, nontender mass deep within the flank, only slightly movable and not usually crossing the midline. It is sometimes bilateral. Painless enlargement of the abdomen is the usual sign; however, a low-grade fever and hypertension may be present.
|
WILMS TUMOR (NEPHROBLASTOMA)
|
|
primary absence of parasympathetic ganglion cells in a segment of the colon interrupts the motility of the intestine. The absence of peristalsis causes feces to accumulate proximal to the defect, leading to an intestinal obstruction
|
HIRSCHSPRUNG DISEASE (CONGENITAL AGANGLIONIC MEGACOLON)
|
|
Symptoms include failure to thrive, constipation, abdominal distention, and episodes of vomiting and diarrhea. The newborn may fail to pass meconium in the first 24 to 48 hours after birth. Symptoms in older infants and young children are generally intestinal obstruction or severe constipation.
|
HIRSCHSPRUNG DISEASE (CONGENITAL AGANGLIONIC MEGACOLON)
|
|
one of the most common causes of acute renal failure in children.
Diarrhea and upper respiratory infection are the most common precipitating factors. |
HEMOLYTIC UREMIC SYNDROME (HUS)
|
|
child typically presents with decreased or absent urine output, fever and irritability, with a history of bloody diarrhea. Gastrointestinal involvement may lead to symptoms of an acute abdomen, with occasional perforation.
|
HEMOLYTIC UREMIC SYNDROME (HUS)
|
|
The number one bacterial cause of HUS in the United States
|
E. coli 0157: H7.
|
|
excessive quantity of amniotic fluid, an amniotic fluid index greater than the 95th percentile, which can range from 2000 mL of fluid to as much as 15 L.
|
Hydramnios
|
|
associated with maternal diabetes; with an increased incidence of fetal malformations, especially of the central nervous system and gastrointestinal tract; and with other conditions including fetal polyuria, fetal cardiac failure, and congenital infections
|
HYDRAMNIOS (POLYHYDRAMNIOS)
|
|
reduced amount of amniotic fluid identified on ultrasound. An amniotic fluid index (AFI) of less than the fifth percentile for gestational age is associated with premature rupture of membranes, intrauterine growth restriction, post maturity, and fetal anomalies of renal origin. On examination, the uterine size may be small for gestational age, with the fetal parts easily palpated. Fetal mortality is increased due to underlying etiology and increased risk for cesarean delivery
|
OLIGOHYDRAMNIOS
|
|
Fecal incontinence in older adults is associated with three major causes: ___, ___, ___
|
fecal impaction, underlying disease, and neurogenic disorders
|
|
The most common cause of Fecal incontinence is __. Why?
|
fecal impaction, is associated with immobilization and poor fluid and dietary intake
|
|
any process that causes degeneration of the mesenteric plexus and lower bowel, resulting in a lax sphincter muscle, diminished sacral reflex, and decreased puborectal muscle tone
|
Local Neurogenic disorder for Fecal Incontinence
|
|
Fecal Incontinence usually result from stroke or dementia. unable to recognize rectal fullness and have an inability to inhibit intrinsic rectal contraction
|
Cognitive neurogenic disorders
|
|
The underlying diseases of Fecal Incontinence
|
cancer, inflammatory bowel disease, diverticulitis, colitis, proctitis, or diabetic neuropathy
|
|
most common types of urinary incontinence in older adults are ___,__,___,___
|
stress, urge, overflow, and functional
|
|
leakage of urine due to increased intraabdominal pressure that can occur from coughing, laughing, exercise, or lifting heavy things.
|
STRESS URINARY INCONTINENCE
|
|
inability to hold urine once the urge to void occurs. Causes of this abnormality can be local genitourinary conditions, such as infection or tumor; or central nervous system disorders, such as stroke
|
URGE URINARY INCONTINENCE
|
|
a type of urge incontinence, is caused by uninhibited bladder contractions and no urge to void.
|
Reflex incontinence
|
|
mechanical dysfunction resulting from an overdistended bladder. This type of incontinence has many causes: anatomic obstruction by prostatic hypertrophy and strictures; neurologic abnormalities that impair detrusor contractility, such as multiple sclerosis; or spinal lesions.
|
OVERFLOW URINARY INCONTINENCE
|
|
intact urinary tract, but other factors such as cognitive abilities, immobility, or musculoskeletal impairments lead to incontinence
|
functional urinary incontinence
|
|
Small volume incontinence with cough, sneezing, laughing, running; history of prior pelvic surgery
|
Stress incontinence
|
|
Pelvic floor relaxation; cystocele, rectocele; lax urethral sphincter; loss of urine with provocative testing; atrophic vaginitis; postvoid residual less than 100 mL
What type of incontinence? |
Stress incontinence
|
|
Uncontrolled urge to void; large volume incontinence; history of central nervous system disorders such as stroke, multiple sclerosis, parkinsonism
|
Urge incontinence
|
|
Unexpected findings only as related to central nervous system disorder; postvoid residual less than 100 mL
|
Urge incontinence
|
|
Small volume incontinence, dribbling, hesitancy; in men, symptoms of enlarged prostate; nocturia, dribbling, hesitance, deceased force and caliber of stream
|
Overflow incontinence
|
|
Distended bladder; prostate hypertrophy; stool in rectum, fecal impaction; postvoid residual greater than 100 mL
|
Overflow incontinence
|
|
Which incontinence: Change in mental status; impaired mobility; new environment
|
Functional incontinence
|
|
accumulation of serous fluid in the peritoneal cavity
|
Ascites
|
|
palpation technique used to assess a floating mass
|
Ballottement
|
|
rumbling or gurgling noises produced by movement of gas in the alimentary cavity
|
Borborygmi
|
|
uterine contractions that may begin in the first trimester
|
Braxton Hicks
|
|
Destruction of liver parenchyma
|
Cirrhosis
|
|
spasmodic pains in the abdomen
|
Colic
|
|
inflammatory process of the liver, usually caused by viral infection
|
Hepatitis
|
|
enzyme that acts to digest proteins
|
Pepsin acts to digest proteins
|
|
fan-shaped fold of peritoneum that anchors small intestine to abdominal wall
|
Mesentery
|
|
Enzyme that acts on emulsified fats
|
Lipase
|
|
Muscular contractions that move products of digestion through the alimentary canal
|
Peristalsis
|
|
Serous membrane lining the abdominal cavity
|
Peritoneum
|
|
distal section of the stomach
|
Pylorus
|
|
backflow caused by relaxation or incompetence of lower esophagus
|
Reflex
|
|
sound obtained on percussin a part that can freely vibrate
|
Resonance
|
|
abdomen that suggests diaphragmatic hernia in the newborn
|
Scaphoid
|
|
low-pitched, resonant, drumlike note obtained by percussing the surface of a large, air-containing space
|
Tympany
|
|
twisting of the intestine resulting in an obstruction
|
Volvulus
|
|
"Household/sexual contacts of infected persons
Unimmunized travelers to countries where hepatitis _ is common Person living in areas with increased rates of hepatitis _ Men who have sex with men Injecting and noninjecting drug users" |
Risk for Hepatitis A
|
|
Persons with multiple sex partners or diagnosis of a sexually transmitted infection
Men who have sex with men Drug users who inject Sexual/household contacts of infected persons Infants born to infected mothers Infants/children of immigrants from areas with high rates of hepatitis _ infection Health care and public safety workers Hemodialysis patients |
Risk for Hepatitis B
|
|
"Drug users who inject
Recipients of clotting factors made before 1987 Hemodialysis patients Recipients of blood and/or solid organs before 1992 People with undiagnosed liver problems Infants born to infected mothers Health care/public safety workers People having sex with multiple partners People having sex with an infected steady partner" |
Risk for Hepatitis C
|
|
"* Age older than 50 years
* Family history of colon cancer, familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP), familial hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer (HNPCC), Gardner syndrome * Personal history of colorectal cancer, intestinal polyps, chronic inflammatory bowel disease (Crohn disease, ulcerative colitis), Gardner syndrome * Personal history of ovarian, endometrial or breast cancer * Ethnic background: Ashkenazi Jewish descent * Diet high in beef and animal fats, low in fiber * Obesity * Smoking * Physical inactivity (regular physical activity reduces risk) * Alcohol intake: risk increases with increased amounts" |
"Risk Factors
Colorectal Cancer" |
|
"Delirium, dehydration
Retention, restricted mobility Impaction, infection Polyuria, pharmaceuticals, psychologic" |
Reversible Causes of Urinary Incontinence: DRIP
|