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406 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
Predictors of difficult Bag-valve Mask Ventilation |
BOOTS |
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What is the Mallampati score? What are the 4 classes? |
Mallampati score is used to predict the ease of intubation.
I and II are relatively easy. III and IV predict difficult intubation. |
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Features that predict difficult intubation?
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MAP |
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Reasons for intubation?
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4 P's
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What is rapid sequence intubation?
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Rapid sequence intubation is defined as the simultaneous administration of a powerful sedative (induction) agent and a paralytic agent to facilitate intubation and decrease the risk of aspiration.
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Basic steps to rapid sequence intubation |
6 P's
1. Preparation – prepare all equipment, personnel, and medications
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Describe proper sniffing position for laryngoscopy
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Head angled back, neck forward. External auditory meatus and sternal notch should be in same horizontal plane.
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Describe the "BURP" technique
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BURP technique – refers to application of 'backward, upward, rightward pressure' on the larynx to facilitate visualization of the cords during laryngoscopy.
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Describe how a bougie can be used in endotracheal intubation
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Bougie is a long, thin, flexible device inserted under the epiglottis during laryngoscopy. As it enters the trachea, clicks are felt as the bougie passes over tracheal rings, and it STOPS when it reaches a mainstem bronchus. If esophageal, no clicks are felt and the bougie advances into stomach. Once in trachea, advance ET tube over bougie.
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Life threatening causes of dyspnea
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"Breathing Poorly Can Cause Alot of Tension"
-Pulmonary Embolus -Pulmonary Edema (CHF) -Acute exacerbation of COPD -Acute severe Asthma -Tension pnuemothorax |
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Anatomical approach to dyspnea
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Bronchi and bronchioles - Asthma, COPD, Bronchiectasis
Lung Parenchyma - filling or blocking of alveoli eg. pus (infection), fluid (edema), blood, gastric contents (aspiration) Vasculature/Blood - emboli, metabolic (acidosis, thyroid), anemia Pleural Space - air (penumothorax), blood (hemothorax), fluid (pleural effusion), pus (empyema) Chest wall and diaphragm - trauma, neurogenic Causes (GBS, Myasthenia Crisis and ALS) Cardiac - MI, cardiac Tamponade, valvular and congenital |
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Investigations to order in a patient with dyspnea
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CBC- looking for evidence of infection or severe
anemia Electrolytes- looking for evidence of anion gap acidosis Cardiac Enzymes- in patients with risk factors for ischemia D-dimer- frequently used to rule out the diagnosis of pulmonary embolism CXR- visualizes many forms of lung pathology Blood Gas - to assess oxygenation and ventilation |
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What information does arterial and venous blood gas provide
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ABG - alveolar oxygenation (pO2), ventilation (pCO2), the acid-base status of the patient, and whether the respiratory condition is acute or chronic.
VBG - provides a close approximation of pH, CO2 and bicarbonate to the ABG. |
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Define acute respiratory failure
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Hypoxia (pO2 < 50 mmHg) with or without associated hypercapnia (pCO2 > 45 mmHg).
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Describe the 2 types of respiratory failure
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Type I: respiratory failure without pCO2 retention. This is characterized by marked V/Q mismatch and intrapulmonary shunting. Examples include diffuse pneumonia, pulmonary edema, ARDS.
Type II: respiratory failure with pCO2 retention. This involves V/Q mismatch and inadequate alveolar ventilation. There are two categories of this type of respiratory failure: A. Patients with intrinsically normal lungs but with inadequate ventilation due to disorders of respiratory control (e.g. overdose, trauma, CNS disease), neuromuscular abnormalities (e.g. muscular dystrophy, Guillain-Barre, myasthenia), and chest wall trauma. B. Patients with intrinsic lung disease with V/Q mismatch and alveolar hypoventilation. Respiratory failure is precipitated by additional clinical insult, usually infection, which worsens the underlying disease. Examples include COPD, asthma, cystic fibrosis. |
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List options for oxygen therapy
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Nasal prongs - 2-6L per min, FiO2 of 25-40%
Face mask - 6-10L per min, FiO2 50-60% Oxygen reservoir mask - 10+L per min, FiO2 90% Bag valve mask device - FiO2 100%, manually supplement patients respiratory effort CPAP/BiPAP |
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Define shock
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Shock is defined as an abnormality of the circulatory system causing inadequate tissue perfusion which, if not corrected, will result in cell death
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Signs and symptoms of shock
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Altered mental status - agitated (early) -> obtunded (late)
Tachycardia Hypotension - insensitive marker, BP will not drop until blood loss in excess of 30% or 1.5L Orthostatic vitals Respiratory rate - in response to sympathetic tone and metabolic acidosis Skin - cool and pale, cyanosis Heart sounds - muffled in tamponade JVP - low (hypovolemia, sepsis), high (left ventricular failure, right heart problem) |
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Estimated BP based on palpation of radial, femoral, and carotid pulse
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Radial - 80 mmHg
Femoral - 70 mmHg Carotid - 60 mmHg |
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Describe capillary blanch test
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Capillary Blanch Test - a positive test occurs when a compressed nail bed takes >2 seconds to
pink up and is said to occur when there is acute blood loss in excess of 15% of total blood volume. |
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Describe classes of hemorrhagic shock
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Class I - blood loss < 750 mL, pulse < 100, BP normal, RR 14-20, replace with crystalloid
Class II - blood loss 750-1500 mL, pulse > 100, BP normal, RR 20-30, replace with crystalloid Class III - blood loss 1500-2000 mL, pulse > 120, BP decreased, RR 30-40, crystalloid + blood Class IV - blood loss > 2000 mL, pulse > 140, BP decreased, RR >35, crystalloid + blood |
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Describe the use of U/S in investigating shock
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ED ultrasound can rapidly detect intraabdominal hemorrhage, hyovolemia (IVC filling), pericardial tamponade, or RV dysfunction (PE).
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Describe general management of shock
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ABC's
O2 monitor Cardiac monitor IV access + type and cross match Serum lactate Folley catheter - urine output |
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Describe the 3:1 rule in shock
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You generally need to replace 3x the amount of blood lost to restore BP to the normal value
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Describe management of anaphylactic shock
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Epinephrine (IM; IV if cardiovascular collapse) Intravenous crystalloid
Antihistamines (H1 and H2 blockers) Corticosteroids Wheezing: Nebulized beta2 agonists Stridor: Nebulized epinephrine |
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Describe management of cardiogenic shock
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Inotropes
Intra-aortic balloon pump Emergency angioplasty |
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Describe management of tension pneumothorax
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Needle thoracostomy followed by chest tube
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Describe management of septic shock
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Intravenous crystalloid
Antibiotics Goal directed therapy in the ED decreases mortality in sepsis: -urine output >0.5 mL/kg/h -CVP 8 to12 mm Hg -MAP 65 to 90 mm Hg -ScvO2 >70% Definitive therapy (drainage of closed space infections, sugery). |
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Describe management of cardiac tamponade
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Intravenous crystalloid
Pericardiocentesis |
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Describe management of PE
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Intravenous crystalloid
Inotropes Thrombolysis or surgery |
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Etiology of coma
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"TIPS AEIOU"
Trauma/Temperature Infection (CNS or other) Poisoning/Psychiatric Space-occupying lesions/Stroke Alcohol/Acidosis Epilepsy (nonconvulsive status epilepticus, post-ictal state)/Endocrine Insulin (hypoglycemia, hyperglycemia) Oxygen (hypoxia) Uremia |
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Universal antidotes to give in a coma
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"DON'T"
Dextrose: one ampule D50W if low blood sugar Naloxone: 0.4 – 2mg IV or IM if opiate use is suspected, (often lower initial doses are used) Thiamine: 100mg IV if history of alcohol abuse or malnourished Note: Flumazenil (a benzodiazepine antagonist) is not indicated in the treatment of an undiagnosed coma patient |
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Describe a focused neurologic exam in coma patients |
GCS
Examine head and neck for contusions, lacerations, or signs of trauma (battle sign, racoon eyes, hemotympanium) Flex neck for meningismus Check pupils for reaction and symmetry (pupils are typically spared in metabolic and toxic syndromes) Extraocular movements (have patient follow a finger if awake enough, Doll‘s eye maneuver if no trauma) Check fundi for papilledema (late sign of increase ICP) Motor, sensory, reflexes |
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What do focal neurologic findings mean in a coma patient
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With rare exceptions, focal findings means a structural lesion. In particular, a dilated pupil on one side with weakness of the contralateral limbs indicates an expanding mass lesion on the side of the larger pupil. This occurs when the mass lesion is supratentorial and pushes or herniates the uncus of the temporal lobe through the tentorium (called coning). The oculomotor nerve, which runs adjacent to this, is compressed causing paralysis of the constrictor mechanism of the ipsilateral pupil.
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Describe the glasgow coma scale
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EYE OPENING - (4) spontaneous (3) to voice (2) to pain (1) none
VERBAL RESPONSE - (5) appropriate/oriented, (4) confused/disoriented (3) syllables, (2) grunts, (1) none MOTOR RESPONSE - (6) spontaneous, obeys commands (5) localizes pain, (4) withdraws to pain, (3) decorticate flexion, (2) decerebrate extension, (1) none |
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Define syncope
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Syncope is defined as a transient, self-limited loss of consciousness with an inability to maintain postural tone, followed by spontaneous recovery.
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Best diagnostic test in syncope
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12 lead ECG
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Etiology of syncope
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1/4 Cardiovascular - arrythmia, MI, sick sinus syndrome, AS, pacemaker malfunction, PE
1/4 Noncardiovasular - situational (eg. cough, defication), orthostatic (anemia, decreased volume, drugs, autonomic insufficiency), vasovagal 1/2 Unknown - |
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Important points on syncope Hx
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Presyncope activity, position, and symptoms
Duration of warning (longer = vasovagal) Duration of loss of consciousness Post syncopal symptoms Medications Family Hx (Heart Dz and unexplained death) |
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Physical exam in syncope
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Orthostatic BP
CVS exam (listen for aortic stenosis) CNS exam Stool for occult blood |
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Describe the San Francisco syncope rule for risk stratification in syncope
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1. History of CHF
2. Low Hematocrit 3. Abnormal ECG 4. History of Dyspnea 5. Systolic BP < 90 at triage. Any of these present and the patient is not in the low risk group. Admit these patients for observation along with older patients with sudden onset and those with cardiac etiology. |
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ECG findings in PE
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1. Sinus tachycardia
2. S1Q3T3: S wave in Lead 1, Q wave in lead 3, inverted T in lead 3. Inverted T waves in the precordial leads 4. RBBB indicating heart strain in large PE 5. Clockwise rotation with persistent S wave in V6, implies rotation of the heart secondary to right ventricular dilatation |
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% breakdown of headache etiology
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50% have tension headaches
10% migraines 30% benign nonspecific headaches 8% a headache emanating from a potentially serious cause. Less than 1% will have a life threatening reason for their headache such as a subarachnoid hemorrhage. |
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Pathophysiology of migraine
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Migraine headaches are believed to result from changes in the reactivity of blood vessels inside and outside of the skull.
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Triggers for migraine
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Alcohol [especially red wine], cheeses, chocolate, caffeine, MSG, stress, change in sleep patterns, oral contraceptives, certain phases of menstrual cycle, changes in weather
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Describe the International Headache Society Diagnostic Criteria for Common Migraine |
A: At least 2 of the following:
1. Moderate or severe intensity 2. Pulsating quality 3. Unilateral location 4. Inhibits or prohibits daily activities B: At least 1 of the following symptoms: 1. Nausea or vomiting 2. Phonophobia and photophobia C: Attacks have occurred: At least 5 times, AND Lasting 4-72 h each |
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List all migraine therapy options in the ED
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1. Tylenol, ASA, NSAIDs
2. Neuroleptics - chlorpromazine, haloperidol 3. Dopamine antagonists – metoclopramide (maxeran), prochlorperazine (stemetil) 4. Vasoactive medications – ergotamine (DHE), sumatriptan |
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Common migraine therapy
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5-10 mg prochlorperazine, repeated once in 30-60 minutes if needed, with the addition of an intravenous NSAID such as ketorolac
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Life threatening causes of head ache
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1. Subarachnoid Hemorrhage
2. Temporal Arteritis 3. Hypertensive Encephalopathy 4. Pseudotumour Cerebri 5. Carbon Monoxide Poisoning 6. Tumour 7. Meningitis/Encephalitis 8. Pre-eclampsia 9. Cervical Artery Dissection 10. Cerebral Venous Thrombosis 11. Acute angle closure glaucoma |
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Clinical features of subarachnoid headache
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-Sudden onset
-Often occurs with exertion (exercise, intercourse) -Usually severe (worst headache of my life) -Most severe at onset -Frequently associated with nausea and vomiting -Look for: pupillary changes, meningismus, altered level of consciousness, focal deficits (NB: Initially may have normal neurological examination) |
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Diagnostic tests in suspected SAH
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CT scan - perform in 6 hours window for 100% sensitivity, sensitivity decreases with time
If a patient with a suspected SAH has a normal CT scan and is beyond the 6 hour window, then a LP must be performed to look for blood in the CSF (sensitivity 100% up to 14 days) |
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Causes of raised ICP
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Tumour
Brain Abscess Intracerebral hemorrhage |
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Features of raised ICP
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-Worsening of the headache when supine or bending down; frequently worse in the a.m.
-Neurological symptoms and focal findings including cranial nerve abnormalities -Subtle, gradual changes in mood, cognition, behaviour, memory -Absence of vomiting and photophobia |
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Features of meningitis
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-Gradual onset of headache over hours to days
-Fever -Altered level of consciousness -Evidence of a focus of infection (intra or extra- cranial) -Meningismus |
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When can LP safely be performed in suspected meningitis
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LP may safely be performed without CT scanning in patients with normal mental status, no focal neurologic signs, and no papilledema.
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When should antibiotics be started in suspected meningitis
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Antibiotics should be administered before obtaining a CT scan or awaiting LP results; standard of care is to administer antibiotics within one hour of suspecting the diagnosis of meningitis.
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Clinical features of temporal arteritis
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-Middle-aged to elderly
-Gradual onset of headache over days -May have visual changes (but not universal) -Localized headache and tenderness in the temporal region |
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Red flag features on history in headache
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-Sudden onset
-Most severe headache, or unlike previous headaches -New onset of headache at age 50 or older -Associated neurological symptoms |
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Red flag features on physical exam in headache
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-Pupillary changes
-Altered level of consciousness -Abnormal vital signs, especially temperature -Meningeal irritation -Focal neurologic signs |
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Differentiate somatic vs visceral pain
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Somatic pain - precisely located, sharp, piercing, arises from dermal pain fibres that enter the spinal cord at a single level
Visceral pain - poorly localized, less distinct, dull, aching, pressure, arises from internal organ pain fibres that enter the spinal cord at multiple levels (T1-T6 for organs of the thorax or upper abdomen) |
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Big 5 acute life threatening causes of chest pain
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1. Myocardial Infarction
2. Pulmonary Embolism 3. Aortic Dissection 4. Tension Pneumothorax 5. Esophageal Rupture |
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DDx for chest pain
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CV: MI*, aortic dissection*, cardiac tamponade*, pericarditis, myocarditis, endocarditis, arrhythmias
Resp: PE*, tension pneumothorax*, infections (pneumonia, bronchitis) GI: esophageal rupture*, pancreatitis, biliary colic, GERD, esophageal spasm MSK: costochondritis, rib fractures Psych: panic attack (diagnosis of exclusion) Other: shingles |
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History in patients with chest pain
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Characteristics of pain - OPQRST
Hx of trauma Medications (including cocaine) Cardiac risk factors PE risk factors Past and present significant illnesses, medications, allergies, drugs, smoking and alcohol use. |
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Placement of chest tube in pneumothorax
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Thoracostomy with placement of one or more chest tubes, usually inserted in the 4th of 5th costal interspace at the anterior or mid axillary line
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Landmark for needle decompression in tension pneumothorax |
Needle decompression is performed at the 2nd intercostal space at the midclavicular line
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Can reproducible chest pain be used to rule out MI
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Reproducible chest wall pain is seen in up to 15% of MI. Tenderness on forceful palpation does not rule out an ACS.
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Life threatening causes of abdominal pain
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Intra-abdominal
-Ischemic bowel (middle age to elderly) -Abdominal aortic aneurysm; dissection, leakage, rupture (middle age to elderly) -Hepatic or splenic injury (blunt trauma) -Perforated viscus -Acute pancreatitis -Intestinal obstruction Extra-abdominal -Ectopic pregnancy (female of child bearing age) -Myocardial infarction |
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DDx for abdominal pain (intra-abdominal)
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Peritoneal inflammation -
Obstruction of hollow viscus - intestine, biliary tree, ureter Vascular disorder - bowle ischemia, AAA |
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DDx for abdominal pain (extra-abdominal)
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Abdominal wall - contusions, hematoma, muscle strain, trauma
Pelvic - ectopic pregnancy, salpingitis, torsion/rupture of ovarian cyst, testicular torsion Intrathoracic - myocardial infarction, pneumonia, pulmonary embolus, esophageal disease Metabolic - DKA, sickle cell crisis Neurogenic - preeruptive phase of herpes zoster, spinal disc disease |
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Describe how location can provide clues towards the diagnosis of abdominal pain
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-diverticulitis - left lower quadrant
-appendicitis - periumbilical, then right lower quadrant -cholelithiasis, cholecystitis - right upper quadrant -pancreatitis - epigastric, periumbilical |
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Descibe symptoms that suggest peritonitis |
Pain increased with coughing, driving over bumps
in the road |
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Which test is more specific for pancreatitis, amylase or lipase
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Lipase
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Tests to order in abdominal pain
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CBC + dif
Urinalysis Serum lipase/amylase bHCG Electrolytes, creatinine, urea are important in patients with vomiting and diarrhea Alkaline phosphatase and bilirubin may be elevated with cholecystitis and obstructive biliary tract disease ECG |
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Indications for CT in abdominal pain
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-trauma
-suspected ruptured or leaking aortic aneurysm -pancreatitis -urolithiasis, renal colic (non-contrast) -diverticulitis -appendicitis |
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Most Common Causes of surgical abdomen in the Elderly
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1. Cholecystitis
2. Bowel Obstruction 3. Appendicitis |
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Spinal causes of back pain
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1. Cauda Equina & Spinal Cord Compression (cancer spinal metastasis, central disc herniation)
2. Osteomyelitis - infection of bone or bone marrow 3. Transverse Myelitis - inflammation of spinal cord |
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Vascular causes of back pain |
1. Aortic dissection
2. Rupturing abdominal aortic aneurysm 3. Pulmonary embolism 4. Myocardial infarction 5. Retroperitoneal bleed |
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Red flags in back pain
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1. Constitutional symptoms including fever (cancer, epidural abscess, osteomyelitis)
2. IV drug use (epidural abscess, osteomyelitis) 3. Immunocompromised status including corticosteroid use (epidural abscess, osteomyelitis) 4. Pain worse at night (cancer) 5. Urinary retention or incontinence; or fecal incontinence (cauda equina) 6. History of cancer (spinal metastasis) 7. Spinous process tenderness (spinal causes as above) 8. Saddle‘ parasthesia or anesthesia (cauda equina syndrome) 10. Neurologic deficit 11. Anticoagulant use or bleeding disorder (epidural hematoma) |
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Cancer most likely to metastasize to the spine
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Prostate, lung and breast
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Treatment of cauda equina and spinal cord compression in the ED
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1. IV opioids
2. IV dexamethasone, especially if cord compression from tumour is suspected 3. Neurosurgery consult |
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What tests can be done before MRI in patients suspected of spinal cord compression or cauda equina syndrome
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Post void residual volume. If > 200 mL spinal cord compression is more likely. If less than 100 mL spinal cord compression is less likely.
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Define chronic pain |
Chronic pain is defined as pain that persists for 6 months or more or pain that lasts beyond the expected point of resolution of tissue damage.
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What is the annual risk of bleeding if NSAIDs are used continuously? 2 month risk?
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NSAIDS used continuously have an annual 4 percent risk of gastrointestinal perforations, ulcers or bleeds.
Taking an NSAID for two months or more carries a one in five risk of an endoscopically proven ulcer and a one in one hundred and fifty risk of a bleeding ulcer. |
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What IV NSAIDs are available in Canada?
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The lone intravenous NSAID available in Canada is ketorolac (Toradol). Ketorolac is effective for pain due to fractures, inflammatory conditions, renal colic, migraine headaches and sickle cell pain. The dosage of ketorolac is 30-60 mg/dose IM.
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Describe metabolities and excretion of morphine
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Morphine-6-glucuronide (M6G) is the active metabolite of morphine, while morphine-3- glucuronide (M3G) may be responsible for neurotoxic adverse effects such as hyperalgesia and myoclonus. Both metabolites are excreted by the kidney. Both metabolites accumulate with higher doses, renal impairment, oral route of administration and increasing age.
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Dose of morphine and hydromorphone
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For rapid control of acute pain, titrate morphine by intermittent IV bolus doses at 2-3 mg every 5 minutes as needed with no limitation on the number of bolus doses given. Hydromorphone may be administered at a dosage of 0.25-0.5 mg IV q 5 minutes as needed or 1-2 mg IV q3-4 h prn
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Dose of Fentanyl
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0.5μg/kg q5-10 mins until the patient is comfortable.
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Advantages of Fentanyl over morphine
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No active metabolites
No histamine release or nausea Can be used in patients with morphine allergy |
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What anti-nausea medications can be paired with morphine
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1. dimenhydrinate (Gravol®) 25-50 mg IV or 50 mg
IM q4h PRN 2. ondansetron (Zofran®) 8 mg or 0.15 mg/kg IV 3. prochlorperazine (Stemetil®) 10 mg IV or by suppository, or 10-20 mg IM q8h PRN |
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Downside of codeine
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For codeine to be effective it must be metabolized to morphine. Six to ten percent of individuals are unable to metabolize codeine and are thus unable to derive analgesic benefit from the drug.
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Formulation of Percocet
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Acetominophen + oxycodone
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Describe how opioid doses change in the elderly
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Sensitivity of the elderly brain to fentanyl is increased by 50%. The dosage of morphine and fentanyl may be 2-4 fold times lower in that age group.
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Describe pain management in osteoporotic vertebral compression fractures
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Calcitonin has been shown to relieve pain associated with osteoporotic vertebral compression fractures. The recommended dosage is 200 IU per day IM or 400 IU per day by nasal spray (1x 200 IU spray per nostril).
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How effective is reperfusion therapy in decreasing mortality in MI
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Reperfusion therapy (pharmacological or mechanical) decreases mortality by 25 to 50 %, and improves left ventricular function
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Symptoms of acute MI
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-crushing retrosternal chest pain
-radiation of pain to arm or jaw (right arm more specific) -diaphoresis -nausea/vomiting -dyspnea |
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Common presentation of MI in the elderly
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Presentation in the elderly is often without pain and diaphoresis, but with an increased frequency of neurological symptoms such as syncope, stroke, acute confusion, and weakness as the presenting complaint.
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Describe the Killip classification of hemodynamic status in MI |
Killip l: well perfused, chest clear
Killip ll: some pulmonary congestion (orthopnea, crackles) Killip lll: pulmonary edema (severe shortness of breath, crackles above scapulae) Killip lV: poor perfusion, cardiogenic shock |
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ECG findings in acute MI
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-increase in R wave voltage, usually in the precordial leads (early)
-hyperacute T waves, usually in the precordial leads and over 10mm (early) -ST segment elevation (early) -Q waves (hours later) |
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Describe how ECG findings can help localize the area of infarction
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II, III, AVF - inferior
V1-V3 - anteroseptal 1, AVL, V4 –V6 - lateral V1-V6 - anterolateral V8,V9 - posterior |
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Causes of ST elevation
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-pericarditis
-hyperkalemia -LV aneurysm -LBBB -LVH -hypothermia. |
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Why is chest x-ray performed in patients with suspected MI
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R/O aortic dissection - look for a widened mediastinum and a pleural effusion
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How long after the onset of symptoms will patients with MI have a rise in troponin
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Troponin will not be positive for at least 2 to 6 hours. Serial troponin must be done 6-9 hours after arrival.
Troponin peaks at 12-24 hours after infarction. |
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Causes of elevated troponin
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MI
Renal failure Sepsis |
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Describe complications of acute MI
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-Arrhythmias
-Conduction disturbances - AV blocks -LV pump failure - cardiogenic shock, assess Killip status -Mechanical defects - cardiac rupture, VSD, papillary muscle dysfunction -Thromboembolism - can be prevented with heparin -Pericarditis - occurs 5-7 days following an acute MI |
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How effective is aspirin in decreasing mortality in MI
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2-4 baby aspirin chewed decreased mortality up to 21%
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Describe caution that must be taken in inferior MI
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Right ventricular infarctions occur in approximately 1/3 of all inferior MI's, suggesting more proximal occlusions of their right coronary artery. Right ventricular (RV) ischemia results in decreased RV stroke volume, impairing filling of the left ventricle. Cardiac output is reduced, and systemic BP drops. It is therefore critically important to avoid drugs that result in venodilatation if the patient might have RV infarction. These patients are preload dependent, and drugs such as NTG may precipitate dramatic hypotension. Suspect RV infarction on all patients with inferior MI's. Do right-sided precordial leads (specifically V4R) looking for ST elevation.
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What is the time window for performing thrombolysis in acute MI
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Ideally the first hour or two after the onset of symptoms. Thrombolytic therapy may be beneficial up to 12 hours after symptom onset, early therapy achieves maximal myocardial salvage and helps preserve left ventricular function.
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Indications and mechanism of action for thrombolytics in MI |
Thrombolytics activate plasminogen to lyse clot.
They are indicated for all acute infarcts with ST elevation >1mm in two contiguous leads They are not indicated if the ECG is normal or shows ST segment depression. |
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Contraindications to thrombolytic therapy
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-recent major surgery or any active internal bleeding
-history of hemorrhagic strokes, or any recent stroke -severe uncontrolled hypertension -known intracranial neoplasm, AVM, or aneurysm -suspected aortic dissection |
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Describe treatment recommendations regarding reperfusion therapy in STEMI
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1. Patients presenting to a hospital with PCI capability should be treated with primary PCI within 90 minutes
2. Patients presenting to a hospital without PCI capability and who cannot be transferred to a PCI centre and undergo PCI within 90 minutes of first medical contact should be treated with fibrinolytic therapy within 30 minutes of hospital presentation. |
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At what point should heparin be given to patients with STEMI
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Following thrombolytics, heparin is indicated to prevent rethrombosis. It should be initiated immediately following the thrombolytic.
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Advantages of LMWH over unfractionated heparin
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-more predictable anticoagulant effect
-no need for PTT monitoring -lower rates of thrombocytopenia -better bioavailability |
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At what point should clopidogrel be given to patients with STEMI
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Dose for patients 75 and under: 300 mg as adjunctive therapy to TNK; 600 mg as adjunctive therapy to PCI.
The earlier the clopidogrel is given the better. |
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Describe the pathophysiology of heart failure
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-cardiac output decreases, reflex arterial vasoconstriction redistributes blood flow so that the brain and heart remain well perfused
-drop in renal blood flow activates the renin- angiotensin-aldosterone system, causing increased sodium and fluid retention -decreased cardiac output also results in an increase in left atrial and left ventricle filling pressures, which is in turn reflected in elevated pulmonary capillary pressures -elevated pressure causes pulmonary edema. |
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How do you differentiate systolic from diastolic dysfunction in CHF
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Systolic - low cardiac output, ejection fraction <40%, dilated LV, poor contractility, fatigue, lethargy, hypotension
Diastolic - impaired ventricular compliance, ejection fraction >40%, backward failure, dyspnea, peripheral edema, ascites, |
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Causes of congestive heart failure
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-Coronary artery disease |
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Precipitants of acute CHF
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Cardiac - infarction, tachy/bradyarrhythmias, mechanical complications of acute MI
Drugs - beta-blocker, CCB, NSAIDs, steroids Dietary - increased Na High output - anemia, infection, pregnancy, hyperthyroidism Other - iatrogenic fluid overload, renal failure, hypertensive crisis, drug/alcohol |
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Symptoms of congestive heart failure
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-Dyspnea
-Orthopnea, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea -Cough, wheezing -Fatigue, generalized weakness -Edema of lower limbs, increased abdominal girth |
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Physical exam findings in congestive heart failure
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-Tachypnea, tachycardia, hypertension or hypotension, hypoxia |
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Chest x-ray findings in acute congestive heart failure
|
-cardiomegaly
-increase in prominence of upper lung fields (pulmonary vascular redistribution) -interstitial edema and obliteration of vasculature structures -kerley B lines (1-2 cm lines perpendicular to the pleura and continuous with it, representing edematous septal lines) -pleural effusions (usually absent in acute pulmonary edema) |
|
Investigations to be done in CHF
|
-CXR
-ECG -troponin -BNP -renal function -electrolytes (hyponatremia) |
|
Treatment of acute congestive heart failure
|
-Nitroglycerin 0.4 mg sublingual q 5 min. (if sBP >
100) +/- Nitrodur 0.4 - 0.8 mg/hr topical -Furosemide 40 - 100 mg IV (if sBP > 100), if no response double dose -CPAP or BiPAP if hypoxic on 100% O2 -if sBP <90 and no shock give dobutamine (milrinone if taking beta-blocker), if sings of shock give dopamine |
|
DDx for PEA, Asystole, Ventricular Fibrillation, and Ventricular Tachycardia
|
H's and T's
Hypovolemia H+ (acidosis) Hypothermia Hypo/Hyperkalemia Hypoxia Tension pneumothorax Toxins Tamponade cardiac Thrombosis cardiac Thrombosis pulmonary |
|
Describe drug therapy during cardiac arrest
|
epinephrine IV 1 mg every 3-5 minutes
amiodarone IV 300 mg bolus |
|
What should be done for narrow complex tachycardia that is symptomatic but stable
|
Synchronized cardioversion
OR Adenosine 6 mg rapid IV push |
|
What antiarrhythmics should be used in stable wide-QRS tachycardia.
|
procainamide
amiodarone sotalol |
|
Treatment of persistant symptomatic bradycardia
|
Atropine
Dopamine Epinephrine |
|
Describe the stanford classification of aortic dissection
|
Stanford type A dissections involve the ascending aorta, where type B dissections are more distal. Type A dissections are more common and are associated with increased mortality.
|
|
Risk factors for aortic dissection
|
-Male
-Elderly (>65 years) -History of hypertension -Pregnancy -Family or personal history of aneurysm or dissection -Connective tissue disease (Marfan‘s, or Ehlers- Danlos syndromes) -Cocaine use -Congenital bicuspid aortic valve |
|
History and physical in aortic dissection
|
History: sudden onset chest pain felt maximally at onset, hypertension, chest pain + syncope, abdominal pain, or ischemic symptoms to lower extremitiy
Physical: aortic regurgitation murmor, pulse differential between carotid, radial and femoral |
|
Chest x-ray findings in aortic dissection
|
-left pleural effusion
-wide mediastinum -aortic calcification >5mm from the outside of the expanded aortic contour |
|
Management of aortic dissection
|
-analgesia
-blood pressure control - labetolol titrated to target BP of 120/80 and sodium nitroprusside adjuvant -Stafford type A - surgical management -Stafford type B - medical management |
|
Risk factors for AAA
|
-Hypertension |
|
History in AAA
|
-sudden onset abdominal, back, or flank pain
-syncope (due to transient hypotension) -unexplained hypotension |
|
Physical exam in AAA
|
-palpable aorta (majority infrarenal, palpable just above aorta)
-diminished femoral pulses -signs of distal micro-embolism "blue toe syndrome" |
|
Investigations in AAA
|
-ED ultrasound - AAA if > 3cm, can not determine if ruptured because most ruptures are retroperitoneal
-CT scan |
|
Classic history in arterial occlusion
|
6 P's
-Parasthesia -Pain -Pallor -Pulselessness -Poikilothermia (cool to touch) -Paralysis |
|
Virchow's triad.
|
-venous stasis
-injury to the vessel wall -hypercoagulable state |
|
Risk factors for venous thrombosis
|
"THROMBOSIS"
T - Trauma, travel H - Hypercoagulable, hormone replacement R - Recreational drugs (IV drugs) O - Old (age > 60) M - Malignancy B - Birth control pill O - Obesity, obstetrics S - Surgery, smoking I - Immobilization S - Sickness (CHF/MI, nephrotic syndrome, IBD, vasculitis) |
|
Classic features of DVT
|
-pain
-redness -swelling -warmth -tenderness |
|
Investigations in suspected DVT
|
-doppler ultrasound (gold standard), if neg. but moderate/high risk proceed to d-dimer or repeat U/S in 7 days. If neg and neg d-dimer DVT is ruled out.
-computed tomographic venography |
|
Management of PE or proven DVT
|
-early ambulation
-analgesia -LMWH (eg. enoxaprin) or fondaparinux. Continued until warfarin is therapeutic for 2 days -warfarin (started at same time as LMWH and continued for 3 months if known cause, 6 months if unknown etiology) -if massive PE thrombolytics can be used |
|
Classic triad of PE
|
-Pleuritic chest pain
-Hemoptysis -Dyspnea |
|
Well's Criteria
|
Clinical signs of DVT - 3.0
Alternative diagnosis less likely than PE - 3.0 Heart rate > 100 - 1.5 Immobilization or surgery within 4 weeks - 1.5 Previous DVT/PE - 1.5 Hemoptysis - 1.0 Malignancy (ongoing treatment/palliative) - 1.0 |
|
What is the PERC rule? How is it applied?
|
Pulmonary Embolism Rule-Out Criteria (‘PERC’ Rule) |
|
DDx for SOB and wheezing
|
Asthma, COPD, CHF, upper airway obstruction, pneumonia, ACS, and PE
|
|
Define pulsus paradoxus. Which diseases is it a sign of?
|
Abnormally large decrease in sBP during inspiration >10 mmHg.
Cardiac tamponade, pericarditis, chronic sleep apnea, COPD, asthma. |
|
Investigations in asthma and COPD
|
-peak expiratory flow rate – helps determine severity and guide therapy
-consider CXR -consider ECG/cardiac workup -ABG if deteriorating (pCO2 level indicates severity and fatigue) |
|
Treatment of acute asthma
|
1. Oxygen - titrated to at least 92%
2. Salbutamol (Ventolin) 3. Ipratropium (Atrovent) 4. Steroids (Prednisone 40-60mg PO) 5. Magnesium sulfate - 2g IV over 20 mins 6. Assisted ventilation |
|
Which patients are safe to discharge home following an asthma attack
|
FEV1 > 60% predicted - generally safe to discharge
FEV1 40-60% predicted - discharge possible based on risk factors for recurrance FEV1 <40% - admit |
|
Discharge instructions following asthma attack
|
-SABA (salbutamol) 2- 4 puffs q4h, then prn once symptoms controlled and return if use required more than q1-2h
-Oral corticosteroids for patients with moderate to severe attack - prednisone 30-60 mg/day for 7-14 days (no need to taper) ICS – Beclomethasone or Budesonide (500-1000 ug/d) or continue inhaled steroid (if patient already on inhaled steroid) |
|
Symptoms of COPD exacerbation
|
-Dyspnea
-Cough -Sputum production |
|
Investigations in acute exacerbation of COPD
|
CXR, ECG, ABG, CBC, and routine biochemistry
Spirometry is not useful in managing acute exacerbations |
|
Treatment of COPD exacerbation
|
-O2 - saturation targeted at 88-92%, PaO2 60-65 mmHg
-Inhaled B2 agonist (Salbutamol) – 2.5-5 mg via nebulizer q15min x3 prn +/- anticholinergic (Ipratropium) – 500ug via nebulizer q15min x3 prn -prednisone 50 mg OD -antibiotics if all 3 symptoms, 2 if sputum present (Levoquin) -CPAP or BiPAP |
|
Common causes of upper GI bleeding
|
75% PUD, gastric erosions, and verices
1. Peptic Ulcer Disease - H.pylori or NSAIDS 2. Varices (esophageal or gastric) 3. Mallory-Weiss tears 4. Gastritis 5. Esophagitis |
|
Define esophagitis. What are the causes? |
Inflammation of the esophagus producing symptoms of nausea and heartburn.
Causes - infectious (fungal, viral), reflux esophagitis, chemical or pill, eosinophilic esophagitis |
|
Common causes of lower GI bleeding
|
80% diverticulosis and angiodysplasia
1. Diverticulosis 2. Angiodysplasia (dilated tortuous submucosal vessels) 3. Neoplasm 4. Inflammatory bowel disease 5. Anorectal disease (proctitis,hemorrhoids, fissures) |
|
Common causes of LGIB in children less than 2
|
Meckel's diverticulum
Intussiception |
|
Presentation of chronic GI bleed
|
Anemia, chest pain, shortness of breath, or fatigue
|
|
History in GI bleed
|
-symptoms or risks for GI bleeding
-protracted wretching or vomiting -features of malignancy -previous GI bleeds and their cause -presence of liver disease or alcohol use -surgical history (AAA repair or peptic ulcer surgery) -medication review (especially anticoagulants such as coumadin, ASA, clopidogrel (Plavix), dabigatran (Pradax), NSAIDS) |
|
Investigations in suspected GI bleed
|
-CBC
-PTT/INR -group + screen (consider cross and type) -BUN/Cr ( BUN/creatinine ratio > 10:1 is suggestive of UGIB) -LFT |
|
Management of GI bleed
|
-2 large bore IV's
-Type and cross match blood. Transfuse young, healthy people if still unstable after 2 L NS or HgB < 70. Transfuse elderly if HgB < 100. -If INR > 1.5 give FFP + vit K or prothrombin complex concentrate (octaplex) + vit K -PPI for suspected UGIB - pantoloc 80 mg IV -Octreotide (sandostatin) or vasopressin for esophageal vadrices -Endoscopy or colonscopy |
|
What % of strokes are ischemic vs hemorrhagic
|
Ischemic 80%
Hemorrhagic 20% |
|
Define TIA
|
A transient episode of neurological dysfunction caused by focal brain, spinal cord, or retinal ischemia, without acute infarction
|
|
Symptoms of a stroke
|
-abrupt onset, focal symptoms.
-arm, leg, or face numbness or weakness -speech disturbance or difficulty understanding speech -vision disturbance, especially in one eye -severe headache -vertigo |
|
Feature that make stroke less likely
|
-decreased level of consciousness
-gradual onset -fluctuating signs -fever -no focal signs |
|
Blood pressure guidelines in stroke
|
Only lower if BP >220/120 or > 185/110 if using tPA.
Do not treat too aggressively as it may lead to under perfusion of the punumbra. |
|
Management of stroke
|
-tPA (alteplase) if ischemic and within 4.5 hours
-ASA, Plavix, Aggrenox as soon as hemorrhagic stroke ruled out |
|
Exclusion criteria for receiving tPA in ischemic stroke
|
-History of intracranial hemorrhage at any time
-Serious head trauma in past 3 months -Major surgery in the past 2 weeks -Non-compressible arterial puncture in past 7 days -INR > 1.7, or platelets <100,000 -Blood glucose <2.7 or >22.2 |
|
Describe the ABCD2 score. What is it used for?
|
Estimates risk of stroke after TIA. Admit patients with a score of 5 or 6. |
|
Describe the CHADS2-Vasc score. What is it used for?
|
CHADS2 score estimates stroke risk in patients with AFIB
CHF (1) HTN (1) Age >75 (2), 65-74 (1) Diabetes (1) Stroke or TIA previously (2) Sex (female) (1) Vascular disease - MI or peripheral arterial disease (1) |
|
How should the CHADS2-Vasc be interpretted.
|
If score 0, patients should receive daily ASA
If score 1, patients may receive either warfarin or dabigatran or ASA If score 2 or greater, patients should receive either warfarin or dabigatran |
|
Define seizure
|
A seizure is a clinical manifestation of abnormal neurologic function caused by aberrant electrical firing of neurons in the brain. |
|
Define status epilepticus
|
Continuous or intermittent seizure activity for more than 5 minutes without regaining consciousness
|
|
Etiology of status epilepticus
|
Withdrawal - anticonvulsants, EtOH, benzo, barbituates
Toxins - anticholingerics, sympathomimetics, ASA, lithium, lidocaine, isonazid Structural - brain tumor, ICH, stroke Cerebral injury - infection, trauma, hypoxia Metabolic - hypoglycemia, hypo/hypernatremia, hypocalcemia, lactic acidosis, uremia Ecclampsia |
|
Investigations in status epilepticus
|
-Immediate bedside glucose level
-CBC, electrolytes, anticonvulsant drug levels, venous blood gas, calcium, Mg, ETOH level, serum salicylates, urine toxicology screen -ECG, LP, CT head and other imaging must be deferred until seizure activity has stopped |
|
Treatment of status epilepticus
|
-Lorazepam: 2-4mg IV q2min, up to 0.1 mg/kg IV, maximum 8–10 mg
-If seizure fails to resolve in 5-10 minutes start a second IV and give Phenytoin 20 mg/kg IV administered at a rate of 25-50 mg/min (may repeat 10mg/kg dose once to total dose 30 mg/kg) *must be run in separate IV line -Phenobarbital 20 mg/kg IV at 50 mg/min -Propofol: 2-5 mg/kg IV loading dose and then 2- 10 mg/kg/hr |
|
Blood tests to differentiate pseudoseizure from status epilepticus
|
Patients with SE will develop a transient physiologic leucocytosis, elevation of serum lactate and prolactin levels. These markers will not be elevated in patients with pseudoseizures.
|
|
Most common side effects of benzodiazapens
|
Respiratory depression and confusion
|
|
Management of agitated patient
|
lorazepam (Ativan) 0.5-2 mg PO
haloperidol (Haldol) 2-10 mg IM, can be given with lorazepam in same syringe |
|
Definition of diabetic ketoacidosis
|
DKA is characterized by the triad of hyperglycemia, ketosis, and acidosis.
One of the more widely accepted criteria of DKA is serum Glucose > 16, pH <7.30, and Bicarbonate <18. |
|
What causes the acidosis in DKA
|
As blood glucose rises, the renal glucose threshold is reached and glucose is excreted into the urine, leading to an osmotic diuresis. This diuresis in turn, leads to losses of glucose, electrolytes, and water, potentially causing dehydration, poor tissue perfusion and lactic acid production.
|
|
Causes of DKA
|
1. Lack of insulin (initial presentation of diabetes, non compliance, under dosing)
2. Infection 3. Myocardial infarction 4. Pulmonary embolism 5. Stroke 6. Pancreatitis 7. Substance abuse 8. Medications (steroids) 9. Trauma 10. Surgery |
|
Typical presentation of DKA
|
Polydipsia, polyuria
Nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain Signs of decreased volume - tachycardia, hypotension, tachypnea, flat JVP, poor skin turgor |
|
Investigations in DKA and HHS
|
CBC, electrolytes, creatinine
Glucose, serum and urine ketones, serum osmolality Liver function tests, amylase, calcium, magnesium, phosphate, troponin and an EKG and a blood gas. |
|
Difference in pH of venous and arterial blood gas
|
Venous blood gas pH levels are approx. 0.03 units lower than ABG pH levels
|
|
Treatment of DKA and HHS
|
1. Fluid resuscitation
2. Glucose control with Insulin 3. Correction of potassium Long form: 1. Fluids - total body water loss is estimated at 5-8L or 100mL/kg in a typical adult male with DKA. Generally speaking, half of the fluid deficit should be replaced in the first 8 hours while the remainder is infused over the next 16 hours. When the serum glucose falls to approximately 16 mmol/L, the intravenous fluid should be changed to a dextrose containing solution 2. Insulin - can not be given in K is < 3.3 mmol/L. Give 0.1 U/kg/hr of insulin IV. Goal is to lower the blood glucose by 3-5 mmol/L per hour. Measure glucose ever 30-60 minutes. Once glucose falls below 14 mmol/L switch to subcutaneous insulin. 3. Potassium - f the K is between 3.3-5.0mmol/L, administer 20-30 mmol/L of KCl with each liter of fluid. If the K is > 5.0, no K is given and it should be rechecked in 2 hours. If the K is <3.3, hold the insulin and give 40 mmol/L KCL in the 1st hr and then 20-30 mmol/L in an effort to keep the K between 4-5. |
|
Describe psuedohyponatremia as it relates to DKA
|
Pseudohyponatremia - for every increase in serum glucose by 10 mmol/L (above normal ~ 6 mmol/L), the true serum sodium is actually about 3 mmol/L higher than the measured value.
|
|
Define hyperosmolar hyperglycemia state (HHS)
|
HHS is seen predominantly in type 2 diabetics and is generally defined by the presence of: serum glucose > 33.3 mmol/L, pH>7.3, bicarbonate >15, anion gap <12, serum osmolality >320 mOsm/kg, and the absence of serum ketones. |
|
What is the key distinguishing feature between DKA and HHS
|
The key distinguishing feature between HHS and DKA is the absence of serum ketones.
|
|
Whipple's triad of hypoglycemia
|
1. Low plasma glucose
2. Symptoms suggestive of hypoglycemia 3. Prompt resolution of symptoms with administration of glucose. |
|
Causes of hypoglycemia
|
Excessive insulin use, alcohol intoxication, sepsis, liver disease, or the use of oral anti-hyperglycemics (i.e. sulfonylureas) |
|
Symptoms of hypoglycemia
|
Autonomic - diaphoresis, nausea, hunger, tachycardia and palpitations.
Neuroglycopenic - headaches, confusion, seizures, and coma. |
|
Treatment of hypoglycemia in the ED
|
IV D50 (dextrose 50%) at 1g per kg, typically starting with 1 ampoule (50g).
|
|
Area affected by anterior and posterior epistaxis
|
Anterior epistaxis (90%) - Kiesselbach‘s plexus (Little‘s area) on the anterior-inferior nasal septum.
Posterior epistaxis - posterior branch of the sphenopalatine artery (Woodruff's area). |
|
Treatment of anterior epistaxis
|
1. Compress the soft, cartilaginous part of the nose for 10-15 minutes.
2. Place an anterior pack with lidocaine + epi on soaked pledgets. To be removed in 48-72 hours. 3. Give anti-Staph antibiotics (cloxacillin or cephalexin) to prevent sinusitis or TSS if placing anterior packing. |
|
Which of the complications of group A Strep can be prevented with antiobiotic therapy
|
Antibiotics prevent acute rheumatic fever but not post-strep glomerulonephritis
|
|
Signs and symptoms of epiglottitis
|
-prodrome of typical URTI
-severe sore throat, dysphagia, odynophagia and muffled voice -tenderness to palpation of the hyoid bone and the larynx -thumb print sign on lateral x-ray |
|
Treatment of epiglottitis
|
1. Airway management involving ENT, ICU or anaesthesia
2. ceftriaxone 1 g IV |
|
When should you consider epiglottitis
|
Consider epiglottitis when the patient has a severe
sore throat or looks toxic, and the pharyngeal exam is unimpressive |
|
Describe the Centor criteria for Strep pharyngitis
|
1. Presence of fever >38 C
2. Tonsillar exudates 3. Swollen anterior cervical lymph nodes 4. Absence of cough |
|
Most common orbital bone fractured
How is diagnosis confirmed |
Infraorbital bone |
|
Which lacerations around the eye should be referred to an opthomalogist
|
Lacerations through the tarsal plate or the lacrimal apparatus and lacerations that involve the lid margin.
|
|
How can corneal abrasions be detected
|
Fluorescein stain and cobalt blue filter
|
|
Symptoms of corneal abrasion
|
Painful red eye, foreign body sensation and mild photophobia.
|
|
Treatment of corneal abrasion
|
-topical antibiotics (such as polymyxin B/trimethoprim drops or fusithalmic ointment)
-pain relief with either topical NSAID drops (like diclofenac or ketorolac) or oral narcotics. -do not use tetracaine drops or eye patch |
|
Define hyphema. What is the initial treatment?
|
Blood in the anterior chamber. Usually see a blood layer inferiorly.
Treatment involves protecting the eye with an eye shield and referral to an ophthalmologist. They will be followed on a daily basis until resolution to detect complications such as secondary glaucoma, corneal staining, or secondary rebleeding. |
|
Signs and symptoms of post traumatic glacoma
|
-Intense eye pain or headache, nausea and vomiting, mild photophobia, and decreased vision.
-fixed mid-dilated pupil, injected conjunctiva, a cloudy cornea, decreased visual acuity, and an increase in intraocular pressure (usually >40) |
|
When should retinal detachment be suspected
|
If the patient complains of new floaters and flashes of light or a visual deficit often described as a curtain falling over the visual field of the affected eye.
|
|
Treatment of acute angle glaucoma
|
1. Topical pilocarpine
2. Topical timolol 3. I V acetozolamide 4. IV mannitol 5. Laser iridotomy. |
|
Typical presentation of optic neuritis. What is it associated with?
|
Young women between the ages of 20-40 who present with a decrease in their vision as well as retroocular pain and pain with eye movement.
Optic neuritis is the presenting complaint in 50% of cases of MS |
|
Causes of painless vision loss
|
-retinal detachment
-central retinal artery or vein occlusion -amaurosis fugax (TIA of retinal artery) -occipital stroke |
|
What percent of patients with nephrolithiasis have microscopic or gross hematuria?
|
70-90%
|
|
What causes falsely elevated serum
|
Hemolysis of sample |
|
Most common causes of hyperkalemia
|
Renal failure (missed dialysis)
Medications (ACEi, NSAIDs, K sparing diuretics, succinylcholine, digoxin) Acute acidosis Cell death (trauma, burns, crush injuries) Increased K intake (supplements) |
|
Presentation of hyperkalemia
|
Generally nonspecific or asymptomatic |
|
ECG changes in hyperkalemia
|
1. Tall peaked T waves and ST segment depression (approx. 5.5mEq/L)
2. Loss of P waves 3. Widening of the QRS complex, prolongation of the PR interval 4. Sine wave pattern 5. Asystole or ventricular fibrillation |
|
Management of hyperkalemia
|
Mnemonic: C BIG K Die - CaCl, beta agonist, bicarb, insulin/glucose, kayexalate, diuretic and dialysis
1. Protect the heart: Calcium chloride IV. This is indicated if there is evidence of QRS widening or patient is hypotensive. 2. Decrease serum K: 1-2amps D50W + Insulin 10 units (approx. 1mEq decrease). Beta agonist, salbutamol via continuous nebulization. Bicarbonate if acidotic or fluids if dehydrated. 3. Excrete K: kayexalate, diuretic (if kidney function), dialysis |
|
Criteria for systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS)
|
More than 2 of:
>38 C or < 36 C Pulse >90 beats/min RR >20 breaths/min (or PaCO2<30mmHg) WBC >12 x 10*9 cells/l or < 4 x 10*9 cells/l or >10% bands |
|
Define sepsis, severe sepsis, and septic shock
|
Sepsis - SIRS in response to an infection
Severe Sepsis - sepsis and signs of organ dysfunction (e.g. acute lung injury, coagulopathy, altered mental status, renal failure, decreased urine output, liver failure, lactic acidosis etc.) Septic Shock – severe sepsis and hypotension (sBP<90) unresponsive to IV crystalloid fluid bolus. |
|
Treatment of septic shock
|
1. ABC's monitors, lines, IV's
2. IV fluids - 20-40 mL/kg over 15-30 mins and 500 mL's every 15-30 minutes. Some patients may require 6-8 L's to achieve MAP and CVP targets. 3. Antibiotics - piperacillin-tazobactam 4.5 g IV with vancomycin 1g IV if MRSA is suspected and azithromycin 500mg IV if pneumonia is suspected 4. Surgical intervention or removal of old lines/catheters 5. Early goal directed therapy 6. Others: steroids (IV hydrocortisone), intubation, sedation, paralysis |
|
Describe early goal directed therapy for severe sepsis and septic shock
|
1. CVP is measured through a central line (internal jugular or subclavian) and a target of 8- 12 mmHg is achieved through frequent fluid boluses.
2. MAP of 65-90 mmHg is achieved by giving vasopressors (dopamine or norepinephrine). 3. Central venous oxygen saturation of >70% by giving packed red blood cells to achieve a hemoglobin of 90 and dobutamine is given for its inotropic effect |
|
Define anaphylaxis
|
Anaphylaxis is a severe allergic reaction to any stimulus, (usually) having sudden onset and generally lasting less than 24 hours, involving one or more body systems and producing one or more symptoms
|
|
Signs and symptoms of anaphylaxis
|
Urticaria, angioedema (88%)
Upper airway edema (56%) Dyspnea, wheeze (47%) Dizziness, syncope, hypotension (33%) Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, cramping, abdominal pain (30%) |
|
Pathophysiology
|
IgE-mediated allergic phenomenon. Allergic anaphylaxis requires prior exposure and sensitization to an allergen. When a recognized allergen binds IgE on the surface of mast cells and plasma basophils, causing them to degranulate and release histamine and other bioactive mediators.
|
|
What causes hives and angioedema?
|
Histamine causes increased capillary permeability and vasodilation. In the skin, this leads to urticaria. In subcutaneous tissue, this causes angioedema.
|
|
Management of anaphylaxis
|
1. ABC's - including intubation or surgical airway |
|
How should anaphylaxis be treated in patients on a beta blocker?
|
Try epi first. If unsuccessful give glucagon 1 mg IV, in repeat doses every 5 minutes (max 10 doses). If bolus administration is successful, a glucagon infusion should be started at 1–5 mg/hr.
|
|
Dose of epinephrine to give in anaphylaxis reaction
|
Epinephrine 0.01 mg/kg IM (1:1000)
or 0.5 mg IM (1:1000) |
|
Medications that can cause serotonin syndrome
|
Antidepressants: SSRI, SNRI, MAOI, lithium
Antibiotic: linezolid (MAOI activity) Stimulants: cocaine, amphetamine, ecstasy Migraines: sumatriptans Opiods: meperidine, dextromethorphan, tramadol Herbal remedies: St. John‘s Wort |
|
Triad of serotonin syndrome
|
1. Altered mental status (confusion, agitation, coma)
2. Autonomic nervous system dysfunction (fever, shivering, sweating, diarrhea, tachycardia, tachypnea, high or low BP) 3. Neuromuscular abnormalities (ataxia, hyperreflexia, myoclonus, tremor, rigidity, akathisia) |
|
Medications causing QT prolongation
|
amiodarone
procainamide haloperidol fluorquinolones macrolides fluconazole |
|
Define menorrhagia/hypermenorrhea and metrorrhagia
|
Menorrheagia - menses >7 days or >80mL, or <21 day recurrence
Metrorrhagia - irregular vaginal bleeding outside the normal cycle |
|
Life threatening causes of vaginal bleeding
|
Ectopic pregnancy |
|
Causes of vaginal bleeding in prepubertal females
|
Vaginitis (10%)
Precocious puberty (21%) GU tumors (10%) Vulvar pathology (8%) Trauma (including sexual abuse) (8%). |
|
Describe the prevalence of first trimester vaginal bleeding. What is the risk of abortion
|
Up to 40% of women have cramping and spotting during the first 20 weeks of gestation. Half of these women (20%) undergo first trimester abortion and 60% of those are related to chromosomal abnormalities. Bleeding and expulsion of uterine contents usually starts a week after the death of the fetus.
|
|
Treatment of incomplete abortion under 12 weeks
|
Misoprostol can be given for incomplete abortion (success rate of 66-93%).
|
|
What bHCG level must be achieved before an intrauterine pregnancy can be seen on transvaginal U/S
|
At levels of 500-1500 IU/L, an intrauterine sac should be seen on trans-vaginal ultrasound |
|
Management of ectopic pregnancy
|
Methotrexate - if stable, able to follow up, bHCG level < 5000 mIU/L, and no fetal cardiac activity
Surgical |
|
Causes of vaginal bleeding in 3rd trimester
|
Placenta previa, abruptio placentae, and uterine rupture.
|
|
Causes of postpartum hemorrhage
|
Uterine atony
Uterine rupture Lacerations/tears Retained placental tissue Uterine inversion Coagulopathy |
|
Definition of gestational hypertension
|
Systolic BP >140mmHg or diastolic BP >90 developing after the 20th week of gestation
No proteinuria BP returns to normal within 12 weeks post-partum |
|
Definition of preeclampsia
|
Systolic BP >140mmHg or diastolic BP >90 after
20 weeks gestation Proteinuria >300mg/24hr (>1+ dipstick is suggestive) |
|
Definition of eclampsia
|
Grand mal seizures that cannot be attributed to other causes in women with preeclampsia
|
|
Describe HELLP syndrome
|
-Hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, low platelets
-Decreased organ perfusion secondary to vasospasm and endothelial activation in pre-eclamptic -May also result in bleeding, pulmonary edema, renal insufficiency, infection, CNS morbidity |
|
Treatment of severe preeclampsia and eclampsia
|
-Treat severe preeclampsia with IV magnesium sulfate (4-6g loading then 2g/hour to maintain levels 4.8-8.4 mg/dL) to prevent seizures. Also used to prevent recurrent seizures.
-Antihypertensives: Hydralazine 5mg doses in 15 minute intervals when diastolic BP >105mmHg or systolic >160 until diastolic 90-100 mmHg or IV Labetolol 20 mg IV followed by repeat doses every 10 minutes, maximum dose 300mg. -Fluid: 60-125 cc/hr maximum even if oliguric to avoid pulmonary and cerebral edema. |
|
Describe an approach to hematuria in the ED
|
Painful - obstruction, stone, UTI, trauma
Painless - urinary tract cancer (renal, bladder, ureter), anticoagulation, BPH |
|
History in patients with renal colic
|
-Renal colic typically presents as sudden onset of unilateral flank pain that radiates anteriorly and inferiorly toward the groin.
-Patients are commonly described as writhing in pain, and are often unable to find a comfortable position to relieve their symptoms. -Patients with renal colic often have nausea and/or vomiting. |
|
Physical exam findings in patients with renal colic
|
-Mild tachycardia or hypertension due to pain
-The main and often only physical exam finding in renal colic is unilateral CVA tenderness. In general, there should not be any significant anterior abdominal tenderness. |
|
DDx of renal colic
|
AAA - renal colic is rare in elderely, r/o AAA in all patients over 50
Aortic dissection Renal artery thrombosis Appendicitis Pyelonephritis Ectopic pregnancy |
|
Investigations in renal colic
|
-urine dipstick reveals microscopic hematuria, no white blood cells, and no nitrites
-noncontrast CT for elderly, 1st presentation, and uncertain diagnosis |
|
Treatment of renal colic
|
-Pain management with morphine + Naproxen (po) or Toradol (IV) |
|
Prognosis of stone passage in renal colic
|
If the stone is 4 mm or smaller, they will eventually be passed 90% of the time.
Stones 5-7 mm have a 50% chance of passing spontaneously. Stones larger than 7mm are unlikely to pass spontaneously, and should be referred for consideration of lithotripsy. |
|
Most common causes of paediatric cardiac arrest
|
1. Underlying respiratory abnormality (most common)
2. Circulatory failure from hypovolemia (loss of fluid or blood, sepsis) |
|
Differences and considerations in pediatric vs. adult airway
|
-large tongue relative to oral cavity
-higher and more anterior larynx (c3-c4 vs c5-c6) -long floppy epiglottis -subglottic area is the narrowest portion of the infant larynx -large head leads to flexed neck |
|
Estimated size of endotracheal tube needed in children based on age group
|
-infants to 1 year = 3.5 ETT uncuffed |
|
When should oropharyngeal airway be used over nasopharyngeal airway in children
|
An oropharyngeal airway can only be used in an unresponsive child without a gag reflex.
Nasopharyngeal airways are generally better tolerated, but should not be used if there is suspicion of skull base trauma in order to avoid potential infection or penetration of the anterior cranial fossa with insertion. |
|
How to verify endotracheal tube placement following intubation
|
-Bilateral chest movement, listen for equal breath sounds over both lung fields
-Listen for gastric insufflation over stomach -Check exhaled CO2 (end-tidal CO2) -Check oxygen saturation if perfusing rhythm -If uncertain, direct laryngoscopy -Chest X-ray in hospital setting |
|
Things to consider if patient deteriorates following intubation
|
DOPE
Displacement of tube Obstruction of tube Pneumothorax Equipment failure |
|
Normal respiratory rate based on age
|
Infant 30-60
Toddle 24-40 Preschooler 22-34 School Age 18-34 Adolescent 12-16 |
|
Hypotension by age in children
|
Team neonates (0-28 days) <60 mm Hg
Infants (1-12 mo) <70 mm Hg Children (>1 yrs) <70+ 2 x age mm Hg Children (>10 yrs) <90 mm Hg |
|
Normal heart rate for age
|
Infant 100-160
Toddle 90-145 Preschooler 80-140 School age 70-120 Adolescent 60-100 |
|
When should chest compressions/CPR be initiated on a child
|
-no pulse palpable
-heart rate is <60 bpm and there is evidence of poor systemic perfusion |
|
Rate of breaths to compressions in pediatric CPR with and without advanced airway
|
No advanced airway, 1 rescuer - 30:2
No advanced airway, 2 rescuer - 15:2 Advanced airway - compressions uninterupted, 8-10 breaths/min |
|
Size of fluid bolus in pediatric patient in shock |
10-20mL/kg NS
Blood replacement is indicated in children with severe acute hemorrhage if a child remains in shock after 40 -60 mL/kg of crystalloid |
|
Drug of choice in pediatric cardiac arrest |
Epinephrine
Has both alpha and beta adrenergic properties but the alpha adrenergic mediated vasocontriction is most important, acting to restore diastolic pressure |
|
Complications of sodium bicarbonate administration during CPR
|
Excessive bicarbonate may impair tissue oxygen delivery (shifts O2 dissociation curve), cause hypokalemia, hypocalcemia, hypernatremia, hyperosmolality, decrease ventricular fibrillation threshold, and impair cardiac function
|
|
Effects of atropine
When would it be used in CPR |
Competitive antagonist of the muscarinic acetylcholine receptor (acetylcholine being main neurotransmitter used by the parasympathetic system)
Used to treat symptomatic bradycardia and vagally mediated bradycardia that can occur with intubation attempts |
|
Effect of dopamine
When would it be used during CPR |
Dopamine is an endogenous catecholamine with complex cardiovascular effects. In higher doses it stimulates beta receptors and alpha adrenergic vasoconstriction
Used for the treatment of circulatory shock following resuscitation, or when shock is unresponsive to fluid administration |
|
Effect of adenosine
When would it be used in CPR |
Causes a temporary atrioventricular (AV) nodal
conduction block and interrupts reentry circuits that involve the AV node Used for treatment of supraventricular tachycardia |
|
Treatment of nonshockable rhythm (asystole/PEA) arrest in children
|
1. Continue CPR |
|
Causes of asystole and PEA arrest
|
H's and T's
Hypothermia, Hypoxia, Hydrogen ion (acidosis), Hypoglycemia, Hypovolemia Tension Pneumothorax, Tamponade (cardiac), Toxins, Thrombosis (pulmonary and coronary) |
|
When is defibrillation with AED or manual defibrillator indicated
|
ventricular fibrillation
pulseless ventricular tachycardia. |
|
Treatment of SVT in infants and children |
-If hemodynamically stable, begin with vagal maneuvers (e.g. ice to face in an infant without occluding airway, blowing through narrow straw in older child)
-If unsuccessful, adenosine is the drug of choice -If hemodynamically unstable, then consider synchronized cardioversion (0.5 to 1 J/kg; increase to 2J/kg for subsequent attempts) |
|
Treatment of asthma exacerbation in children
|
Salbutamol - 4-8 puffs q20min
Ipratropium bromide - 4-8 puffs q20min up to 3 hrs Prednisone 2 mg/kg MgSO4 - 40 mg/kg IV |
|
Discharge therapy for patients with asthma exacerbation |
-Salbutamol 4–8 puffs/dose q4h prn via MDI and spacer (with a mask < 6 years, with a mouthpiece 7 years or older) for 24-48 hours, then 2 puffs qid prn x 1 week.
-Prednisone 1mg/kg daily x 4-5 days orally. No tapering necessary. -Fluticasone 50 mcg bid for 4-8 weeks after discharge -Mandatory follow up at 24-48 hours -Return if increased work of breathing requiring bronchodilators <q4h. |
|
Classic history for croup
|
-6-36 months of age
-barking cough -hoarse voice -inspiratory stridor +/- respiratory distress |
|
Management of croup
|
-Dexamethasone 0.6 mg/kg po once (all patients) |
|
Define lethargy
|
Lethargy - a level of consciousness characterized by poor or absent eye contact; or the failure of a child to recognize parents; or failure to interact with persons or objects in the environment.
|
|
Workout required for fever without a focus 0-1 months of age
Treatment? |
CBC
Urinalysis Blood, urine, LP cultures +/- chest x-ray Hospitalization + ampicillin and gentamicin for all |
|
Workup required for fever without a focus in infant 1-3 mo of age
|
Lethargic - full septic workup + hospitalization + Abx
High risk rochester criteria - full spetic workup + hosptialization + Abx Low risk rochester criteria - CBC, urinalysis, blood and urine culture + discharge w/o Abx + 24 hr followup |
|
What must be ruled out for all infants with bilious vomititng
|
Malrotation with volvulus
|
|
Classic history for patients with intussuception
|
-3-12 mo old male
-intermittent colicky abdominal pain -abdominal distension -bilious vomiting -blood per rectum /currant jelly stools (late sign) |
|
Management of mild and moderate dehydration with oral rehydration
|
Pedialyte
Mild: 20 mL/kg 1st hour, 10 mL/kg thereafter, 10 mL/kg per bowel movement Moderate: 20 mL/kg 1st hour, 20 mL/kg thereafter, 10mL/kg per bowel movement |
|
When should a culture be taken of taken from the bite site following an animal or human bite
|
Only culture when there is clinical evidence of a wound infection (e.g. progressive erythema, purulent discharge, signs of sepsis)
|
|
Management of mammal bites
|
1. Copious irrigation - 18 - 20 gauge angiocath on a 20 cc syringe will provide adequate irrigation pressure for most wounds. Do not open or widen the puncture wound for irrigation |
|
High risk criteria for mammal bite (wound factors) |
- puncture wounds or crush injuries
- wounds greater than 12 hours old - hand or foot wounds - wounds near joints |
|
High risk criteria for mammal bite (patient factors)
|
- immunocompromised patient: diabetes, splenectomy, chronic alcoholism, AIDS, on immunosuppressive meds |
|
Rate of infecton from mammal bites
|
Dog 10-30%
Cat 10-50% Human 50% |
|
Antibiotic choice for mammal bites
|
1st line - amoxacillin-clavulanic acid (Clavulin)
2nd line - 2nd generation cephalosporins (e.g. cefuroxime, cefaclor, or cefoxitin iv) |
|
Likely cause of infection following dog or cat bite that becomes infected within 24 hours
|
Pasteurella multocida
causative organism in up to 80% of cat bite infections and up to 50% of dog bite infections propensity to cause metastatic infections: septicemia, osteomyelitis, tenosynovitis, meningitis |
|
Describe postexposure immunoprophylaxis following high risk animal bite
|
Persons not previously immunized:
- Passive immunization with Rabies Immune Globulin (RIG): 20 IU/kg- - Active immunization with rabies vaccine (e.g. HDCV): 5 injections of 1 ml IM over 28 days, given on days 0, 3, 7, 14, and 28 |
|
Goal temperature in patients with heat stroke
|
rectal temp. < 39.5 C
|
|
Which electrolytes must be monitored during heat stoke
|
K (hyperkalemia) and Mg
|
|
Describe the classifiation of burns
|
Superficial (first degree) involves epidermis only i.e. sunburn
Superficial partial thickness (second degree) extends to epidermis and superficial dermis, blister formation occurs and the burns are very painful. Deep partial thickness (second degree) involves hair follicles, sebaceous glands. Skin is blistered and exposed dermis is pale white to yellow in colour. Sensation is absent. Full thickness burns (third degree) involve the epidermis and all dermal layers. The skin is pale, insensate and charred or leathery. Surgical treatment is required, spontaneous healing does not occur. Fourth degree burns extend through skin to all underlying layers e.g. fat, muscle, and bone. Amputation or reconstruction is often required. |
|
Describe how to estimate total body surface area burned in adults
|
Rule of 9's for Adults: 9% for each arm, 18% for each leg, 9% for head,18% for front torso, 18% for back torso.
|
|
Describe how to estimate total body surface area burned in children
|
Rule of 9's for Children: 9% for each arm, 14% for each leg, 18% for head, 18% for front torso, 18% for back torso.
|
|
Describe fluid requirements in burn patients
|
Fluid Requirements = TBSA burned(%) x Wt (kg) x 4mL
Given for burns equal or larger than 20% BSA, partial thickness or greater. Use ringers lactate. Given over 24 hrs, 1/2 in first 8 hrs. |
|
Half life of carbon monoxide in blood
Describe treatment |
room air, 240-320 minutes
100% O2, 90 minutes hyperbaric oxygen, 20 minutes Give high flow O2 for all. Transfer to a hyperbaric chamber is indicated in those with levels >25 |
|
Describe basic wound care in burn patients
|
Burns are covered with a gauze dressing and polysporin ointment for superficial partial thickness and flamazine (silver sulphadiazine) for deep partial thickness burns (except on the face)
|
|
What antibiotics and immunizations are indicated for burn patients
|
No role for prophylactic antibiotics.
Tetanus should be updated. |
|
Which patients need to be transfered to a specialized burn center
|
- Partial thickness or full thickness burns > 10% ages <10 or >50 |
|
Complications following electircal injury/burn
|
Cardiac dysrhythmias: occurs at time of injury asytole or ventricular fibrillation, will not develop in the ED
Deep muscle injury/necrosis Rhabdomyolysis Compartment syndrome |
|
Characteristics of acidic and alkali chemical burns
|
Acids cause coagulation necrosis and formation of a leathery eschar.
Alkalis cause liquifaction necrosis and deeper burns. |
|
Treatment for chemical burns
|
Aggressive irrigation is the main treatment for chemical burns. pH paper is used to determine the presence of additional chemical, ideally applied 10-15 minutes after irrigation is stopped.
|
|
Define hypothermia |
Hypothermia is defined as a core body temperature of less than 35.0 C
|
|
Most accurate site for noninvasive temperature reading
|
Esophageal temperature
|
|
At what temperature does the body cease to shiver
|
30-32 C
|
|
ECG changes in hypothermia
|
J waves (Osborn wave)
|
|
At what temp are hypothermic patients at risk of developing arrythmia's
What is the typical progression |
Patients are at risk for arrhythmias at temperatures <30°C
Sinus bradycardia -> atrial fibrillation -> ventricular fibrillation -> asystole |
|
Pathophysiology of frost bite
|
Frostbite occurs when tissue temperature drops below 0 ̊C. The tissue is damaged by both the freeze-thaw insult and subsequent progressive dermal ischemia.
|
|
Treatment of frostbite
|
Immerse 40-42 ̊C water bath, until the part feels pliable and distal erythema is noted, usually requires 10-30 minutes of immersion
Ibuprofen 400 mg q12h to inhibit thromboxane A production by injured tissue Benzyl penicillin 600 mg every 6 hours |
|
In hypothermic patients, below what temperature should you use active core rewarming
|
<32 C
|
|
Pathophysiology of drowning
|
Lung damage and hypoxemia leading to hypoxic encephalopathy |
|
List universal antidotes
|
O2, glucose, thiamine, naloxone
|
|
Mnemonic for anticholinergic toxidrome
|
Blind as a bat, dry as a bone, red as a beet, mad as a hatter, and hot as a hare
|
|
Define toxidrome
|
A toxidrome is a constellation of clinical signs and symptoms associated with a particular class of substances. |
|
Manifestations of anticholinergic toxidrome
|
Hyperthermia
Dilated pupils Dry skin & mucous membranes Agitation Hallucinations Seizures Tachycardia Urinary retention Ileus |
|
Etiology of anticholinergic toxidrome
|
Antihistamines
Atropine & belladonna Diphenhydramine Tricyclic antidepressants |
|
Manifestations of cholinergic toxidrome |
Salivation, Seizures
Lacrimation Urinary incontinence Diarrhea, Diaphoresis Bronchospasm, Bradycardia Emesis, Excitation |
|
Etiology of cholinergic toxidrome
|
Carbamates
Nerve gases Organophosphates |
|
Manifestations of sympathomimetic toxidrome
|
Hyperthermia
Mydriasis Diaphoresis Tachycardia Hypertension Excitation Seizures |
|
Etilology of the sympathominetic toxidrome
|
Amphetamines ASA
Cocaine LSD PCP Theophyllines Sedative & alcohol withdrawal |
|
Manifestations of narcotic/sedative toxidrome
|
CNS depression |
|
Etiology of narcotic/sedative toxidrome
|
Barbituates, Benzodiazepines
Ethanol GHB Opioids Other sedatives |
|
Describe 3-3-2-1 rule for predicting difficult intubation |
3-3-2-1
3 finger mouth opening
3 fingers from hyoid to chin
2 fingers from thyroid cartilage notch to floor of mandible
1 finger lower jaw anterior subluxation |
|
Formula for anion gap
Normal value? |
Anion Gap = Na+ - (HCO3- + Cl-) |
|
Formula for osmolar gap and calculated osmolality
Normal value |
Osmolal Gap = (Measured – Calculated) Osmolality
Calculated Osmolality = 2[Na+ ] + BUN + Glucose + 1.25 X Ethanol Normal Osmolal Gap should range from -14 to +10 mosmoles/L |
|
DDx of increased anion gap
|
Methanol
Uremia Diabetic Ketoacidosis, Alcoholic Ketoacidosis, Starvation Ketoacidosis Phenformin, Paraldehyde Iron, INH Lactic acidosis Ethylene Glycol Salicylate Bonus: Carbon Monoxide, Cyanide, Toluene |
|
DDx of increased osmolar gap
|
Ethylene Glycol
Isopropyl Alcohol Glycerol Mannitol Methanol Sorbitol |
|
In which poisoned patients should activated charcoal be considerered
|
Patients who present within one hour of their gastrointestinal exposure to a toxin.
Consider in: Carbamazepine, Phenobarb, Quinine, Theophylline |
|
In which toxins can elimination be enhanced with urine alkalinization
|
Chlorpropamide
Methotrexate Phenobarb Salicylates |
|
In which toxins should hemodialysis be considered to enhance elimination
|
ASA
Ethylene Glycol Lithium Methanol Valproate |
|
Antidote for acetaminophen overdose
|
N-acteylcysteine
|
|
Antidote for beta blocker overdose
|
High dose insulin
|
|
Antidote for carbon monoxide poisoning
|
High dose O2 +/- hyperbaric O2 therapy
|
|
Antidote for digoxin overdose
|
Digoxin FAB fragments
|
|
Antidote for ethylene glycol and methanol poisoning
|
Fomepizole or Ethanol
|
|
Antidote for hydrofluoric acid poisoning
|
Calcium
|
|
Antidote for isoniazid overdose
|
Pyridoxime
|
|
Antidote for opioid overdose
|
Naloxone
|
|
Antidote for organophosphates poisoning
|
Atropine plus pralidoxime
|
|
Antidote for sodium channel blocker overdose
|
NaHCO3
|
|
Antidote for sulfonylurea poisoning
|
Octreotide |
|
Mechanism of action of alcohol
|
Depressing the excitatory neurotransmitter glutamate |
|
Features of alcohol intoxication
|
Slurred speech, nystagmus, slowed responses to verbal, visual or physical stimuli and decreased motor coordination/control
|
|
How long must intoxicated patients be held in the ED
|
Until:
awake and oriented with a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) of 15 able to respond appropriately to questions able to ambulate normally |
|
Treatment to prevent Wernicke‘s encephalopathy |
Thiamine 100 mg po, IM or IV daily
Ocular signs may be reversed in as little as 1-6 hours. Ataxia and confusion may improve over days to months. |
|
Over what time period can alcohol withdrawal occur following discontinuation of alcohol
|
Up to 7 days later
|
|
Symptoms of alcohol withdrawal
|
Tachycardia, hypertension,elevated temperature |
|
Symptoms of delirium tremons
|
Hallucinations, delirium and confusion
Profound autonomic dysfunction: hyperthermia, tachycardia, hypertension, and seizures |
|
Time period when patients are most likely to have a seizure during alcohol withdrawal
|
12-48 hours
|
|
Triad of Wernicke's enchaphalopathy
|
oculomotor abnormalities (nystagmus, lateral gaze palsies or disconjugate gaze) |
|
Characteristic of isopropyl alcohol intoxication
|
- ketosis but NO acidosis
- normal blood glucose - clinical features similar to those of ethanol poisoning but of longer duration - fruity odor of acetone or smell of rubbing alcohol on the breath |
|
Products containing methanol
|
windshield washer fluid |
|
Products containing isopropyl alcohol
|
rubbing alcohol |
|
Features of methanol poisoning
|
• CNS depression
• Visual disturbances and blindness • Abdominal pain • Marked anion gap-type metabolic acidosis • Osmolar gap • Possible renal failure |
|
Criteria for hemodialysis in patients with methanol poisoning
|
- Visual or CNS disturbances |
|
Features of ethylene glycol poisoning
|
- signs of intoxication yet no ethanol smell on the breath |
|
If unable to intubate after a paralytic is given during RSI what are the options |
Bag valve mask ventilation
Surgical airway |
|
Cricothyrotomy technique
|
An incision is made through the cricothyroid membrane (i.e. below the thyroid cartilage). |
|
Differentiate tracheostomy vs cricothyrotomy
|
A tracheostomy (done just superior to the suprasternal notch) involves dissecting through superficial vessels, a cricothyrotomy avoids these vessels.
|
|
Decribe the ABCDE's of trauma
|
Airway - Is the airway patent? Have patient talk |
|
DDx for shock
|
S – septic
|
|
Components of the FAST exam
|
Lt flank (Spleen) - free fluid in the spleno-renal space
Subxypohoid - pericardial effusion |
|
When should blood products be given in trauma
|
If patient remains hypotensive following 2 L NS
|
|
What needs to be examined in a trauma patient during the log roll |
1. Inspection for penetrating injuries, contusion, lacerations |
|
What does FAST stand for? |
Focused Assessment with Sonography for Trauma |
|
What are the components of the 'Disability' assessment in a trauma patient |
Patients LOC - 'AVPU' - Alert, responds to Verbal, responds to Pain, Unresponsive
Pupils
Moving all four limbs |
|
Basic investigations for all polytrauma patients |
CXR
FAST
AP Pelivs |
|
What does the 'E' component of ABDCE's of trauma include |
Expose patient including back (log roll)
Enviroment - keep patient warm and dry |
|
Describe the secondary survey in trauma |
H & N - pupils equal and reactive, gross abnormality in visual acuity, facial bones (swelling, deformity, laceration), scalp, tympanic membranes, c-spine tenderness
Chest -
Abdomen - peritonitis, distension, FAST
DRE - lower GI bleed, tone, prostate
Extremeties
Neuro - GCS, motor or sensory defecites |
|
Layers of the meninges |
Pia (innermost)
Arachnoid
Dura (outermost) |
|
Normal ICP
Define cerebral perfusion pressure |
10-15 mm Hg
CPP = MAP - ICP |
|
Signs of basilar skull fracture |
Hemotympanum
Blood in ear canal
Rhinorrhea
Racoon eyes
Battle sign |
|
Describe eye component of GCS |
4 - open spontaneously
3 - to verbal command
2 - to pain
1 - no response |
|
Describe the verbal component of GCS |
5 - Alert and oriented
4 - Disoriented
3 - Incomprehensible
2 - Moans and sounds
1- None |
|
Describe the motor component of GCS |
6 - Moving spontaneously
5 - Localizes pain
4 - Withdraws from pain
3 - Decroticate posturing ( flexion of upper, extension of lower)
2 - Decerebrate posturing (extension of upper and lower)
1 - Done |
|
Describe the classification of head injuries |
Mild - GCS 14-15
Moderate - GCS 9 - 13
Severe - GCS 3 - 8 |
|
Describe the CT head rule |
CT head is required for minor head injuries (GCS 13-15) with 1 of the following:
1. GCS < 15 at 2 hrs post injury
2. Suspected open or depressed skull fracture
3. Signs of basal skull fracture
4. Vomiting >/= 2 episodes
5. Age >/= 65Sn 98%, Sp 50% for dectecting clincally important HI
6. Amnesia before impact >/= 30 min
7. Dangerous mechanism |
|
Define concussion |
Type of minor head injury after a direct or indirect blow to the head characterized by transient change in cognitive or neurologic function |
|
Describe special considerations for intubation in patients with a head injury |
1. Consider premedication to prevent raising ICP with lidocaine (1.5-2 mg/kg IV push) to attenuate cough reflex and vecuronium (0.01 mg/kg IV) defasicullating dose
2. Induction with etomidate, midazolam (0.1-0.3 mg/kg), or propofol (1-2 mg/kg IV) |
|
Treatment of increased ICP |
1. Elevate head of bed
2. Provide sedation and analgesia
3. Mannitol 0.25-1 g/kg IV
4. Neuromuscular blockade
5. Mild hyperventilation PaCO2 30-35 mm Hg |
|
How does hyperventilation decrease ICP |
Hyperventilation reduces PaCO2 which temporarily reduces the ICP by cerebral vasoconstriction and subsequent reduction of cerebral blood flow.
The aim of hyperventilation is to reach an arterial PCO2 of 30-35 mm Hg (avoid PaCO2 < 25 as it can cause ischemia due to severe vasoconstriction).
Hyperventilation should be avoided during the first 24 hours after injury when cerebral blood flow is often critically reduced. |
|
Describe the approach to the interpretation of c-spine x-rays |
ABC'S approach
A - alingment - follow anterior and posterior contour lines. Translation of 1 vertebra over another > 3.5 mm is significant.
B - bone - follow boney contours looking for breaks in the cortex.
C - cartilage - disc spaces of equal length. Pre-dental space < 3mm
S - soft tissue - retropharyngeal space measures less than 7mm at C2 and 21mm at C7
Bonus - odontoid view, lateral mass of C1 & C2 should align. |
|
Describe canadian c-spine rules |
1. High risk factors that warrant radiography - Age >65, dangerous mechanism, paresthesia in extremity
2. Any low risk factors that allow safe assessment of ROM - simple rear end collision, sitting position, ambulatory, delayed onset neck pain, absence of midline c-spine tenderness
3. If no high risk + 1 or more low risk then assess ROM, if can rotate >45 degress left and right then no radiography. |
|
Describe considerations in nasal fracture |
- x-ray rarely needed
- final alignment needs to wait 2-3 weeks for swelling to subside and a plastic surgeon can make an assessment
- inspect nasal septum for hematoma. Submucosal collection of blood (septal hematoma) should be drained to avoid ischemic depression in septum |
|
Describe LeFort Classification of midface fractures |
leFort I - extends down through maxilla to either side of the mouth and the upper teeth and bones will be mobile.
leFort II - extends through (or just inferior to) the infraorbital rim and the nasal aperture and upper teeth will move as a unit separate from the cheekbones (zygoma)
leFort III - extends across through the orbits or just above them and the entire midface (including the zygomas) will be mobile |
|
Treatment of tooth fracture in ED (removed from socket) |
a. Rinse socket with NS
chlorhexidine, or hydrogen peroxide (5 second rinse in any of these). Cleanse the tooth immediately with sterile NS. Place tooth in socket. Secure with bone wax.
c. If tooth cannot be replaced or if patient asks for advice about storage, have the tooth preserved in milk.
d. refer to dentistry |
|
Treatment of chipped tooth in ED |
See if the residual tooth is loose and splint if necessary with bone wax or skin glue. Classify tooth fracture according to Ellis Classification If the fracture is Ellis 3 or 4 (Pulp exposed), consider covering the tooth with bone wax for pain relief. Refer patient to dentistry for definitive care and follow-up |
|
Describe Ellis classification of tooth fracture |
Ellis 1 - through enamil
Ellis 2 - through dentin + enamil
Ellis 3 - through pulp + dentin + enamil |
|
When should fractures of the mandible be suspected? |
irregular bite (malocclusion)
misalignment in the jaw
point tenderness of the bone
loose teeth
strong pain when biting down on a tongue depressor you forcefully try to remove from the mouth
intraoral bleeding |
|
Describe approach to describing fractures |
Open vs. closed
Neurovascular status: intact vs. compromised
Which bone(s) is/are broken
Location the fracture: i.e., proximal humerus; metacarpal head
Type of fracture: i.e. oblique vs. transverse; simple vs. comminuted)
Alignment of fragments: Angulation, Displacement, Shortening |
|
Features of compartment syndrome |
Pain out of proportion
Parasthesia
Pallor
Pulselessness
Paralysis. |
|
What nerve is at risk in an anterior shoulder dislocation |
Axiallary nerve - supplies sensation to lateral shoulder and motor to the deltoid |
|
X-ray finding in anterior shoulder dislocation |
Lateral view shows the humeral head sitting anterior to the glenoid |
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Describe Ottawa Ankle Rules |
An ankle X-ray is required if:
A foot X-ray is required if: 1. Boney tenderness at base of navicular or base of 5th metatarsal 2. Inability to weight bear both immediately AND in the ED Boney tenderness at posterior aspect of distal 6cm of medial or lateral malleolus inability to bear weight both immediately AND in the ED |
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Describe a Colle's fracture |
Extraarticular fracture of the distal radius due to FOOSH |
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Which two parameters are of importance in deciding which colle‘s fractures require reduction? |
Volar tilt - at least neutral, anatomic 20 degrees volar tilt
Radial length - at least as long as the ulna |
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Maximum dose of lidocaine with and without epi |
Without epi 3-5 mg/kg
With epi 5-7 mg/kg |
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Signs and symptoms of lidocaine toxicity |
Dizziness
Perioral numbness
Seizures
Cardiovascular collapse |
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Describe the difference between primary, secondary, and delayed closure. When would you use each? |
Primary closure refers to closure immediately after the injury
Secondary closure involves leaving the wound open and allowing it to close over time. This option is used for wounds that present late, or are otherwise at increased risk of infection
Delayed - leave open for 4-5 days when close if no signs of infection |
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List common absorbable and nonabsorbable sutures |
Nonabsorbable - Ethilon (nylon), Prolene
Absorbable - vicryl |
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List basic rules for selecting suture size |
Facial wounds are closed with 5-0 or 6-0
Hands 4-0 and 5-0
Feet, and other limb wounds with 4-0
Trunk wounds or wounds under high tension (joints, gaping) with 3-0 or 4-0 |
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Wounds characteristics that increase the risk of tetanus |
Delayed presentation
Deep wound
Gross contamination
Ischemia, infection
Crush or puncture injuries. |
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List conversion factor from codeine, morphine, oxycodone, and hydromorphone |
Codeine - 100
Morphine - 10
Oxycodone - 5
Hydromorphone - 2 |