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406 Cards in this Set

  • Front
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Predictors of difficult Bag-valve Mask Ventilation

BOOTS
B = Beard
O = Obese
O = Older
T = Toothless
S = Snores / Stridor

What is the Mallampati score? What are the 4 classes?

Mallampati score is used to predict the ease of intubation.



Class I: Soft palate, entire uvula
Class II: Soft palate, body and base of uvula
Class III: Soft palate, only base of uvula visible.
Class IV: Only hard palate visible



I and II are relatively easy. III and IV predict difficult intubation.

Features that predict difficult intubation?

MAP
M = Mallampati class and measurements
A = Atlantooccipital neck extension (normal = 35 degrees or more)
P = Pathological conditions (e.g. tumour, hematoma, trauma, etc.)

Reasons for intubation?

4 P's
1. Patency - to obtain and maintain a patent airway in the face of obstruction.



2. Positive-pressure ventilation - to correct deficient oxygenation and/or ventilation.



3. Protection - to protect the airway from aspiration



4. Predicted deterioration

What is rapid sequence intubation?
Rapid sequence intubation is defined as the simultaneous administration of a powerful sedative (induction) agent and a paralytic agent to facilitate intubation and decrease the risk of aspiration.

Basic steps to rapid sequence intubation

6 P's



1. Preparation – prepare all equipment, personnel, and medications



2. Pre-oxygenation – patient breathing 100% oxygen for 3-5 minutes



3. Pretreatment – pretreatment with medications such as atropine in children



4. Paralysis with induction – administration of a sedative agent (e.g. ketamine, propofol, etomidate) followed rapidly by the administration of a muscle relaxant (e.g. succinylcholine or rocuronium)



5. Place the tube with proof – intubate the patient, and confirm tube placement with end-tidal capnometry



6. Post-intubation management – chest x-ray, analgesia and sedation, further resuscitation

Describe proper sniffing position for laryngoscopy
Head angled back, neck forward. External auditory meatus and sternal notch should be in same horizontal plane.
Describe the "BURP" technique
BURP technique – refers to application of 'backward, upward, rightward pressure' on the larynx to facilitate visualization of the cords during laryngoscopy.
Describe how a bougie can be used in endotracheal intubation
Bougie is a long, thin, flexible device inserted under the epiglottis during laryngoscopy. As it enters the trachea, clicks are felt as the bougie passes over tracheal rings, and it STOPS when it reaches a mainstem bronchus. If esophageal, no clicks are felt and the bougie advances into stomach. Once in trachea, advance ET tube over bougie.
Life threatening causes of dyspnea
"Breathing Poorly Can Cause Alot of Tension"
-Pulmonary Embolus
-Pulmonary Edema (CHF)
-Acute exacerbation of COPD
-Acute severe Asthma
-Tension pnuemothorax
Anatomical approach to dyspnea
Bronchi and bronchioles - Asthma, COPD, Bronchiectasis
Lung Parenchyma - filling or blocking of alveoli eg. pus (infection), fluid (edema), blood, gastric contents (aspiration)
Vasculature/Blood - emboli, metabolic (acidosis, thyroid), anemia
Pleural Space - air (penumothorax), blood (hemothorax), fluid (pleural effusion), pus (empyema)
Chest wall and diaphragm - trauma, neurogenic Causes (GBS, Myasthenia Crisis and ALS)
Cardiac - MI, cardiac Tamponade, valvular and congenital
Investigations to order in a patient with dyspnea
CBC- looking for evidence of infection or severe
anemia
Electrolytes- looking for evidence of anion gap
acidosis
Cardiac Enzymes- in patients with risk factors for
ischemia
D-dimer- frequently used to rule out the diagnosis
of pulmonary embolism
CXR- visualizes many forms of lung pathology
Blood Gas - to assess oxygenation and ventilation
What information does arterial and venous blood gas provide
ABG - alveolar oxygenation (pO2), ventilation (pCO2), the acid-base status of the patient, and whether the respiratory condition is acute or chronic.
VBG - provides a close approximation of pH, CO2 and bicarbonate to the ABG.
Define acute respiratory failure
Hypoxia (pO2 < 50 mmHg) with or without associated hypercapnia (pCO2 > 45 mmHg).
Describe the 2 types of respiratory failure
Type I: respiratory failure without pCO2 retention. This is characterized by marked V/Q mismatch and intrapulmonary shunting. Examples include diffuse pneumonia, pulmonary edema, ARDS.
Type II: respiratory failure with pCO2 retention. This involves V/Q mismatch and inadequate alveolar ventilation. There are two categories of this type of respiratory failure:
A. Patients with intrinsically normal lungs but with inadequate ventilation due to disorders of respiratory control (e.g. overdose, trauma, CNS disease), neuromuscular abnormalities (e.g. muscular dystrophy, Guillain-Barre, myasthenia), and chest wall trauma.
B. Patients with intrinsic lung disease with V/Q mismatch and alveolar hypoventilation. Respiratory failure is precipitated by additional clinical insult, usually infection, which worsens the underlying disease. Examples include COPD, asthma, cystic fibrosis.
List options for oxygen therapy
Nasal prongs - 2-6L per min, FiO2 of 25-40%
Face mask - 6-10L per min, FiO2 50-60%
Oxygen reservoir mask - 10+L per min, FiO2 90%
Bag valve mask device - FiO2 100%, manually supplement patients respiratory effort
CPAP/BiPAP
Define shock
Shock is defined as an abnormality of the circulatory system causing inadequate tissue perfusion which, if not corrected, will result in cell death
Signs and symptoms of shock
Altered mental status - agitated (early) -> obtunded (late)
Tachycardia
Hypotension - insensitive marker, BP will not drop until blood loss in excess of 30% or 1.5L
Orthostatic vitals
Respiratory rate - in response to sympathetic tone and metabolic acidosis
Skin - cool and pale, cyanosis
Heart sounds - muffled in tamponade
JVP - low (hypovolemia, sepsis), high (left ventricular failure, right heart problem)
Estimated BP based on palpation of radial, femoral, and carotid pulse
Radial - 80 mmHg
Femoral - 70 mmHg
Carotid - 60 mmHg
Describe capillary blanch test
Capillary Blanch Test - a positive test occurs when a compressed nail bed takes >2 seconds to
pink up and is said to occur when there is acute blood loss in excess of 15% of total blood volume.
Describe classes of hemorrhagic shock
Class I - blood loss < 750 mL, pulse < 100, BP normal, RR 14-20, replace with crystalloid
Class II - blood loss 750-1500 mL, pulse > 100, BP normal, RR 20-30, replace with crystalloid
Class III - blood loss 1500-2000 mL, pulse > 120, BP decreased, RR 30-40, crystalloid + blood
Class IV - blood loss > 2000 mL, pulse > 140, BP decreased, RR >35, crystalloid + blood
Describe the use of U/S in investigating shock
ED ultrasound can rapidly detect intraabdominal hemorrhage, hyovolemia (IVC filling), pericardial tamponade, or RV dysfunction (PE).
Describe general management of shock
ABC's
O2 monitor
Cardiac monitor
IV access + type and cross match
Serum lactate
Folley catheter - urine output
Describe the 3:1 rule in shock
You generally need to replace 3x the amount of blood lost to restore BP to the normal value
Describe management of anaphylactic shock
Epinephrine (IM; IV if cardiovascular collapse) Intravenous crystalloid
Antihistamines (H1 and H2 blockers)
Corticosteroids
Wheezing: Nebulized beta2 agonists
Stridor: Nebulized epinephrine
Describe management of cardiogenic shock
Inotropes
Intra-aortic balloon pump
Emergency angioplasty
Describe management of tension pneumothorax
Needle thoracostomy followed by chest tube
Describe management of septic shock
Intravenous crystalloid
Antibiotics
Goal directed therapy in the ED decreases mortality in sepsis:
-urine output >0.5 mL/kg/h
-CVP 8 to12 mm Hg
-MAP 65 to 90 mm Hg
-ScvO2 >70%
Definitive therapy (drainage of closed space infections, sugery).
Describe management of cardiac tamponade
Intravenous crystalloid
Pericardiocentesis
Describe management of PE
Intravenous crystalloid
Inotropes
Thrombolysis or surgery
Etiology of coma
"TIPS AEIOU"
Trauma/Temperature
Infection (CNS or other)
Poisoning/Psychiatric
Space-occupying lesions/Stroke
Alcohol/Acidosis
Epilepsy (nonconvulsive status epilepticus, post-ictal state)/Endocrine
Insulin (hypoglycemia, hyperglycemia)
Oxygen (hypoxia)
Uremia
Universal antidotes to give in a coma
"DON'T"
Dextrose: one ampule D50W if low blood sugar
Naloxone: 0.4 – 2mg IV or IM if opiate use is suspected, (often lower initial doses are used)
Thiamine: 100mg IV if history of alcohol abuse or malnourished
Note: Flumazenil (a benzodiazepine antagonist) is not indicated in the treatment of an undiagnosed coma patient

Describe a focused neurologic exam in coma patients

GCS
Examine head and neck for contusions, lacerations, or signs of trauma (battle sign, racoon eyes, hemotympanium)
Flex neck for meningismus
Check pupils for reaction and symmetry (pupils are typically spared in metabolic and toxic syndromes)
Extraocular movements (have patient follow a finger if awake enough, Doll‘s eye maneuver if no trauma)
Check fundi for papilledema (late sign of increase ICP)
Motor, sensory, reflexes
What do focal neurologic findings mean in a coma patient
With rare exceptions, focal findings means a structural lesion. In particular, a dilated pupil on one side with weakness of the contralateral limbs indicates an expanding mass lesion on the side of the larger pupil. This occurs when the mass lesion is supratentorial and pushes or herniates the uncus of the temporal lobe through the tentorium (called coning). The oculomotor nerve, which runs adjacent to this, is compressed causing paralysis of the constrictor mechanism of the ipsilateral pupil.
Describe the glasgow coma scale
EYE OPENING - (4) spontaneous (3) to voice (2) to pain (1) none
VERBAL RESPONSE - (5) appropriate/oriented, (4) confused/disoriented (3) syllables, (2) grunts, (1) none
MOTOR RESPONSE - (6) spontaneous, obeys commands (5) localizes pain, (4) withdraws to pain, (3) decorticate flexion, (2) decerebrate extension, (1) none
Define syncope
Syncope is defined as a transient, self-limited loss of consciousness with an inability to maintain postural tone, followed by spontaneous recovery.
Best diagnostic test in syncope
12 lead ECG
Etiology of syncope
1/4 Cardiovascular - arrythmia, MI, sick sinus syndrome, AS, pacemaker malfunction, PE
1/4 Noncardiovasular - situational (eg. cough, defication), orthostatic (anemia, decreased volume, drugs, autonomic insufficiency), vasovagal
1/2 Unknown -
Important points on syncope Hx
Presyncope activity, position, and symptoms
Duration of warning (longer = vasovagal)
Duration of loss of consciousness
Post syncopal symptoms
Medications
Family Hx (Heart Dz and unexplained death)
Physical exam in syncope
Orthostatic BP
CVS exam (listen for aortic stenosis)
CNS exam
Stool for occult blood
Describe the San Francisco syncope rule for risk stratification in syncope
1. History of CHF
2. Low Hematocrit
3. Abnormal ECG
4. History of Dyspnea
5. Systolic BP < 90 at triage.
Any of these present and the patient is not in the low risk group. Admit these patients for observation along with older patients with sudden onset and those with cardiac etiology.
ECG findings in PE
1. Sinus tachycardia
2. S1Q3T3: S wave in Lead 1, Q wave in lead 3, inverted T in lead
3. Inverted T waves in the precordial leads
4. RBBB indicating heart strain in large PE
5. Clockwise rotation with persistent S wave in V6, implies rotation of the heart secondary to right ventricular
dilatation
% breakdown of headache etiology
50% have tension headaches
10% migraines
30% benign nonspecific headaches
8% a headache emanating from a potentially serious cause. Less than 1% will have a life threatening reason for their headache such as a subarachnoid hemorrhage.
Pathophysiology of migraine
Migraine headaches are believed to result from changes in the reactivity of blood vessels inside and outside of the skull.
Triggers for migraine
Alcohol [especially red wine], cheeses, chocolate, caffeine, MSG, stress, change in sleep patterns, oral contraceptives, certain phases of menstrual cycle, changes in weather

Describe the International Headache Society Diagnostic Criteria for Common Migraine

A: At least 2 of the following:
1. Moderate or severe intensity
2. Pulsating quality
3. Unilateral location
4. Inhibits or prohibits daily activities
B: At least 1 of the following symptoms:
1. Nausea or vomiting
2. Phonophobia and photophobia
C: Attacks have occurred:
At least 5 times, AND Lasting 4-72 h each
List all migraine therapy options in the ED
1. Tylenol, ASA, NSAIDs
2. Neuroleptics - chlorpromazine, haloperidol
3. Dopamine antagonists – metoclopramide (maxeran), prochlorperazine (stemetil)
4. Vasoactive medications – ergotamine (DHE),
sumatriptan
Common migraine therapy
5-10 mg prochlorperazine, repeated once in 30-60 minutes if needed, with the addition of an intravenous NSAID such as ketorolac
Life threatening causes of head ache
1. Subarachnoid Hemorrhage
2. Temporal Arteritis
3. Hypertensive Encephalopathy
4. Pseudotumour Cerebri
5. Carbon Monoxide Poisoning
6. Tumour
7. Meningitis/Encephalitis
8. Pre-eclampsia
9. Cervical Artery Dissection
10. Cerebral Venous Thrombosis
11. Acute angle closure glaucoma
Clinical features of subarachnoid headache
-Sudden onset
-Often occurs with exertion (exercise, intercourse)
-Usually severe (worst headache of my life)
-Most severe at onset
-Frequently associated with nausea and vomiting
-Look for: pupillary changes, meningismus,
altered level of consciousness, focal deficits (NB: Initially may have normal neurological examination)
Diagnostic tests in suspected SAH
CT scan - perform in 6 hours window for 100% sensitivity, sensitivity decreases with time
If a patient with a suspected SAH has a normal CT scan and is beyond the 6 hour window, then a LP must be performed to look for blood in the CSF (sensitivity 100% up to 14 days)
Causes of raised ICP
Tumour
Brain Abscess
Intracerebral hemorrhage
Features of raised ICP
-Worsening of the headache when supine or bending down; frequently worse in the a.m.
-Neurological symptoms and focal findings including cranial nerve abnormalities
-Subtle, gradual changes in mood, cognition, behaviour, memory
-Absence of vomiting and photophobia
Features of meningitis
-Gradual onset of headache over hours to days
-Fever
-Altered level of consciousness
-Evidence of a focus of infection (intra or extra-
cranial)
-Meningismus
When can LP safely be performed in suspected meningitis
LP may safely be performed without CT scanning in patients with normal mental status, no focal neurologic signs, and no papilledema.
When should antibiotics be started in suspected meningitis
Antibiotics should be administered before obtaining a CT scan or awaiting LP results; standard of care is to administer antibiotics within one hour of suspecting the diagnosis of meningitis.
Clinical features of temporal arteritis
-Middle-aged to elderly
-Gradual onset of headache over days
-May have visual changes (but not universal)
-Localized headache and tenderness in the
temporal region
Red flag features on history in headache
-Sudden onset
-Most severe headache, or unlike previous
headaches
-New onset of headache at age 50 or older
-Associated neurological symptoms
Red flag features on physical exam in headache
-Pupillary changes
-Altered level of consciousness
-Abnormal vital signs, especially temperature
-Meningeal irritation
-Focal neurologic signs
Differentiate somatic vs visceral pain
Somatic pain - precisely located, sharp, piercing, arises from dermal pain fibres that enter the spinal cord at a single level
Visceral pain - poorly localized, less distinct, dull, aching, pressure, arises from internal organ pain fibres that enter the spinal cord at multiple levels (T1-T6 for organs of the thorax or upper abdomen)
Big 5 acute life threatening causes of chest pain
1. Myocardial Infarction
2. Pulmonary Embolism
3. Aortic Dissection
4. Tension Pneumothorax
5. Esophageal Rupture
DDx for chest pain
CV: MI*, aortic dissection*, cardiac tamponade*, pericarditis, myocarditis, endocarditis, arrhythmias
Resp: PE*, tension pneumothorax*, infections (pneumonia, bronchitis) 
GI: esophageal rupture*, pancreatitis, biliary colic, GERD,
esophageal spasm
MSK: costochondritis, rib fractures
Psych: panic attack (diagnosis of exclusion) 
Other: shingles
History in patients with chest pain
Characteristics of pain - OPQRST
Hx of trauma
Medications (including cocaine)
Cardiac risk factors
PE risk factors
Past and present significant illnesses, medications, allergies, drugs, smoking and alcohol use.
Placement of chest tube in pneumothorax
Thoracostomy with placement of one or more chest tubes, usually inserted in the 4th of 5th costal interspace at the anterior or mid axillary line

Landmark for needle decompression in tension pneumothorax

Needle decompression is performed at the 2nd intercostal space at the midclavicular line
Can reproducible chest pain be used to rule out MI
Reproducible chest wall pain is seen in up to 15% of MI. Tenderness on forceful palpation does not rule out an ACS.
Life threatening causes of abdominal pain
Intra-abdominal
-Ischemic bowel (middle age to elderly)
-Abdominal aortic aneurysm; dissection, leakage,
rupture (middle age to elderly)
-Hepatic or splenic injury (blunt trauma)
-Perforated viscus
-Acute pancreatitis
-Intestinal obstruction
Extra-abdominal
-Ectopic pregnancy (female of child bearing age)
-Myocardial infarction
DDx for abdominal pain (intra-abdominal)
Peritoneal inflammation -
Obstruction of hollow viscus - intestine, biliary tree, ureter
Vascular disorder - bowle ischemia, AAA
DDx for abdominal pain (extra-abdominal)
Abdominal wall - contusions, hematoma, muscle strain, trauma
Pelvic - ectopic pregnancy, salpingitis, torsion/rupture of ovarian cyst, testicular torsion
Intrathoracic - myocardial infarction, pneumonia, pulmonary embolus, esophageal disease
Metabolic - DKA, sickle cell crisis
Neurogenic - preeruptive phase of herpes zoster, spinal disc disease
Describe how location can provide clues towards the diagnosis of abdominal pain
-diverticulitis - left lower quadrant
-appendicitis - periumbilical, then right lower
quadrant
-cholelithiasis, cholecystitis - right upper quadrant
-pancreatitis - epigastric, periumbilical

Descibe symptoms that suggest peritonitis

Pain increased with coughing, driving over bumps
in the road
Which test is more specific for pancreatitis, amylase or lipase
Lipase
Tests to order in abdominal pain
CBC + dif
Urinalysis
Serum lipase/amylase
bHCG
Electrolytes, creatinine, urea are important in
patients with vomiting and diarrhea
Alkaline phosphatase and bilirubin may be
elevated with cholecystitis and obstructive biliary
tract disease
ECG
Indications for CT in abdominal pain
-trauma
-suspected ruptured or leaking aortic aneurysm
-pancreatitis
-urolithiasis, renal colic (non-contrast)
-diverticulitis
-appendicitis
Most Common Causes of surgical abdomen in the Elderly
1. Cholecystitis
2. Bowel Obstruction
3. Appendicitis
Spinal causes of back pain
1. Cauda Equina & Spinal Cord Compression (cancer spinal metastasis, central disc herniation)
2. Osteomyelitis - infection of bone or bone marrow
3. Transverse Myelitis - inflammation of spinal cord

Vascular causes of back pain

1. Aortic dissection
2. Rupturing abdominal aortic aneurysm
3. Pulmonary embolism
4. Myocardial infarction
5. Retroperitoneal bleed
Red flags in back pain
1. Constitutional symptoms including fever (cancer, epidural abscess, osteomyelitis)
2. IV drug use (epidural abscess, osteomyelitis) 
3. Immunocompromised status including
corticosteroid use (epidural abscess,
osteomyelitis)
4. Pain worse at night (cancer)
5. Urinary retention or incontinence; or fecal
incontinence (cauda equina)
6. History of cancer (spinal metastasis)
7. Spinous process tenderness (spinal causes as
above)
8. Saddle‘ parasthesia or anesthesia (cauda equina
syndrome)
10. Neurologic deficit 
11. Anticoagulant use or bleeding disorder (epidural
hematoma)
Cancer most likely to metastasize to the spine
Prostate, lung and breast
Treatment of cauda equina and spinal cord compression in the ED
1. IV opioids
2. IV dexamethasone, especially if cord compression
from tumour is suspected
3. Neurosurgery consult
What tests can be done before MRI in patients suspected of spinal cord compression or cauda equina syndrome
Post void residual volume. If > 200 mL spinal cord compression is more likely. If less than 100 mL spinal cord compression is less likely.

Define chronic pain

Chronic pain is defined as pain that persists for 6 months or more or pain that lasts beyond the expected point of resolution of tissue damage.
What is the annual risk of bleeding if NSAIDs are used continuously? 2 month risk?
NSAIDS used continuously have an annual 4 percent risk of gastrointestinal perforations, ulcers or bleeds.
Taking an NSAID for two months or more carries a one in five risk of an endoscopically proven ulcer and a one in one hundred and fifty risk of a bleeding ulcer.
What IV NSAIDs are available in Canada?
The lone intravenous NSAID available in Canada is ketorolac (Toradol). Ketorolac is effective for pain due to fractures, inflammatory conditions, renal colic, migraine headaches and sickle cell pain. The dosage of ketorolac is 30-60 mg/dose IM.
Describe metabolities and excretion of morphine
Morphine-6-glucuronide (M6G) is the active metabolite of morphine, while morphine-3- glucuronide (M3G) may be responsible for neurotoxic adverse effects such as hyperalgesia and myoclonus. Both metabolites are excreted by the kidney. Both metabolites accumulate with higher doses, renal impairment, oral route of administration and increasing age.
Dose of morphine and hydromorphone
For rapid control of acute pain, titrate morphine by intermittent IV bolus doses at 2-3 mg every 5 minutes as needed with no limitation on the number of bolus doses given. Hydromorphone may be administered at a dosage of 0.25-0.5 mg IV q 5 minutes as needed or 1-2 mg IV q3-4 h prn
Dose of Fentanyl
0.5μg/kg q5-10 mins until the patient is comfortable.
Advantages of Fentanyl over morphine
No active metabolites
No histamine release or nausea
Can be used in patients with morphine allergy
What anti-nausea medications can be paired with morphine
1. dimenhydrinate (Gravol®) 25-50 mg IV or 50 mg
IM q4h PRN
2. ondansetron (Zofran®) 8 mg or 0.15 mg/kg IV
3. prochlorperazine (Stemetil®) 10 mg IV or by
suppository, or 10-20 mg IM q8h PRN
Downside of codeine
For codeine to be effective it must be metabolized to morphine. Six to ten percent of individuals are unable to metabolize codeine and are thus unable to derive analgesic benefit from the drug.
Formulation of Percocet
Acetominophen + oxycodone
Describe how opioid doses change in the elderly
Sensitivity of the elderly brain to fentanyl is increased by 50%. The dosage of morphine and fentanyl may be 2-4 fold times lower in that age group.
Describe pain management in osteoporotic vertebral compression fractures
Calcitonin has been shown to relieve pain associated with osteoporotic vertebral compression fractures. The recommended dosage is 200 IU per day IM or 400 IU per day by nasal spray (1x 200 IU spray per nostril).
How effective is reperfusion therapy in decreasing mortality in MI
Reperfusion therapy (pharmacological or mechanical) decreases mortality by 25 to 50 %, and improves left ventricular function
Symptoms of acute MI
-crushing retrosternal chest pain
-radiation of pain to arm or jaw (right arm more specific)
-diaphoresis
-nausea/vomiting
-dyspnea
Common presentation of MI in the elderly
Presentation in the elderly is often without pain and diaphoresis, but with an increased frequency of neurological symptoms such as syncope, stroke, acute confusion, and weakness as the presenting complaint.

Describe the Killip classification of hemodynamic status in MI

Killip l: well perfused, chest clear
Killip ll: some pulmonary congestion (orthopnea, crackles)
Killip lll: pulmonary edema (severe shortness of breath, crackles above scapulae)
Killip lV: poor perfusion, cardiogenic shock
ECG findings in acute MI
-increase in R wave voltage, usually in the precordial leads (early)
-hyperacute T waves, usually in the precordial leads and over 10mm (early)
-ST segment elevation (early)
-Q waves (hours later)
Describe how ECG findings can help localize the area of infarction
II, III, AVF - inferior
V1-V3 - anteroseptal
1, AVL, V4 –V6 - lateral
V1-V6 - anterolateral
V8,V9 - posterior
Causes of ST elevation
-pericarditis
-hyperkalemia
-LV aneurysm
-LBBB
-LVH
-hypothermia.
Why is chest x-ray performed in patients with suspected MI
R/O aortic dissection - look for a widened mediastinum and a pleural effusion
How long after the onset of symptoms will patients with MI have a rise in troponin
Troponin will not be positive for at least 2 to 6 hours. Serial troponin must be done 6-9 hours after arrival.
Troponin peaks at 12-24 hours after infarction.
Causes of elevated troponin
MI
Renal failure
Sepsis
Describe complications of acute MI
-Arrhythmias
-Conduction disturbances - AV blocks
-LV pump failure - cardiogenic shock, assess
Killip status
-Mechanical defects - cardiac rupture, VSD, papillary muscle dysfunction
-Thromboembolism - can be prevented with heparin
-Pericarditis - occurs 5-7 days following an acute MI
How effective is aspirin in decreasing mortality in MI
2-4 baby aspirin chewed decreased mortality up to 21%
Describe caution that must be taken in inferior MI
Right ventricular infarctions occur in approximately 1/3 of all inferior MI's, suggesting more proximal occlusions of their right coronary artery. Right ventricular (RV) ischemia results in decreased RV stroke volume, impairing filling of the left ventricle. Cardiac output is reduced, and systemic BP drops. It is therefore critically important to avoid drugs that result in venodilatation if the patient might have RV infarction. These patients are preload dependent, and drugs such as NTG may precipitate dramatic hypotension. Suspect RV infarction on all patients with inferior MI's. Do right-sided precordial leads (specifically V4R) looking for ST elevation.
What is the time window for performing thrombolysis in acute MI
Ideally the first hour or two after the onset of symptoms. Thrombolytic therapy may be beneficial up to 12 hours after symptom onset, early therapy achieves maximal myocardial salvage and helps preserve left ventricular function.

Indications and mechanism of action for thrombolytics in MI

Thrombolytics activate plasminogen to lyse clot.
They are indicated for all acute infarcts with ST elevation >1mm in two contiguous leads
They are not indicated if the ECG is normal or shows ST segment depression.
Contraindications to thrombolytic therapy
-recent major surgery or any active internal bleeding
-history of hemorrhagic strokes, or any recent stroke
-severe uncontrolled hypertension
-known intracranial neoplasm, AVM, or aneurysm
-suspected aortic dissection
Describe treatment recommendations regarding reperfusion therapy in STEMI
1. Patients presenting to a hospital with PCI capability should be treated with primary PCI within 90 minutes
2. Patients presenting to a hospital without PCI capability and who cannot be transferred to a PCI centre and undergo PCI within 90 minutes of first medical contact should be treated with fibrinolytic therapy within 30 minutes of hospital presentation.
At what point should heparin be given to patients with STEMI
Following thrombolytics, heparin is indicated to prevent rethrombosis. It should be initiated immediately following the thrombolytic.
Advantages of LMWH over unfractionated heparin
-more predictable anticoagulant effect
-no need for PTT monitoring
-lower rates of thrombocytopenia
-better bioavailability
At what point should clopidogrel be given to patients with STEMI
Dose for patients 75 and under: 300 mg as adjunctive therapy to TNK; 600 mg as adjunctive therapy to PCI.
The earlier the clopidogrel is given the better.
Describe the pathophysiology of heart failure
-cardiac output decreases, reflex arterial vasoconstriction redistributes blood flow so that the brain and heart remain well perfused
-drop in renal blood flow activates the renin- angiotensin-aldosterone system, causing increased sodium and fluid retention
-decreased cardiac output also results in an increase in left atrial and left ventricle filling pressures, which is in turn reflected in elevated pulmonary capillary pressures
-elevated pressure causes pulmonary edema.
How do you differentiate systolic from diastolic dysfunction in CHF
Systolic - low cardiac output, ejection fraction <40%, dilated LV, poor contractility, fatigue, lethargy, hypotension
Diastolic - impaired ventricular compliance, ejection fraction >40%, backward failure, dyspnea, peripheral edema, ascites,
Causes of congestive heart failure

-Coronary artery disease
-Hypertension
-Valvular heart disease
-Cardiomyopathy (dilated, hypertrophic,
restrictive)
-Pericardial disease
-Metabolic disorders (e.g. hypothyroidism) 
-Viral myocarditis
-Toxins

Precipitants of acute CHF
Cardiac - infarction, tachy/bradyarrhythmias, mechanical complications of acute MI
Drugs - beta-blocker, CCB, NSAIDs, steroids
Dietary - increased Na
High output - anemia, infection, pregnancy, hyperthyroidism
Other - iatrogenic fluid overload, renal failure, hypertensive crisis, drug/alcohol
Symptoms of congestive heart failure
-Dyspnea
-Orthopnea, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea
-Cough, wheezing
-Fatigue, generalized weakness
-Edema of lower limbs, increased abdominal girth
Physical exam findings in congestive heart failure

-Tachypnea, tachycardia, hypertension or hypotension, hypoxia
-Crackles, wheezes
-S3, S4
-Jugular venous distension, hepatojugular reflux
-Hepatomegaly
-Dependent edema
-Weak peripheral pulses, cool extremities, i.e.
hypoperfusion

Chest x-ray findings in acute congestive heart failure
-cardiomegaly
-increase in prominence of upper lung fields (pulmonary vascular redistribution)
-interstitial edema and obliteration of vasculature structures
-kerley B lines (1-2 cm lines perpendicular to the pleura and continuous with it, representing edematous septal lines)
-pleural effusions (usually absent in acute pulmonary edema)
Investigations to be done in CHF
-CXR
-ECG
-troponin
-BNP
-renal function
-electrolytes (hyponatremia)
Treatment of acute congestive heart failure
-Nitroglycerin 0.4 mg sublingual q 5 min. (if sBP >
100) +/- Nitrodur 0.4 - 0.8 mg/hr topical
-Furosemide 40 - 100 mg IV (if sBP > 100), if no response double dose
-CPAP or BiPAP if hypoxic on 100% O2
-if sBP <90 and no shock give dobutamine (milrinone if taking beta-blocker), if sings of shock give dopamine
DDx for PEA, Asystole, Ventricular Fibrillation, and Ventricular Tachycardia
H's and T's
Hypovolemia
H+ (acidosis)
Hypothermia
Hypo/Hyperkalemia
Hypoxia

Tension pneumothorax
Toxins
Tamponade cardiac
Thrombosis cardiac
Thrombosis pulmonary
Describe drug therapy during cardiac arrest
epinephrine IV 1 mg every 3-5 minutes
amiodarone IV 300 mg bolus
What should be done for narrow complex tachycardia that is symptomatic but stable
Synchronized cardioversion
OR
Adenosine 6 mg rapid IV push
What antiarrhythmics should be used in stable wide-QRS tachycardia.
procainamide
amiodarone
sotalol
Treatment of persistant symptomatic bradycardia
Atropine
Dopamine
Epinephrine
Describe the stanford classification of aortic dissection
Stanford type A dissections involve the ascending aorta, where type B dissections are more distal. Type A dissections are more common and are associated with increased mortality.
Risk factors for aortic dissection
-Male
-Elderly (>65 years)
-History of hypertension
-Pregnancy
-Family or personal history of aneurysm or dissection
-Connective tissue disease (Marfan‘s, or Ehlers-
Danlos syndromes)
-Cocaine use
-Congenital bicuspid aortic valve
History and physical in aortic dissection
History: sudden onset chest pain felt maximally at onset, hypertension, chest pain + syncope, abdominal pain, or ischemic symptoms to lower extremitiy
Physical: aortic regurgitation murmor, pulse differential between carotid, radial and femoral
Chest x-ray findings in aortic dissection
-left pleural effusion
-wide mediastinum
-aortic calcification >5mm from the outside of the expanded aortic contour
Management of aortic dissection
-analgesia
-blood pressure control - labetolol titrated to target BP of 120/80 and sodium nitroprusside adjuvant
-Stafford type A - surgical management
-Stafford type B - medical management
Risk factors for AAA

-Hypertension
-Age greater than 50
-Male
-Peripheral vascular disease and/or coronary
artery disease
-Family history of aneurysm
-Smoking
-Diabetes
-Connective tissue disease

History in AAA
-sudden onset abdominal, back, or flank pain
-syncope (due to transient hypotension)
-unexplained hypotension
Physical exam in AAA
-palpable aorta (majority infrarenal, palpable just above aorta)
-diminished femoral pulses
-signs of distal micro-embolism "blue toe syndrome"
Investigations in AAA
-ED ultrasound - AAA if > 3cm, can not determine if ruptured because most ruptures are retroperitoneal
-CT scan
Classic history in arterial occlusion
6 P's
-Parasthesia
-Pain
-Pallor
-Pulselessness
-Poikilothermia (cool to touch)
-Paralysis
Virchow's triad.
-venous stasis
-injury to the vessel wall
-hypercoagulable state
Risk factors for venous thrombosis
"THROMBOSIS"
T - Trauma, travel
H - Hypercoagulable, hormone replacement
R - Recreational drugs (IV drugs)
O - Old (age > 60)
M - Malignancy
B - Birth control pill
O - Obesity, obstetrics
S - Surgery, smoking
I - Immobilization
S - Sickness (CHF/MI, nephrotic syndrome, IBD, vasculitis)
Classic features of DVT
-pain
-redness
-swelling
-warmth
-tenderness
Investigations in suspected DVT
-doppler ultrasound (gold standard), if neg. but moderate/high risk proceed to d-dimer or repeat U/S in 7 days. If neg and neg d-dimer DVT is ruled out.
-computed tomographic venography
Management of PE or proven DVT
-early ambulation
-analgesia
-LMWH (eg. enoxaprin) or fondaparinux. Continued until warfarin is therapeutic for 2 days
-warfarin (started at same time as LMWH and continued for 3 months if known cause, 6 months if unknown etiology)
-if massive PE thrombolytics can be used
Classic triad of PE
-Pleuritic chest pain
-Hemoptysis
-Dyspnea
Well's Criteria
Clinical signs of DVT - 3.0
Alternative diagnosis less likely than PE - 3.0
Heart rate > 100 - 1.5
Immobilization or surgery within 4 weeks - 1.5
Previous DVT/PE - 1.5
Hemoptysis - 1.0
Malignancy (ongoing treatment/palliative) - 1.0
What is the PERC rule? How is it applied?

Pulmonary Embolism Rule-Out Criteria (‘PERC’ Rule)
1. age < 50
2. heart rate < 100
3. oxygen saturation of > 94% on room air
4. no previous history of DVT or PE
5. no recent surgery
6. no hemoptysis
7. no estrogen use
8. no clinical signs of DVT
No objective testing needed if all criteria met and patient has <15% chance of having a PE (low risk/<2 points Well's criteria).

DDx for SOB and wheezing
Asthma, COPD, CHF, upper airway obstruction, pneumonia, ACS, and PE
Define pulsus paradoxus. Which diseases is it a sign of?
Abnormally large decrease in sBP during inspiration >10 mmHg.
Cardiac tamponade, pericarditis, chronic sleep apnea, COPD, asthma.
Investigations in asthma and COPD
-peak expiratory flow rate – helps determine severity and guide therapy
-consider CXR
-consider ECG/cardiac workup
-ABG if deteriorating (pCO2 level indicates
severity and fatigue)
Treatment of acute asthma
1. Oxygen - titrated to at least 92%
2. Salbutamol (Ventolin)
3. Ipratropium (Atrovent)
4. Steroids (Prednisone 40-60mg PO)
5. Magnesium sulfate - 2g IV over 20 mins
6. Assisted ventilation
Which patients are safe to discharge home following an asthma attack
FEV1 > 60% predicted - generally safe to discharge
FEV1 40-60% predicted - discharge possible based on risk factors for recurrance
FEV1 <40% - admit
Discharge instructions following asthma attack
-SABA (salbutamol) 2- 4 puffs q4h, then prn once symptoms controlled and return if use required more than q1-2h
-Oral corticosteroids for patients with moderate to severe attack - prednisone 30-60 mg/day for 7-14 days (no need to taper)
ICS – Beclomethasone or Budesonide (500-1000 ug/d) or continue inhaled steroid (if patient already on inhaled steroid)
Symptoms of COPD exacerbation
-Dyspnea
-Cough
-Sputum production
Investigations in acute exacerbation of COPD
CXR, ECG, ABG, CBC, and routine biochemistry
Spirometry is not useful in managing acute exacerbations
Treatment of COPD exacerbation
-O2 - saturation targeted at 88-92%, PaO2 60-65 mmHg
-Inhaled B2 agonist (Salbutamol) – 2.5-5 mg via nebulizer q15min x3 prn
+/- anticholinergic (Ipratropium) – 500ug via nebulizer q15min x3 prn
-prednisone 50 mg OD
-antibiotics if all 3 symptoms, 2 if sputum present (Levoquin)
-CPAP or BiPAP
Common causes of upper GI bleeding
75% PUD, gastric erosions, and verices
1. Peptic Ulcer Disease - H.pylori or
NSAIDS
2. Varices (esophageal or gastric)
3. Mallory-Weiss tears
4. Gastritis
5. Esophagitis

Define esophagitis. What are the causes?

Inflammation of the esophagus producing symptoms of nausea and heartburn.
Causes - infectious (fungal, viral), reflux esophagitis, chemical or pill, eosinophilic esophagitis
Common causes of lower GI bleeding
80% diverticulosis and angiodysplasia
1. Diverticulosis
2. Angiodysplasia (dilated tortuous submucosal
vessels)
3. Neoplasm
4. Inflammatory bowel disease
5. Anorectal disease (proctitis,hemorrhoids,
fissures)
Common causes of LGIB in children less than 2
Meckel's diverticulum
Intussiception
Presentation of chronic GI bleed
Anemia, chest pain, shortness of breath, or fatigue
History in GI bleed
-symptoms or risks for GI bleeding
-protracted wretching or vomiting
-features of malignancy
-previous GI bleeds and their cause
-presence of liver disease or alcohol use
-surgical history (AAA repair or peptic ulcer
surgery)
-medication review (especially anticoagulants
such as coumadin, ASA, clopidogrel (Plavix), dabigatran (Pradax), NSAIDS)
Investigations in suspected GI bleed
-CBC
-PTT/INR
-group + screen (consider cross and type)
-BUN/Cr ( BUN/creatinine ratio > 10:1 is suggestive of UGIB) -LFT
Management of GI bleed
-2 large bore IV's
-Type and cross match blood. Transfuse young, healthy people if still unstable after 2 L NS or HgB < 70. Transfuse elderly if HgB < 100.
-If INR > 1.5 give FFP + vit K or prothrombin complex concentrate (octaplex) + vit K
-PPI for suspected UGIB - pantoloc 80 mg IV
-Octreotide (sandostatin) or vasopressin for esophageal
vadrices
-Endoscopy or colonscopy
What % of strokes are ischemic vs hemorrhagic
Ischemic 80%
Hemorrhagic 20%
Define TIA
A transient episode of neurological dysfunction caused by focal brain, spinal cord, or retinal ischemia, without acute infarction
Symptoms of a stroke
-abrupt onset, focal symptoms.
-arm, leg, or face numbness or weakness
-speech disturbance or difficulty understanding speech
-vision disturbance, especially in one eye
-severe headache
-vertigo
Feature that make stroke less likely
-decreased level of consciousness
-gradual onset
-fluctuating signs
-fever
-no focal signs
Blood pressure guidelines in stroke
Only lower if BP >220/120 or > 185/110 if using tPA.
Do not treat too aggressively as it may lead to under perfusion of the punumbra.
Management of stroke
-tPA (alteplase) if ischemic and within 4.5 hours
-ASA, Plavix, Aggrenox as soon as hemorrhagic stroke ruled out
Exclusion criteria for receiving tPA in ischemic stroke
-History of intracranial hemorrhage at any time
-Serious head trauma in past 3 months
-Major surgery in the past 2 weeks
-Non-compressible arterial puncture in past 7 days
-INR > 1.7, or platelets <100,000
-Blood glucose <2.7 or >22.2
Describe the ABCD2 score. What is it used for?

Estimates risk of stroke after TIA. Admit patients with a score of 5 or 6.
Age > 60 (1)
Blood pressure > 140/90 (1)
Clinical feature - unilateral weakness (2), speech deficit (1), other (0)
Duration of symptoms - > 59 min. (2), 10-59 (1), <10 (0)
Diabetes (1)

Describe the CHADS2-Vasc score. What is it used for?
CHADS2 score estimates stroke risk in patients with AFIB
CHF (1)
HTN (1)
Age >75 (2), 65-74 (1)
Diabetes (1)
Stroke or TIA previously (2)
Sex (female) (1)
Vascular disease - MI or peripheral arterial disease (1)
How should the CHADS2-Vasc be interpretted.
If score 0, patients should receive daily ASA
If score 1, patients may receive either warfarin or dabigatran or ASA
If score 2 or greater, patients should receive either warfarin or dabigatran
Define seizure

A seizure is a clinical manifestation of abnormal neurologic function caused by aberrant electrical firing of neurons in the brain.

Define status epilepticus
Continuous or intermittent seizure activity for more than 5 minutes without regaining consciousness
Etiology of status epilepticus
Withdrawal - anticonvulsants, EtOH, benzo, barbituates
Toxins - anticholingerics, sympathomimetics, ASA, lithium, lidocaine, isonazid
Structural - brain tumor, ICH, stroke
Cerebral injury - infection, trauma, hypoxia
Metabolic - hypoglycemia, hypo/hypernatremia, hypocalcemia, lactic acidosis, uremia
Ecclampsia
Investigations in status epilepticus
-Immediate bedside glucose level
-CBC, electrolytes, anticonvulsant drug levels,
venous blood gas, calcium, Mg, ETOH level,
serum salicylates, urine toxicology screen
-ECG, LP, CT head and other imaging must be deferred until seizure activity has stopped
Treatment of status epilepticus
-Lorazepam: 2-4mg IV q2min, up to 0.1 mg/kg IV, maximum 8–10 mg
-If seizure fails to resolve in 5-10 minutes start a second IV and give Phenytoin 20 mg/kg IV administered at a rate of 25-50 mg/min (may repeat 10mg/kg dose once to total dose 30 mg/kg) *must be run in separate IV line
-Phenobarbital 20 mg/kg IV at 50 mg/min
-Propofol: 2-5 mg/kg IV loading dose and then 2-
10 mg/kg/hr
Blood tests to differentiate pseudoseizure from status epilepticus
Patients with SE will develop a transient physiologic leucocytosis, elevation of serum lactate and prolactin levels. These markers will not be elevated in patients with pseudoseizures.
Most common side effects of benzodiazapens
Respiratory depression and confusion
Management of agitated patient
lorazepam (Ativan) 0.5-2 mg PO
haloperidol (Haldol) 2-10 mg IM, can be given with lorazepam in same syringe
Definition of diabetic ketoacidosis
DKA is characterized by the triad of hyperglycemia, ketosis, and acidosis.
One of the more widely accepted criteria of DKA is serum Glucose > 16, pH <7.30, and Bicarbonate <18.
What causes the acidosis in DKA
As blood glucose rises, the renal glucose threshold is reached and glucose is excreted into the urine, leading to an osmotic diuresis. This diuresis in turn, leads to losses of glucose, electrolytes, and water, potentially causing dehydration, poor tissue perfusion and lactic acid production.
Causes of DKA
1. Lack of insulin (initial presentation of diabetes, non compliance, under dosing)
2. Infection
3. Myocardial infarction
4. Pulmonary embolism
5. Stroke
6. Pancreatitis
7. Substance abuse
8. Medications (steroids)
9. Trauma
10. Surgery
Typical presentation of DKA
Polydipsia, polyuria
Nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain
Signs of decreased volume - tachycardia, hypotension, tachypnea, flat JVP, poor skin turgor
Investigations in DKA and HHS
CBC, electrolytes, creatinine
Glucose, serum and urine ketones, serum osmolality
Liver function tests, amylase, calcium, magnesium, phosphate, troponin and an EKG and a blood gas.
Difference in pH of venous and arterial blood gas
Venous blood gas pH levels are approx. 0.03 units lower than ABG pH levels
Treatment of DKA and HHS
1. Fluid resuscitation
2. Glucose control with Insulin
3. Correction of potassium
Long form:
1. Fluids - total body water loss is estimated at 5-8L or 100mL/kg in a typical adult male with DKA. Generally speaking, half of the fluid deficit should be replaced in the first 8 hours while the remainder is infused over the next 16 hours. When the serum glucose falls to approximately 16 mmol/L, the intravenous fluid should be changed to a dextrose containing solution
2. Insulin - can not be given in K is < 3.3 mmol/L. Give 0.1 U/kg/hr of insulin IV. Goal is to lower the blood glucose by 3-5 mmol/L per hour. Measure glucose ever 30-60 minutes. Once glucose falls below 14 mmol/L switch to subcutaneous insulin.
3. Potassium - f the K is between 3.3-5.0mmol/L, administer 20-30 mmol/L of KCl with each liter of fluid. If the K is > 5.0, no K is given and it should be rechecked in 2 hours. If the K is <3.3, hold the insulin and give 40 mmol/L KCL in the 1st hr and then 20-30 mmol/L in an effort to keep the K between 4-5.
Describe psuedohyponatremia as it relates to DKA
Pseudohyponatremia - for every increase in serum glucose by 10 mmol/L (above normal ~ 6 mmol/L), the true serum sodium is actually about 3 mmol/L higher than the measured value.
Define hyperosmolar hyperglycemia state (HHS)

HHS is seen predominantly in type 2 diabetics and is generally defined by the presence of: serum glucose > 33.3 mmol/L, pH>7.3, bicarbonate >15, anion gap <12, serum osmolality >320 mOsm/kg, and the absence of serum ketones.

What is the key distinguishing feature between DKA and HHS
The key distinguishing feature between HHS and DKA is the absence of serum ketones.
Whipple's triad of hypoglycemia
1. Low plasma glucose
2. Symptoms suggestive of hypoglycemia
3. Prompt resolution of symptoms with administration of glucose.
Causes of hypoglycemia

Excessive insulin use, alcohol intoxication, sepsis, liver disease, or the use of oral anti-hyperglycemics (i.e. sulfonylureas)

Symptoms of hypoglycemia
Autonomic - diaphoresis, nausea, hunger, tachycardia and palpitations.
Neuroglycopenic - headaches, confusion, seizures, and coma.
Treatment of hypoglycemia in the ED
IV D50 (dextrose 50%) at 1g per kg, typically starting with 1 ampoule (50g).
Area affected by anterior and posterior epistaxis
Anterior epistaxis (90%) - Kiesselbach‘s plexus (Little‘s area) on the anterior-inferior nasal septum.
Posterior epistaxis - posterior branch of the sphenopalatine artery (Woodruff's area).
Treatment of anterior epistaxis
1. Compress the soft, cartilaginous part of the nose for 10-15 minutes.
2. Place an anterior pack with lidocaine + epi on soaked pledgets. To be removed in 48-72 hours.
3. Give anti-Staph antibiotics (cloxacillin or cephalexin) to prevent sinusitis or TSS if placing anterior packing.
Which of the complications of group A Strep can be prevented with antiobiotic therapy
Antibiotics prevent acute rheumatic fever but not post-strep glomerulonephritis
Signs and symptoms of epiglottitis
-prodrome of typical URTI
-severe sore throat, dysphagia, odynophagia and muffled voice
-tenderness to palpation of the hyoid bone and the larynx
-thumb print sign on lateral x-ray
Treatment of epiglottitis
1. Airway management involving ENT, ICU or anaesthesia
2. ceftriaxone 1 g IV
When should you consider epiglottitis
Consider epiglottitis when the patient has a severe
sore throat or looks toxic, and the pharyngeal
exam is unimpressive
Describe the Centor criteria for Strep pharyngitis
1. Presence of fever >38 C
2. Tonsillar exudates
3. Swollen anterior cervical lymph nodes
4. Absence of cough
Most common orbital bone fractured
How is diagnosis confirmed

Infraorbital bone
Diagnosis confirmed with x-ray (facial view) and confirmed with CT

Which lacerations around the eye should be referred to an opthomalogist
Lacerations through the tarsal plate or the lacrimal apparatus and lacerations that involve the lid margin.
How can corneal abrasions be detected
Fluorescein stain and cobalt blue filter
Symptoms of corneal abrasion
Painful red eye, foreign body sensation and mild photophobia.
Treatment of corneal abrasion
-topical antibiotics (such as polymyxin B/trimethoprim drops or fusithalmic ointment)
-pain relief with either topical NSAID drops (like diclofenac or ketorolac) or oral narcotics.
-do not use tetracaine drops or eye patch
Define hyphema. What is the initial treatment?
Blood in the anterior chamber. Usually see a blood layer inferiorly.
Treatment involves protecting the eye with an eye shield and referral to an ophthalmologist. They will be followed on a daily basis until resolution to detect complications such as secondary glaucoma, corneal staining, or secondary rebleeding.
Signs and symptoms of post traumatic glacoma
-Intense eye pain or headache, nausea and vomiting, mild photophobia, and decreased vision.
-fixed mid-dilated pupil, injected conjunctiva, a cloudy cornea, decreased visual acuity, and an increase in intraocular pressure (usually >40)
When should retinal detachment be suspected
If the patient complains of new floaters and flashes of light or a visual deficit often described as a curtain falling over the visual field of the affected eye.
Treatment of acute angle glaucoma
1. Topical pilocarpine
2. Topical timolol
3. I V acetozolamide
4. IV mannitol
5. Laser iridotomy.
Typical presentation of optic neuritis. What is it associated with?
Young women between the ages of 20-40 who present with a decrease in their vision as well as retroocular pain and pain with eye movement.
Optic neuritis is the presenting complaint in 50% of cases of MS
Causes of painless vision loss
-retinal detachment
-central retinal artery or vein occlusion
-amaurosis fugax (TIA of retinal artery)
-occipital stroke
What percent of patients with nephrolithiasis have microscopic or gross hematuria?
70-90%
What causes falsely elevated serum

Hemolysis of sample
or
Severe thrombocytosis or leukocytosis.

Most common causes of hyperkalemia
Renal failure (missed dialysis)
Medications (ACEi, NSAIDs, K sparing diuretics, succinylcholine, digoxin)
Acute acidosis
Cell death (trauma, burns, crush injuries)
Increased K intake (supplements)
Presentation of hyperkalemia

Generally nonspecific or asymptomatic
Muscle weakness, cramps, or occasionally focal neurologic signs

ECG changes in hyperkalemia
1. Tall peaked T waves and ST segment depression (approx. 5.5mEq/L)
2. Loss of P waves
3. Widening of the QRS complex, prolongation of the PR interval
4. Sine wave pattern
5. Asystole or ventricular fibrillation
Management of hyperkalemia
Mnemonic: C BIG K Die - CaCl, beta agonist, bicarb, insulin/glucose, kayexalate, diuretic and dialysis

1. Protect the heart: Calcium chloride IV. This is indicated if there is evidence of QRS widening or patient is hypotensive.
2. Decrease serum K: 1-2amps D50W + Insulin 10 units (approx. 1mEq decrease). Beta agonist, salbutamol via continuous nebulization. Bicarbonate if acidotic or fluids if dehydrated.
3. Excrete K: kayexalate, diuretic (if kidney function), dialysis
Criteria for systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS)
More than 2 of:
>38 C or < 36 C
Pulse >90 beats/min
RR >20 breaths/min (or PaCO2<30mmHg)
WBC >12 x 10*9 cells/l or < 4 x 10*9 cells/l or
>10% bands
Define sepsis, severe sepsis, and septic shock
Sepsis - SIRS in response to an infection
Severe Sepsis - sepsis and signs of organ dysfunction (e.g. acute lung injury, coagulopathy, altered mental status, renal failure, decreased urine output, liver failure, lactic acidosis etc.)
Septic Shock – severe sepsis and hypotension (sBP<90) unresponsive to IV crystalloid fluid bolus.
Treatment of septic shock
1. ABC's monitors, lines, IV's
2. IV fluids - 20-40 mL/kg over 15-30 mins and 500 mL's every 15-30 minutes. Some patients may require 6-8 L's to achieve MAP and CVP targets.
3. Antibiotics - piperacillin-tazobactam 4.5 g IV with vancomycin 1g IV if MRSA is suspected and azithromycin 500mg IV if pneumonia is suspected
4. Surgical intervention or removal of old lines/catheters
5. Early goal directed therapy
6. Others: steroids (IV hydrocortisone), intubation, sedation, paralysis
Describe early goal directed therapy for severe sepsis and septic shock
1. CVP is measured through a central line (internal jugular or subclavian) and a target of 8- 12 mmHg is achieved through frequent fluid boluses.
2. MAP of 65-90 mmHg is achieved by giving vasopressors (dopamine or norepinephrine).
3. Central venous oxygen saturation of >70% by giving packed red blood cells to achieve a hemoglobin of 90 and dobutamine is given for its inotropic effect
Define anaphylaxis
Anaphylaxis is a severe allergic reaction to any stimulus, (usually) having sudden onset and generally lasting less than 24 hours, involving one or more body systems and producing one or more symptoms
Signs and symptoms of anaphylaxis
Urticaria, angioedema (88%)
Upper airway edema (56%)
Dyspnea, wheeze (47%)
Dizziness, syncope, hypotension (33%)
Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, cramping, abdominal pain (30%)
Pathophysiology
IgE-mediated allergic phenomenon. Allergic anaphylaxis requires prior exposure and sensitization to an allergen. When a recognized allergen binds IgE on the surface of mast cells and plasma basophils, causing them to degranulate and release histamine and other bioactive mediators.
What causes hives and angioedema?
Histamine causes increased capillary permeability and vasodilation. In the skin, this leads to urticaria. In subcutaneous tissue, this causes angioedema.
Management of anaphylaxis

1. ABC's - including intubation or surgical airway
2. 100% O2 via nonrebreather mask
3. epinephrine 0.3–0.5 mg IM (0.01 mg/kg in children) of 1:1000
4. Inhaled beta agonist
5. 1-2 L cyrstalloid if hypotensive
6. H1 receptor blocker dyphenhydramine 50 mg IV (1mg/kg) and an H2 receptor blocker such as ranitidine 50mg (1 mg/kg) IV should both be given.
7. Steroids to reduce second phase reaction - Methylpredinsone 1 mg/kg IV

How should anaphylaxis be treated in patients on a beta blocker?
Try epi first. If unsuccessful give glucagon 1 mg IV, in repeat doses every 5 minutes (max 10 doses). If bolus administration is successful, a glucagon infusion should be started at 1–5 mg/hr.
Dose of epinephrine to give in anaphylaxis reaction
Epinephrine 0.01 mg/kg IM (1:1000)
or
0.5 mg IM (1:1000)
Medications that can cause serotonin syndrome
Antidepressants: SSRI, SNRI, MAOI, lithium
Antibiotic: linezolid (MAOI activity)
Stimulants: cocaine, amphetamine, ecstasy
Migraines: sumatriptans
Opiods: meperidine, dextromethorphan, tramadol
Herbal remedies: St. John‘s Wort
Triad of serotonin syndrome
1. Altered mental status (confusion, agitation, coma)
2. Autonomic nervous system dysfunction (fever,
shivering, sweating, diarrhea, tachycardia, tachypnea, high or low BP)
3. Neuromuscular abnormalities (ataxia, hyperreflexia, myoclonus, tremor, rigidity, akathisia)
Medications causing QT prolongation
amiodarone
procainamide
haloperidol
fluorquinolones
macrolides
fluconazole
Define menorrhagia/hypermenorrhea and metrorrhagia
Menorrheagia - menses >7 days or >80mL, or <21 day recurrence
Metrorrhagia - irregular vaginal bleeding outside the normal cycle
Life threatening causes of vaginal bleeding

Ectopic pregnancy
Abruptio placentae
Placenta previa
Uterine rupture
Post-partum hemorrhage
Post partum or post procedural endometritis 
Trauma

Causes of vaginal bleeding in prepubertal females
Vaginitis (10%)
Precocious puberty (21%)
GU tumors (10%)
Vulvar pathology (8%)
Trauma (including sexual abuse) (8%).
Describe the prevalence of first trimester vaginal bleeding. What is the risk of abortion
Up to 40% of women have cramping and spotting during the first 20 weeks of gestation. Half of these women (20%) undergo first trimester abortion and 60% of those are related to chromosomal abnormalities. Bleeding and expulsion of uterine contents usually starts a week after the death of the fetus.
Treatment of incomplete abortion under 12 weeks
Misoprostol can be given for incomplete abortion (success rate of 66-93%).
What bHCG level must be achieved before an intrauterine pregnancy can be seen on transvaginal U/S

At levels of 500-1500 IU/L, an intrauterine sac should be seen on trans-vaginal ultrasound

Management of ectopic pregnancy
Methotrexate - if stable, able to follow up, bHCG level < 5000 mIU/L, and no fetal cardiac activity
Surgical
Causes of vaginal bleeding in 3rd trimester
Placenta previa, abruptio placentae, and uterine rupture.
Causes of postpartum hemorrhage
Uterine atony
Uterine rupture
Lacerations/tears
Retained placental tissue
Uterine inversion
Coagulopathy
Definition of gestational hypertension
Systolic BP >140mmHg or diastolic BP >90 developing after the 20th week of gestation
No proteinuria
BP returns to normal within 12 weeks post-partum
Definition of preeclampsia
Systolic BP >140mmHg or diastolic BP >90 after
20 weeks gestation
Proteinuria >300mg/24hr (>1+ dipstick is
suggestive)
Definition of eclampsia
Grand mal seizures that cannot be attributed to other causes in women with preeclampsia
Describe HELLP syndrome
-Hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, low platelets
-Decreased organ perfusion secondary to
vasospasm and endothelial activation in pre-eclamptic
-May also result in bleeding, pulmonary edema,
renal insufficiency, infection, CNS morbidity
Treatment of severe preeclampsia and eclampsia
-Treat severe preeclampsia with IV magnesium sulfate (4-6g loading then 2g/hour to maintain levels 4.8-8.4 mg/dL) to prevent seizures. Also used to prevent recurrent seizures.
-Antihypertensives: Hydralazine 5mg doses in 15 minute intervals when diastolic BP >105mmHg or systolic >160 until diastolic 90-100 mmHg or IV Labetolol 20 mg IV followed by repeat doses every 10 minutes, maximum dose 300mg.
-Fluid: 60-125 cc/hr maximum even if oliguric to avoid pulmonary and cerebral edema.
Describe an approach to hematuria in the ED
Painful - obstruction, stone, UTI, trauma
Painless - urinary tract cancer (renal, bladder, ureter), anticoagulation, BPH
History in patients with renal colic
-Renal colic typically presents as sudden onset of unilateral flank pain that radiates anteriorly and inferiorly toward the groin.
-Patients are commonly described as writhing in pain, and are often unable to find a comfortable position to relieve their symptoms.
-Patients with renal colic often have nausea and/or vomiting.
Physical exam findings in patients with renal colic
-Mild tachycardia or hypertension due to pain
-The main and often only physical exam finding in renal colic is unilateral CVA tenderness. In general, there should not be any significant anterior abdominal tenderness.
DDx of renal colic
AAA - renal colic is rare in elderely, r/o AAA in all patients over 50
Aortic dissection
Renal artery thrombosis
Appendicitis
Pyelonephritis
Ectopic pregnancy
Investigations in renal colic
-urine dipstick reveals microscopic hematuria, no white blood cells, and no nitrites
-noncontrast CT for elderly, 1st presentation, and uncertain diagnosis
Treatment of renal colic

-Pain management with morphine + Naproxen (po) or Toradol (IV)
-alpha-blocker such as Tamsulosin (Flomax) 0.4mg once daily for 7-10 days
-Fluids

Prognosis of stone passage in renal colic
If the stone is 4 mm or smaller, they will eventually be passed 90% of the time.
Stones 5-7 mm have a 50% chance of passing spontaneously.
Stones larger than 7mm are unlikely to pass spontaneously, and should be referred for consideration of lithotripsy.
Most common causes of paediatric cardiac arrest
1. Underlying respiratory abnormality (most common)
2. Circulatory failure from hypovolemia (loss of fluid or blood, sepsis)
Differences and considerations in pediatric vs. adult airway
-large tongue relative to oral cavity

-higher and more anterior larynx (c3-c4 vs c5-c6)

-long floppy epiglottis

-subglottic area is the narrowest portion of the infant larynx

-large head leads to flexed neck
Estimated size of endotracheal tube needed in children based on age group

-infants to 1 year = 3.5 ETT uncuffed

-1–2 yrs=4.0 uncuffed ETT

-child > 2 yr. = (Age/4) + 4 uncuffed ETT

-child >2 yr = (age/4) + 3.5 cuffed ETT

-internal diameter of ETT = size of the child's little
finger

When should oropharyngeal airway be used over nasopharyngeal airway in children
An oropharyngeal airway can only be used in an unresponsive child without a gag reflex.

Nasopharyngeal airways are generally better tolerated, but should not be used if there is suspicion of skull base trauma in order to avoid potential infection or penetration of the anterior cranial fossa with insertion.
How to verify endotracheal tube placement following intubation
-Bilateral chest movement, listen for equal breath sounds over both lung fields

-Listen for gastric insufflation over stomach

-Check exhaled CO2 (end-tidal CO2)

-Check oxygen saturation if perfusing rhythm

-If uncertain, direct laryngoscopy

-Chest X-ray in hospital setting
Things to consider if patient deteriorates following intubation
DOPE

Displacement of tube
Obstruction of tube
Pneumothorax
Equipment failure
Normal respiratory rate based on age
Infant 30-60

Toddle 24-40

Preschooler 22-34

School Age 18-34

Adolescent 12-16
Hypotension by age in children
Team neonates (0-28 days) <60 mm Hg

Infants (1-12 mo) <70 mm Hg

Children (>1 yrs) <70+ 2 x age mm Hg

Children (>10 yrs) <90 mm Hg
Normal heart rate for age
Infant 100-160
Toddle 90-145
Preschooler 80-140
School age 70-120
Adolescent 60-100
When should chest compressions/CPR be initiated on a child
-no pulse palpable

-heart rate is <60 bpm and there is evidence of poor systemic perfusion
Rate of breaths to compressions in pediatric CPR with and without advanced airway
No advanced airway, 1 rescuer - 30:2

No advanced airway, 2 rescuer - 15:2

Advanced airway - compressions uninterupted, 8-10 breaths/min

Size of fluid bolus in pediatric patient in shock

When to give blood if acute hemorrahge cause of shock?

10-20mL/kg NS

Blood replacement is indicated in children with severe acute hemorrhage if a child remains in shock after 40 -60 mL/kg of crystalloid

Drug of choice in pediatric cardiac arrest

Mechanism of action?

Epinephrine

Has both alpha and beta adrenergic properties but the alpha adrenergic mediated vasocontriction is most important, acting to restore diastolic pressure
Complications of sodium bicarbonate administration during CPR
Excessive bicarbonate may impair tissue oxygen delivery (shifts O2 dissociation curve), cause hypokalemia, hypocalcemia, hypernatremia, hyperosmolality, decrease ventricular fibrillation threshold, and impair cardiac function
Effects of atropine

When would it be used in CPR
Competitive antagonist of the muscarinic acetylcholine receptor (acetylcholine being main neurotransmitter used by the parasympathetic system)

Used to treat symptomatic bradycardia and vagally mediated bradycardia that can occur with intubation attempts
Effect of dopamine

When would it be used during CPR
Dopamine is an endogenous catecholamine with complex cardiovascular effects. In higher doses it stimulates beta receptors and alpha adrenergic vasoconstriction

Used for the treatment of circulatory shock following resuscitation, or when shock is unresponsive to fluid administration
Effect of adenosine

When would it be used in CPR
Causes a temporary atrioventricular (AV) nodal
conduction block and interrupts reentry circuits that involve the AV node

Used for treatment of supraventricular tachycardia
Treatment of nonshockable rhythm (asystole/PEA) arrest in children

1. Continue CPR
2. Second rescuer obtains vascular access and
delivers epinephrine 0.01 mg/kg (0.1 mL/kg of 1:10,000 solution) while CPR continues; repeat dose every 3 – 5 minutes
3. Check rhythm every 2 minutes with minimal interruptions in chest compressions
4. Search for reversible causes (H's and T's)

Causes of asystole and PEA arrest
H's and T's

Hypothermia, Hypoxia, Hydrogen ion (acidosis), Hypoglycemia, Hypovolemia

Tension Pneumothorax, Tamponade (cardiac), Toxins, Thrombosis (pulmonary and coronary)
When is defibrillation with AED or manual defibrillator indicated
ventricular fibrillation

pulseless ventricular tachycardia.

Treatment of SVT in infants and children

-If hemodynamically stable, begin with vagal maneuvers (e.g. ice to face in an infant without occluding airway, blowing through narrow straw in older child)

-If unsuccessful, adenosine is the drug of choice

-If hemodynamically unstable, then consider synchronized cardioversion (0.5 to 1 J/kg; increase to 2J/kg for subsequent attempts)
Treatment of asthma exacerbation in children
Salbutamol - 4-8 puffs q20min
Ipratropium bromide - 4-8 puffs q20min up to 3 hrs
Prednisone 2 mg/kg
MgSO4 - 40 mg/kg IV

Discharge therapy for patients with asthma exacerbation

-Salbutamol 4–8 puffs/dose q4h prn via MDI and spacer (with a mask < 6 years, with a mouthpiece 7 years or older) for 24-48 hours, then 2 puffs qid prn x 1 week.
-Prednisone 1mg/kg daily x 4-5 days orally. No tapering necessary.
-Fluticasone 50 mcg bid for 4-8 weeks after discharge
-Mandatory follow up at 24-48 hours
-Return if increased work of breathing requiring
bronchodilators <q4h.
Classic history for croup
-6-36 months of age
-barking cough
-hoarse voice
-inspiratory stridor +/- respiratory distress
Management of croup

-Dexamethasone 0.6 mg/kg po once (all patients)
-Nebulized epinephrine 1:1000 (2.5 - 5 ml) in severe respiratory distress

Define lethargy
Lethargy - a level of consciousness characterized by poor or absent eye contact; or the failure of a child to recognize parents; or failure to interact with persons or objects in the environment.
Workout required for fever without a focus 0-1 months of age

Treatment?
CBC
Urinalysis
Blood, urine, LP cultures
+/- chest x-ray

Hospitalization + ampicillin and gentamicin for all
Workup required for fever without a focus in infant 1-3 mo of age
Lethargic - full septic workup + hospitalization + Abx

High risk rochester criteria - full spetic workup + hosptialization + Abx

Low risk rochester criteria - CBC, urinalysis, blood and urine culture + discharge w/o Abx + 24 hr followup
What must be ruled out for all infants with bilious vomititng
Malrotation with volvulus
Classic history for patients with intussuception
-3-12 mo old male

-intermittent colicky abdominal pain

-abdominal distension

-bilious vomiting

-blood per rectum /currant jelly stools (late sign)
Management of mild and moderate dehydration with oral rehydration
Pedialyte

Mild: 20 mL/kg 1st hour, 10 mL/kg thereafter, 10 mL/kg per bowel movement

Moderate: 20 mL/kg 1st hour, 20 mL/kg thereafter, 10mL/kg per bowel movement
When should a culture be taken of taken from the bite site following an animal or human bite
Only culture when there is clinical evidence of a wound infection (e.g. progressive erythema, purulent discharge, signs of sepsis)
Management of mammal bites

1. Copious irrigation - 18 - 20 gauge angiocath on a 20 cc syringe will provide adequate irrigation pressure for most wounds. Do not open or widen the puncture wound for irrigation

2. Debride - decreases infection in crushed and devitalized tissues.

3. +/- suture - if low risk of infection (good vascular supply like face), do not suture if high risk of infection. Option for delayed repair after 3-5 days of antibiotic Rx.

High risk criteria for mammal bite (wound factors)

- puncture wounds or crush injuries
- wounds greater than 12 hours old
- hand or foot wounds
- wounds near joints
High risk criteria for mammal bite (patient factors)

- immunocompromised patient: diabetes, splenectomy, chronic alcoholism, AIDS, on immunosuppressive meds
- patient age greater than 50 years
- prosthetic joints or valves

Rate of infecton from mammal bites
Dog 10-30%

Cat 10-50%

Human 50%
Antibiotic choice for mammal bites
1st line - amoxacillin-clavulanic acid (Clavulin)

2nd line - 2nd generation cephalosporins
(e.g. cefuroxime, cefaclor, or cefoxitin iv)
Likely cause of infection following dog or cat bite that becomes infected within 24 hours
Pasteurella multocida

causative organism in up to 80% of cat bite
infections and up to 50% of dog bite infections

propensity to cause metastatic infections:
septicemia, osteomyelitis, tenosynovitis,
meningitis
Describe postexposure immunoprophylaxis following high risk animal bite
Persons not previously immunized:

- Passive immunization with Rabies Immune
Globulin (RIG): 20 IU/kg-

- Active immunization with rabies vaccine (e.g.
HDCV): 5 injections of 1 ml IM over 28 days,
given on days 0, 3, 7, 14, and 28
Goal temperature in patients with heat stroke
rectal temp. < 39.5 C
Which electrolytes must be monitored during heat stoke
K (hyperkalemia) and Mg
Describe the classifiation of burns
Superficial (first degree) involves epidermis only i.e. sunburn

Superficial partial thickness (second degree) extends to epidermis and superficial dermis, blister formation occurs and the burns are very painful.

Deep partial thickness (second degree) involves hair follicles, sebaceous glands. Skin is blistered and exposed dermis is pale white to yellow in colour. Sensation is absent.

Full thickness burns (third degree) involve the epidermis and all dermal layers. The skin is pale, insensate and charred or leathery. Surgical treatment is required, spontaneous healing does not occur.

Fourth degree burns extend through skin to all underlying layers e.g. fat, muscle, and bone. Amputation or reconstruction is often required.
Describe how to estimate total body surface area burned in adults
Rule of 9's for Adults: 9% for each arm, 18% for each leg, 9% for head,18% for front torso, 18% for back torso.
Describe how to estimate total body surface area burned in children
Rule of 9's for Children: 9% for each arm, 14% for each leg, 18% for head, 18% for front torso, 18% for back torso.
Describe fluid requirements in burn patients
Fluid Requirements = TBSA burned(%) x Wt (kg) x 4mL

Given for burns equal or larger than 20% BSA, partial thickness or greater. Use ringers lactate. Given over 24 hrs, 1/2 in first 8 hrs.
Half life of carbon monoxide in blood

Describe treatment
room air, 240-320 minutes
100% O2, 90 minutes
hyperbaric oxygen, 20 minutes

Give high flow O2 for all. Transfer to a hyperbaric chamber is indicated in those with levels >25
Describe basic wound care in burn patients
Burns are covered with a gauze dressing and polysporin ointment for superficial partial thickness and flamazine (silver sulphadiazine) for deep partial thickness burns (except on the face)
What antibiotics and immunizations are indicated for burn patients
No role for prophylactic antibiotics.

Tetanus should be updated.
Which patients need to be transfered to a specialized burn center

- Partial thickness or full thickness burns > 10% ages <10 or >50
- Partial thickness or full thickness burns > 20% in all others
- Partial-thickness and full-thickness burns involving the face, hands, feet, genitalia, or perineum or overlying major joints
- Full-thickness burns greater than 5% BSA in any age group

Complications following electircal injury/burn
Cardiac dysrhythmias: occurs at time of injury asytole or ventricular fibrillation, will not develop in the ED

Deep muscle injury/necrosis

Rhabdomyolysis

Compartment syndrome
Characteristics of acidic and alkali chemical burns
Acids cause coagulation necrosis and formation of a leathery eschar.

Alkalis cause liquifaction necrosis and deeper burns.
Treatment for chemical burns
Aggressive irrigation is the main treatment for chemical burns. pH paper is used to determine the presence of additional chemical, ideally applied 10-15 minutes after irrigation is stopped.

Define hypothermia

Hypothermia is defined as a core body temperature of less than 35.0 C
Most accurate site for noninvasive temperature reading
Esophageal temperature
At what temperature does the body cease to shiver
30-32 C
ECG changes in hypothermia
J waves (Osborn wave)
At what temp are hypothermic patients at risk of developing arrythmia's

What is the typical progression
Patients are at risk for arrhythmias at temperatures <30°C

Sinus bradycardia -> atrial fibrillation -> ventricular fibrillation -> asystole
Pathophysiology of frost bite
Frostbite occurs when tissue temperature drops below 0 ̊C. The tissue is damaged by both the freeze-thaw insult and subsequent progressive dermal ischemia.
Treatment of frostbite
Immerse 40-42 ̊C water bath, until the part feels pliable and distal erythema is noted, usually requires 10-30 minutes of immersion

Ibuprofen 400 mg q12h to inhibit thromboxane A production by injured tissue

Benzyl penicillin 600 mg every 6 hours
In hypothermic patients, below what temperature should you use active core rewarming
<32 C
Pathophysiology of drowning

Lung damage and hypoxemia leading to hypoxic encephalopathy

Aspiration of fluid leads to:
- loss of surfactant causing atelectasis
- injury to the alveolar-capillary membrane leading
to interstitial and alveolar edema (can lead to secondary drowning)
- obstruction of small airways by water and
particulate matter
- bronchospasm
- +/- chemical injury if stomach contents aspirated

List universal antidotes
O2, glucose, thiamine, naloxone
Mnemonic for anticholinergic toxidrome
Blind as a bat, dry as a bone, red as a beet, mad as a hatter, and hot as a hare
Define toxidrome

A toxidrome is a constellation of clinical signs and symptoms associated with a particular class of substances.

Manifestations of anticholinergic toxidrome
Hyperthermia
Dilated pupils
Dry skin & mucous membranes Agitation
Hallucinations
Seizures
Tachycardia
Urinary retention
Ileus
Etiology of anticholinergic toxidrome
Antihistamines
Atropine & belladonna
Diphenhydramine
Tricyclic antidepressants

Manifestations of cholinergic toxidrome

Salivation, Seizures
Lacrimation
Urinary incontinence
Diarrhea, Diaphoresis
Bronchospasm, Bradycardia
Emesis, Excitation
Etiology of cholinergic toxidrome
Carbamates
Nerve gases
Organophosphates
Manifestations of sympathomimetic toxidrome
Hyperthermia
Mydriasis
Diaphoresis
Tachycardia
Hypertension
Excitation
Seizures
Etilology of the sympathominetic toxidrome
Amphetamines ASA
Cocaine
LSD
PCP
Theophyllines
Sedative & alcohol withdrawal
Manifestations of narcotic/sedative toxidrome

CNS depression
Respiratory depression
Hypotension
Miosis +/-

Etiology of narcotic/sedative toxidrome
Barbituates, Benzodiazepines
Ethanol
GHB
Opioids
Other sedatives

Describe 3-3-2-1 rule for predicting difficult intubation

3-3-2-1



3 finger mouth opening



3 fingers from hyoid to chin



2 fingers from thyroid cartilage notch to floor of mandible



1 finger lower jaw anterior subluxation

Formula for anion gap

Normal value?

Anion Gap = Na+ - (HCO3- + Cl-)

Normal AG < 10 mmol/L

Formula for osmolar gap and calculated osmolality

Normal value
Osmolal Gap = (Measured – Calculated) Osmolality

Calculated Osmolality = 2[Na+ ] + BUN + Glucose + 1.25 X Ethanol

Normal Osmolal Gap should range from -14 to +10 mosmoles/L
DDx of increased anion gap
Methanol
Uremia
Diabetic Ketoacidosis, Alcoholic Ketoacidosis, Starvation Ketoacidosis
Phenformin, Paraldehyde
Iron, INH
Lactic acidosis
Ethylene Glycol
Salicylate

Bonus: Carbon Monoxide, Cyanide, Toluene
DDx of increased osmolar gap
Ethylene Glycol
Isopropyl Alcohol
Glycerol
Mannitol
Methanol
Sorbitol
In which poisoned patients should activated charcoal be considerered
Patients who present within one hour of their gastrointestinal exposure to a toxin.

Consider in: Carbamazepine, Phenobarb,
Quinine, Theophylline
In which toxins can elimination be enhanced with urine alkalinization
Chlorpropamide
Methotrexate
Phenobarb
Salicylates
In which toxins should hemodialysis be considered to enhance elimination
ASA
Ethylene Glycol
Lithium
Methanol
Valproate
Antidote for acetaminophen overdose
N-acteylcysteine
Antidote for beta blocker overdose
High dose insulin
Antidote for carbon monoxide poisoning
High dose O2 +/- hyperbaric O2 therapy
Antidote for digoxin overdose
Digoxin FAB fragments
Antidote for ethylene glycol and methanol poisoning
Fomepizole or Ethanol
Antidote for hydrofluoric acid poisoning
Calcium
Antidote for isoniazid overdose
Pyridoxime
Antidote for opioid overdose
Naloxone
Antidote for organophosphates poisoning
Atropine plus pralidoxime
Antidote for sodium channel blocker overdose
NaHCO3
Antidote for sulfonylurea poisoning

Octreotide

Mechanism of action of alcohol

Depressing the excitatory neurotransmitter glutamate

Increases the inhibitory activity of GABA and glycine

Features of alcohol intoxication
Slurred speech, nystagmus, slowed responses to verbal, visual or physical stimuli and decreased motor coordination/control
How long must intoxicated patients be held in the ED
Until:

awake and oriented with a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) of 15

able to respond appropriately to questions

able to ambulate normally

Treatment to prevent Wernicke‘s encephalopathy

Time before resolution of symptoms?

Thiamine 100 mg po, IM or IV daily

Ocular signs may be reversed in as little as 1-6 hours. Ataxia and confusion may improve over days to months.
Over what time period can alcohol withdrawal occur following discontinuation of alcohol
Up to 7 days later
Symptoms of alcohol withdrawal

Tachycardia, hypertension,elevated temperature

Agitation, tremor, diaphoresis

Nausea, vomiting

Seizures

Symptoms of delirium tremons
Hallucinations, delirium and confusion

Profound autonomic dysfunction: hyperthermia, tachycardia, hypertension, and seizures
Time period when patients are most likely to have a seizure during alcohol withdrawal
12-48 hours
Triad of Wernicke's enchaphalopathy

oculomotor abnormalities (nystagmus, lateral gaze palsies or disconjugate gaze)

cerebellar dysfunction

global confusion

Characteristic of isopropyl alcohol intoxication
- ketosis but NO acidosis
- normal blood glucose
- clinical features similar to those of ethanol poisoning but of longer duration
- fruity odor of acetone or smell of rubbing alcohol on the breath
Products containing methanol

windshield washer fluid

varnishes

antifreeze

improperly fermented EtOH

Products containing isopropyl alcohol

rubbing alcohol

skin and hair care products

hand sanitizer

industrial solvents.

Features of methanol poisoning
• CNS depression
• Visual disturbances and blindness
• Abdominal pain
• Marked anion gap-type metabolic acidosis
• Osmolar gap
• Possible renal failure
Criteria for hemodialysis in patients with methanol poisoning

- Visual or CNS disturbances
- Ingestion of more than 30 ml of methanol
- Severe metabolic acidosis
- Renal failure
- Elevated methanol level > 15

Features of ethylene glycol poisoning

- signs of intoxication yet no ethanol smell on the breath
- anion gap-type acidosis
- osmolar gap
- calcium oxalate crystalluria
- renal failure

If unable to intubate after a paralytic is given during RSI what are the options

Bag valve mask ventilation

Surgical airway
Cricothyrotomy technique

An incision is made through the cricothyroid membrane (i.e. below the thyroid cartilage).

A cricothyrotomy kit may be used which uses the Seldinger technique (introducer needle > guidewire > tracheostomy tube).

Differentiate tracheostomy vs cricothyrotomy
A tracheostomy (done just superior to the suprasternal notch) involves dissecting through superficial vessels, a cricothyrotomy avoids these vessels.
Decribe the ABCDE's of trauma

Airway - Is the airway patent? Have patient talk

Breathing - Auscultate lung fields. Look for equal rising of chest. Rule out tension pneumothorax.

Circulation

Disability - brief neurologic assessment (AVPU - Alert, voice, pain, unresponsive) or GCS

DDx for shock

S – septic



S – spinal (i.e. neurogenic) – may result from high spinal with loss of sympathetic trunk, these patient present with a low BP and a low HR



H – hypovolemic – usually hemorrhagic in trauma



O – obstructive – may occur from tension pneumothorax, PE, or pericardial tamponade



C – cardiogenic



K – anaphylac(K)tic

Components of the FAST exam

Lt flank (Spleen) - free fluid in the spleno-renal space

Rt flank (Liver) - free fluid in Morrison‘s pouch

Pelvis



Subxypohoid - pericardial effusion

When should blood products be given in trauma
If patient remains hypotensive following 2 L NS

What needs to be examined in a trauma patient during the log roll

1. Inspection for penetrating injuries, contusion, lacerations

2. Palpation for T and L spine tenderness

3. Rectal exam to assess for a high riding prostate (a contraindication to foley insertion), gross blood (indicative of bowel injury)

What does FAST stand for?

Focused Assessment with Sonography for Trauma

What are the components of the 'Disability' assessment in a trauma patient

Patients LOC - 'AVPU' - Alert, responds to Verbal, responds to Pain, Unresponsive



Pupils



Moving all four limbs

Basic investigations for all polytrauma patients

CXR



FAST



AP Pelivs

What does the 'E' component of ABDCE's of trauma include

Expose patient including back (log roll)



Enviroment - keep patient warm and dry

Describe the secondary survey in trauma

H & N - pupils equal and reactive, gross abnormality in visual acuity, facial bones (swelling, deformity, laceration), scalp, tympanic membranes, c-spine tenderness



Chest -



Abdomen - peritonitis, distension, FAST



DRE - lower GI bleed, tone, prostate



Extremeties



Neuro - GCS, motor or sensory defecites

Layers of the meninges

Pia (innermost)



Arachnoid



Dura (outermost)

Normal ICP



Define cerebral perfusion pressure

10-15 mm Hg



CPP = MAP - ICP

Signs of basilar skull fracture

Hemotympanum



Blood in ear canal



Rhinorrhea



Racoon eyes



Battle sign

Describe eye component of GCS

4 - open spontaneously



3 - to verbal command



2 - to pain



1 - no response

Describe the verbal component of GCS

5 - Alert and oriented



4 - Disoriented



3 - Incomprehensible



2 - Moans and sounds



1- None

Describe the motor component of GCS

6 - Moving spontaneously



5 - Localizes pain



4 - Withdraws from pain



3 - Decroticate posturing ( flexion of upper, extension of lower)



2 - Decerebrate posturing (extension of upper and lower)



1 - Done

Describe the classification of head injuries

Mild - GCS 14-15



Moderate - GCS 9 - 13



Severe - GCS 3 - 8

Describe the CT head rule

CT head is required for minor head injuries (GCS 13-15) with 1 of the following:



1. GCS < 15 at 2 hrs post injury



2. Suspected open or depressed skull fracture



3. Signs of basal skull fracture




4. Vomiting >/= 2 episodes



5. Age >/= 65Sn 98%, Sp 50% for dectecting clincally important HI



6. Amnesia before impact >/= 30 min



7. Dangerous mechanism

Define concussion

Type of minor head injury after a direct or indirect blow to the head characterized by transient change in cognitive or neurologic function

Describe special considerations for intubation in patients with a head injury

1. Consider premedication to prevent raising ICP with lidocaine (1.5-2 mg/kg IV push) to attenuate cough reflex and vecuronium (0.01 mg/kg IV) defasicullating dose



2. Induction with etomidate, midazolam (0.1-0.3 mg/kg), or propofol (1-2 mg/kg IV)

Treatment of increased ICP

1. Elevate head of bed



2. Provide sedation and analgesia



3. Mannitol 0.25-1 g/kg IV



4. Neuromuscular blockade



5. Mild hyperventilation PaCO2 30-35 mm Hg

How does hyperventilation decrease ICP

Hyperventilation reduces PaCO2 which temporarily reduces the ICP by cerebral vasoconstriction and subsequent reduction of cerebral blood flow.



The aim of hyperventilation is to reach an arterial PCO2 of 30-35 mm Hg (avoid PaCO2 < 25 as it can cause ischemia due to severe vasoconstriction).



Hyperventilation should be avoided during the first 24 hours after injury when cerebral blood flow is often critically reduced.

Describe the approach to the interpretation of c-spine x-rays

ABC'S approach



A - alingment - follow anterior and posterior contour lines. Translation of 1 vertebra over another > 3.5 mm is significant.



B - bone - follow boney contours looking for breaks in the cortex.



C - cartilage - disc spaces of equal length. Pre-dental space < 3mm



S - soft tissue - retropharyngeal space measures less than 7mm at C2 and 21mm at C7



Bonus - odontoid view, lateral mass of C1 & C2 should align.

Describe canadian c-spine rules

1. High risk factors that warrant radiography - Age >65, dangerous mechanism, paresthesia in extremity



2. Any low risk factors that allow safe assessment of ROM - simple rear end collision, sitting position, ambulatory, delayed onset neck pain, absence of midline c-spine tenderness



3. If no high risk + 1 or more low risk then assess ROM, if can rotate >45 degress left and right then no radiography.

Describe considerations in nasal fracture

- x-ray rarely needed



- final alignment needs to wait 2-3 weeks for swelling to subside and a plastic surgeon can make an assessment



- inspect nasal septum for hematoma. Submucosal collection of blood (septal hematoma) should be drained to avoid ischemic depression in septum

Describe LeFort Classification of midface fractures

leFort I - extends down through maxilla to either side of the mouth and the upper teeth and bones will be mobile.



leFort II - extends through (or just inferior to) the infraorbital rim and the nasal aperture and upper teeth will move as a unit separate from the cheekbones (zygoma)



leFort III - extends across through the orbits or just above them and the entire midface (including the zygomas) will be mobile

Treatment of tooth fracture in ED (removed from socket)

a. Rinse socket with NS



b. If the patient has the tooth, sterilize it with


chlorhexidine, or hydrogen peroxide (5 second rinse in any of these). Cleanse the tooth immediately with sterile NS. Place tooth in socket. Secure with bone wax.



c. If tooth cannot be replaced or if patient asks for advice about storage, have the tooth preserved in milk.



d. refer to dentistry

Treatment of chipped tooth in ED




See if the residual tooth is loose and


splint if necessary with bone wax or skin glue.


Classify tooth fracture according to Ellis


Classification


If the fracture is Ellis 3 or 4 (Pulp exposed),


consider covering the tooth with bone wax for


pain relief.


Refer patient to dentistry for definitive care


and follow-up

Describe Ellis classification of tooth fracture

Ellis 1 - through enamil



Ellis 2 - through dentin + enamil



Ellis 3 - through pulp + dentin + enamil

When should fractures of the mandible be suspected?

irregular bite (malocclusion)



misalignment in the jaw



point tenderness of the bone



loose teeth



strong pain when biting down on a tongue depressor you forcefully try to remove from the mouth



intraoral bleeding

Describe approach to describing fractures

Open vs. closed



Neurovascular status: intact vs. compromised



Which bone(s) is/are broken



Location the fracture: i.e., proximal humerus; metacarpal head



Type of fracture: i.e. oblique vs. transverse; simple vs. comminuted)



Alignment of fragments: Angulation, Displacement, Shortening

Features of compartment syndrome

Pain out of proportion



Parasthesia



Pallor



Pulselessness



Paralysis.

What nerve is at risk in an anterior shoulder dislocation

Axiallary nerve - supplies sensation to lateral shoulder and motor to the deltoid

X-ray finding in anterior shoulder dislocation

Lateral view shows the humeral head sitting anterior to the glenoid

Describe Ottawa Ankle Rules

An ankle X-ray is required if:




A foot X-ray is required if:


1. Boney tenderness at base of navicular or base of 5th metatarsal


2. Inability to weight bear both immediately AND in the ED


Boney tenderness at posterior aspect of distal 6cm of medial or lateral malleolus


inability to bear weight both immediately AND in the ED

Describe a Colle's fracture

Extraarticular fracture of the distal radius due to FOOSH

Which two parameters are of importance in deciding which colle‘s fractures require reduction?

Volar tilt - at least neutral, anatomic 20 degrees volar tilt



Radial length - at least as long as the ulna

Maximum dose of lidocaine with and without epi

Without epi 3-5 mg/kg



With epi 5-7 mg/kg

Signs and symptoms of lidocaine toxicity

Dizziness



Perioral numbness



Seizures



Cardiovascular collapse

Describe the difference between primary, secondary, and delayed closure. When would you use each?

Primary closure refers to closure immediately after the injury



Secondary closure involves leaving the wound open and allowing it to close over time. This option is used for wounds that present late, or are otherwise at increased risk of infection



Delayed - leave open for 4-5 days when close if no signs of infection

List common absorbable and nonabsorbable sutures

Nonabsorbable - Ethilon (nylon), Prolene



Absorbable - vicryl

List basic rules for selecting suture size

Facial wounds are closed with 5-0 or 6-0



Hands 4-0 and 5-0



Feet, and other limb wounds with 4-0



Trunk wounds or wounds under high tension (joints, gaping) with 3-0 or 4-0

Wounds characteristics that increase the risk of tetanus

Delayed presentation



Deep wound



Gross contamination



Ischemia, infection



Crush or puncture injuries.

List conversion factor from codeine, morphine, oxycodone, and hydromorphone

Codeine - 100



Morphine - 10



Oxycodone - 5



Hydromorphone - 2