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496 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Pluripotent stem cells are induced to become myeloid progenitors via which cytokine(s)?
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GM-CSF and IL-3
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Pluripotent stem cells are induced to become lymphoid progenitors via what cytokine(s)?
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IL-3 & Other
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Myeloid progenitor cells > Eosinophil via what cytokine?
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IL-5
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Myeloid progenitor cells > GM progenitor via what cytokine?
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GM-CSF
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GM progenitor cells > Neutrophil (granulocyte) via what cytokine?
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G-CSF
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GM progenitor cells > Monocyte via what cytokine?
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M-CSF
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Further differentiation of lymphoid progenitor cells is induced by what cytokine?
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IL-7
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T cell progenitors travel to the thymus upon additional stimuation from what cytokine?
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IL-7
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Which cells are produced by the bone marrow?
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Monocytes
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List some soluble mediator molecules shown to play a role in hematopoiesis
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C-kit ligand
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The FcγR is found on (x) cells
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binds to (y) and is an example of (z)
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The CRP-BS is found on (x) cells
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binds to (y) and is an example of (z)
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The CR1 is found on (x) cells
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binds to (y) and is an example of (z)
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Activation of an inflammasome promotes the cleaving of which molecule?
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Procaspas I
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The molecule (x) cleaves the pro-form of which moleceules in an inflammasome?
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Caspase I (x)
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Induction of iNOS can be brought about by which species?
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Mycobacteria
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Some studies cite that iNOS induction is brough about by which two signals?
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Bacterial products/TNF
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Reduction or inhibition of iNOS can be brought about by which species?
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IL-10
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Name the most potent iNOS inhibitor
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TGFβ
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Macrophage activation produces which chemoattractant molecules?
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MCP-1 (CCL2)
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What is the function of MCP-1 and from where is it produced?
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Monocyte/macrophage chemoattractant
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What is the function of IL-8 and from where is it produced?
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PMN chemoattractant
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Macrophage activation promotes their secretion of which cytokines?
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IL-1
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Which cytokines secreted from activated macrophages can function as both autocrine and paracrine activation agents of other macrophages?
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IL-1
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List some cytokines which activate macrophages
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IL-3
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List some cytokines which downregulate macrophages
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IL-1
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Describe the function of CD200/CD200R activity
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Suppression of anti-tumor cytotoxic immune responses
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Binding of eosinophil FcεE to IgE on helminths triggers the release of what molecules?
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Degranulation of major basic protein (MBP)
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Describe the function of perforin
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Inserts into the cell membrane and induces osmotic lysis
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What cytokines are needed for NK cells to produce IFNγ?
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IL-12 and either IL-15 or IL-18
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T/F: Macrophages express CD4
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True
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Like dendritic cells
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macrophages also express which which molecules?
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Phenotypically
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immature dendritic cells express high concentrations of what receptor?
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Phenotypically
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immature dendritic cells express low concentrations of which molecules?
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CD28 is the receptor for which molecules?
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CD80 (B7.1)
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CD80 and CD86 are found on which cells?
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APCs
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CD28 is found on which cell?
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T cell
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CD1 molecules are glycoproteins that present (x) to subsets of T cells
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Lipid and glycolipid antigens
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Structurally
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CD1 molecules are similar to which other molecules?
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Both Class I MHC and CD1 molecules form complexes with what other molecule?
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β2 microglobulin
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What are the family members of CD1?
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CD1a-e
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Which CD1 family member is distinct?
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CD1d
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Which cells all express CD1?
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Dendritic cells
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Where is L-selectin located?
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Naïve lymphocytes
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Where are LFA-1 (CD11a/CD18) integrin located?
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Naïve lymphocytes
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What is another term for the CD11a/CD18 combination?
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LFA-1
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Where are P-selectin molecules located?
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Activated vascular endothelium
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Where are E-selectin molecules located?
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Activated vascular endothelium
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Which molecule induces P-selectin?
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Histamine
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Which molecule(s) induce E-selectin?
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TNF
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TNF induces what molecule on endothelial surfaces?
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E-selectin
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IL-1 induces what molecule on endothelial surfaces?
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E-selectin
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Where are VLA-4 integrins located?
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Lymphocytes
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Which molecules does LFA-1 bind to?
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ICAM-1
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ICAM-1 and ICAM-2 are located where?
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HEVs
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Which molecule induces ICAM-1?
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TNF
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List the subunits and their aliases for LFA-1
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Alpha subunit (CD11a)
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List the subunits and their aliases for VLA-4
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Alpha subunit (CD49d)
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What effect does LFA-1 and ICAM-1 binding have?
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Firm adhesion
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What effect does LFA-1 and ICAM-2 binding have?
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Firm adhesion
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What effect does LFA-1 and ICAM-3 binding have?
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Firm adhesion
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When molecules bind to P-selectin
|
what effect occurs?
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When molecules bind to E-selectin
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what effect occurs?
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What effect does VLA-4 and VCAM-1 binding have?
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Firm adhesion
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VCAM-1 molecules are located where?
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Activated vascular endothelium
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What molecules induce VCAM-1?
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TNF
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PECAM molecules are located where?
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Lymphocytes
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PECAM-PECAM binding produces what effect?
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Adhesion for transmigration
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Which cells utilize P and E-selectin for rolling?
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Lymphocytes
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PECAM molecules are usually located on which cells?
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Lymphocytes
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List the subunits for MAC-1
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CD11b
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What is an alias for MAC-1?
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Complement receptor 3 (CR3)
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What is an alias for CR3?
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MAC-1 (Macrophage-1 antigen)
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What molecules bind to MAC-1?
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C3b
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What molecules bind to CR3?
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C3b
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MAC-1 molecules are located on which cells?
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Neutrophils
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CR3 molecules are located on which cells?
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Neutrophils
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Which cell expresses CD2?
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T cells
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LFA-3 molecules are located on which cells?
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APCs
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CD2 molecules bind to which other molecules on which cells?
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LFA-3 on APCs
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LFA-3 molecules bind to which other molecules on which cells?
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CD2 on T cells
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What effect does CD2 and LFA-3 binding have?
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Adhesion
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What is an alias for CD154?
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CD40L
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What is an alias for CD40L?
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CD154
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Which cells express CD40L?
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T cells
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Which cells express CD154?
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T cells
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Which cells express CD40?
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APCs
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What effect does CD40 and CD40L binding have?
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Isotype switching (B cells)
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What effect does CD40 and CD154 binding have?
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Isotype switching (B cells)
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Which cells express CD28?
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T cells
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What is an alias for CD80?
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B7.1
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What is an alias for CD86?
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B7.2
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Which cells express CD80?
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APCs
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Which cells express CD86?
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APCs
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Which cells express B7.1?
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APCs
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Which cells express B7.2?
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APCs
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What molecule(s) does CD28 bind to?
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CD80 (B7.1)
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What molecule(s) does CD152 bind to?
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CD80 (B7.1)
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What is an alias for CD152?
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CTLA-4
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Which cells express CD152?
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T cells
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Which cells express CTLA-4?
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T cells
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What effect does CD28 and CD80 binding have?
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Enhanced transcription of IL-2
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What effect does CD28 and CD86 binding have?
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Enhanced transcription of IL-2
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What effect does CD28 and B7.1 binding have?
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Enhanced transcription of IL-2
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What effect does CD28 and B7.2 binding have?
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Enhanced transcription of IL-2
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What effect does CD152 and CD80 binding have?
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Down regulation of T cells
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What effect does CD152 and CD86 binding have?
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Down regulation of T cells
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What effect does CD152 and B7.1 binding have?
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Down regulation of T cells
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What effect does CD152 and B7.2 binding have?
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Down regulation of T cells
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Which cells express CD4?
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T cells
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Which cells express CD8?
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T cells
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Which cells express MHC Class II molecules?
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APCs
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Which cells express MHC Class I molecules?
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All nucleated cells
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What effect does CD4 and MHC Class I binding have?
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Costimulation
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What effect does CD8 and MHC Class II binding have?
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Costimulation
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Most IgE is bound to (x) on which cells?
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FcεR (x)
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T/F: IgG4 does not activate complement nor does it bind to FcγR
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True
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Which cells possess FcγR?
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Monocytes
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T/F: NK cells express a high affinity for FcγR
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False
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T/F: C3b is generated by both the classical and alternative complement pathways
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True
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What is the function of the membrane attack complex (MAC)?
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Induce osmotic lysis on target cells/microbes
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T/F: Complement component C3b can bind to immune complexes in circulation
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True
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Which cells express complement receptor 1 (CR1)?
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RBCs
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What is the purpose of CR1?
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Bind C3b
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Binding of (x) to (y) activates the classical complement pathway
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Fcγ or Fcμ (x)
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Which antibody is more efficient at complement activation?
|
IgM (pentamer)
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How mand Fc regions need to be bound to C1 in order to activate the classical complement pathway?
|
Two
|
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|
KNOW CLASSIC COMPLEMENT PATHWAY
|
KNOW CLASSIC COMPLEMENT PATHWAY
|
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KNOW ALTERNATE COMPLEMENT PATHWAY
|
KNOW ALTERNATE COMPLEMENT PATHWAY
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What complex is known as the C3 convertase in the classic complement pathway?
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C4b2a
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What complex is known as the C5 convertase in the classic complement pathway?
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C4b2a3b
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What complex is known as the C3 convertase in the alternate complement pathway?
|
C3bBb
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What complex is known as the C5 convertase in the alternate complement pathway?
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C3bBb3b
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What are the roles of C3a and C5a?
|
Anaphylatoxins
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Describe the function of an anaphylatoxin
|
Bind to cognate mast cell/basophil receptors inducing degranulation (e.g. histamine)
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List another function for C5a besides anaphlyaxis
|
Phagocyte chemotaxis
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When is C4a generated?
|
Only following activation of the classical pathway
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List some roles of C3b
|
Serves as an opsonin
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T/F: C3b is required for the formation of both classical and alternative pathway C5 convertase complexes
|
True
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What is the function of C5b?
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Stimulus for the formation of MAC
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What is the function of C2b?
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Weak kinin which increases vascular permeability
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Which complement fragment is the initiator of MAC?
|
C5b
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Describe C3b "tickover"
|
C3b is derived from circulating C3 in the absence of microbial infection and is spontaneously generated
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What molecule hydrolyzes Factor B?
|
Factor D
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Which molecule stabilizes C3 convertase?
|
Properdin
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How long does properdin extend the half-life of the alternative pathway C3 convertase?
|
6-10 fold
|
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Describe the function of C1INH
|
C1 esterase inhibitor forms a complex with C1 preventing spontaneous activation of classical complement pathway
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Which molecule inactivates kallikrein (via the classical complement pathway)?
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C1INH
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What molecule(s) does DAF bind to?
|
C4b and C3b
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If C3 convertases have already formed
|
what is the function of DAF?
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|
|
List a molecule known as a cofactor for Factor I
|
C4bp
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What is the function of C4bp?
|
Binds to fluid phase C4b
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T/F: If C4b has already formed the classical pathway C3 convertase
|
C4bp will promote its dissociation
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What is the function of Factor I in the classical complement pathway?
|
Cleaves C4b to its inactive form C4bi (in the presence of one of several cofactors)
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What is the function of anaphylatoxin inhibitor (AI)?
|
Binds to C3a
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Which complement regulatory proteins are active in both the classical and alternative pathways?
|
DAF
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What is the function of Factor H?
|
Binds to C3b in the fluid phase
|
|
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If the alternative complement pathway C3 convertase has already formed
|
what is the function of Factor H?
|
|
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What is the function of Factor I in the alternative complement pathway?
|
Cleaves C3b to its inactive form C3bi (in the presence of one of many cofactors
|
|
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List examples of molecules that inhibit the terminal complement pathway
|
MAC INH (HRF
|
|
|
In terminal complement pathway regulation
|
(x) binds to (y) preventing their insertion into autologous membranes
|
|
|
In terminal complement pathway regulation
|
(x) binds to (y) preventing the binding and polymerization of C9 and MAC formation
|
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The complement and contact intrinsic coagulation systems are linked via which plasma protein?
|
Kallikrein
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|
|
Tissue damage triggers the activation of which intrisic Factor?
|
Factor XII
|
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Which complement fragment serves as a kallikrein substrate?
|
C5
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|
List a substrate of kallikrein
|
C5
|
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Proteolytic hydrolysis of kininogen generates what molecules?
|
Kininogen(a)
|
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What substance inhibits activated kallikrein?
|
C1INH
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CR3a4a is present on which cells?
|
Mast cells
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CR5a is present on which cells?
|
Mast cells
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CR1 binds which complement ligand(s)?
|
C3b
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CR2 binds which complement ligand(s)?
|
C3bi
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CR2 is located on which cell(s)?
|
B cells
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Which complement receptor is thought to be involved with EBV infection?
|
CR2
|
|
|
List the components of the B-cell Receptor Complex
|
Two heterodimers of CD79a/CD79b
|
|
|
What is an alias for CD79a?
|
Igα (B-cell receptor complex)
|
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What is an alias for CD79b?
|
Igβ (B-cell receptor complex)
|
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In naïve mature B cells
|
which heavy chain constant regions are present?
|
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|
In naïve mature B cells
|
which light chain constant regions are present?
|
|
|
Transcription of which genes are required for differentiation of pro-B cells?
|
RAG-1
|
|
|
The pre-B cell stage is characterized by the cell's expression of which molecules?
|
Pre-B cell receptor (inclusive of CD79a/CD79b)
|
|
|
What molecule(s) is/are present in the pre-BCR (versus the mature BCR)?
|
Two rearranged μ heavy chains paired with two pseudo light chains (ψ)
|
|
|
T/F: CD20 is present on pro-B cells
|
False
|
|
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T/F: CD20 is present on pre-B cells (and subsequent cells)
|
True
|
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T/F: CD19 is present throughout B cell development
|
True
|
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Which cell marker is present throughout B cell development?
|
CD19
|
|
|
In B cell maturation
|
when does somatic recombination take place?
|
|
|
Which immunoglobulins are co-expressed on mature B cell surfaces as part of the BCR?
|
IgM
|
|
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Which CD markers are present on mature B cells?
|
CD19
|
|
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Which molecule(s) is/are present on B cells to aid in their extravasation?
|
L-selectin
|
|
|
Which molecule(s) is/are present on vascular surfaces to aid in B cell extravasation?
|
Addressin
|
|
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T/F: Addressin is present on HEVs
|
True
|
|
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T/F: Addressin provide the site of 'homing' for B cells
|
True
|
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Btk kinase plays a critical role in what B cell function(s)?
|
Activation
|
|
|
Patients with (x) possess mutant versions of btk kinase
|
X-linked agammaglobinemia (XLA)
|
|
|
T/F: Patients with XLA have large quantities of immature B cells in their circulatory systems
|
False
|
|
|
Differentiated
|
activated CD4+ T cells conjugate with mature B cells using which pair(s) of ligands?
|
|
|
The joining of B7 (B cells) and CD28 (CD4+ T cells) results in what?
|
B cell activation
|
|
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The joining of CD40 (B cells) and CD40L (CD4+ T cells) results in what?
|
B cell activation
|
|
|
List stabilization molecular pairs utilized by B/T cells during B cell activation
|
ICAM-1 (APCs)/LFA-1 (T)
|
|
|
The pairing of CD40 (B cells) and CD40L (T cell) is thought to signal what to B cells?
|
Clonal expansion
|
|
|
T/F: Antibodies secreted by plasma cells are able to anchor to cell membranes
|
False
|
|
|
Which immunoglobulin is not secreted?
|
IgD
|
|
|
Which immunoglobulins are available on B cells BEFORE isotype switching?
|
IgD
|
|
|
Which immunoglobulins are available on B cells AFTER isotype switching?
|
IgA
|
|
|
What is an alias for isotype switching?
|
Switch recombination
|
|
|
T/F: Isotype switching is irreversible
|
False
|
|
|
What is an alias for switch recombination?
|
Isotype switching
|
|
|
What is an alias for affinity maturation?
|
Somatic mutation
|
|
|
What is an alias for somatic mutation?
|
Affinity maturation
|
|
|
T/F: Memory B cells express high affinity immunoglobulins other than IgM
|
True
|
|
|
T/F: Memory B cells have reduced expression concentrations of L-selectin
|
True
|
|
|
When secreted IgG antibodies crosslink mIg-bound antigen and FcγRIIB
|
what occurs?
|
|
|
B cell inhibition occurs when antigens are in touch with what three molecules?
|
mIg
|
|
|
B cell activation
|
in response to T-independent antigens
|
|
|
List some examples of T-independent antigens
|
Low concentration LPS
|
|
|
The immune response can be enhanced in the presence of (x)
|
Adjuvants
|
|
|
List some examples of adjuvants
|
Alum precipitate
|
|
|
(x) are naturally occuring molecules that have the capacity to bind to
|
and trigger proliferation of many lymphocyte clones
|
|
|
List some examples of mitogens
|
Pokeweed mitogen
|
|
|
Concanavalin A and phytohemagglutinin are more commonly called (x)
|
Lectins
|
|
|
What molecules activate subsets of T cells?
|
Superantigens
|
|
|
Superantigens bind specifically to regions of T cell receptor termed (x)
|
Vβ
|
|
|
About how many different Vβ molecules exist?
|
200
|
|
|
Which cytokine induces the change of progenitor cells to naïve mature T cells?
|
IL-7
|
|
|
T/F: Developing T cells (on their way from bone marrow to thymus) can express TCRs without the presence of MHC Class I or Class II molecules?
|
False
|
|
|
A developing T cell (on their way from bone marrow to thymus) must express which components in order to recognize antigenic fragments?
|
Unique TCRs
|
|
|
T cells are classified according to what?
|
The T Cell Receptors (TCRs) they exhibit
|
|
|
What are the two categories of TCRs?
|
α/β heterodimers
|
|
|
α/β TCR heterodimers are expressed on which T cells?
|
CD8+ or CD4+ cells
|
|
|
Which TCR heterodimer is found most often in the body?
|
α/β heterodimer (90%)
|
|
|
Each TCR heterodimer is expressed on the cell surface along with (x)
|
CD3
|
|
|
CD3 is comprised of (x)
|
Five invariant polypeptides (1xCD3ε
|
|
|
Describe the function of CD3
|
Links antigen T cell binding receptor with signaling pathways
|
|
|
Which TCR variable subunits are comprised of V and J segments?
|
TCRα
|
|
|
Which TCR variable subunits are comprised of V
|
D and J segments?
|
|
|
Diversity in the T cell repetoire is the result of what factors?
|
Multiple V/D/J gene segment copies
|
|
|
Which marker is present on T cells during their entire development in the Thymus?
|
CD2
|
|
|
T/F: TCRs are only expressed on T cell surfaces in conjunction with CD3
|
True
|
|
|
T/F: Initially
|
both CD4 and CD8 are expressed on maturing T cells
|
|
|
What are the enzymes required for T cell somatic recombination?
|
Recombination-Activating-Gene (RAG) 1 and RAG-2
|
|
|
TCR heterodimers + CD3 is termed what?
|
TCR complex
|
|
|
Approximately how many different TCR complexes are present in a T cell repetoire?
|
10^12 to 10^15
|
|
|
As many as (x) identical TCRs are present on any given cell
|
25
|
|
|
Describe junctional diversity
|
Maintaining an open reading frame during somatic recombination
|
|
|
Describe allelic exclusion in terms of TCR variable chain production
|
Term used to describe the process whereby somatic recombination is 'inhibited' on the other member of the chromosome pair following successful rearrangement of the TCR variable chain
|
|
|
Double positive thymocytes (CD4+
|
CD8+) are selected to live or die depending on (x)
|
|
|
Interactive avidity depends on what factors?
|
TCR affinity for self-antigen
|
|
|
Describe death by neglect
|
Insignificant interactive avidity with thymic epithelial cells
|
|
|
Describe positive selection (preferential expansion)
|
Occurs when the avidity of recognition is intermediate (between insignificant and oversignificant interactive avidity)
|
|
|
T/F: Silencing of the CD4 or CD8 gene occurs in each individual T cell
|
True
|
|
|
Where does negative T cell selection occur?
|
Thymic medulla
|
|
|
CD8 avidity occurs with which MHC Class?
|
MHC Class I
|
|
|
CD4 avidity occurs with which MHC Class?
|
MHC Class II
|
|
|
T/F: The number of self-proteins to which the developing T cell is exposed to is greater in the thymic medulla
|
True
|
|
|
Describe the function of the AIRE protein
|
Plays a critical role in the promiscuous expression of tissue-restricted proteins in thymic epithelial cells (especially in the medulla)
|
|
|
List the three main sets of T cells that emerge from the thymic medulla
|
CD4+ Thp
|
|
|
nTreg cells play what role in the periphery?
|
Controlling self-reactive T cells
|
|
|
Reduced FOXP3 expression in nTreg cells may result in what pathologies?
|
Autoimmune/inflammatory disorders (asthma
|
|
|
Extravasation of naïve lymphocytes via HEVs requires the presence of which molecules?
|
L-selectins (lymphocytes)
|
|
|
What does FOXP3 stand for?
|
Forkhead/winged-helix protein 3
|
|
|
AIRE gene mutation occurs in what pathology?
|
Autoimmune polyendocrinopathy candidiasis exctodermal dystrophy (APECED)
|
|
|
The primary function of CD4+ T cells is to do what?
|
Secrete cytokines
|
|
|
T/F: Naïve T cells (Thp) are unable to perform their biological function without further differentiation
|
True
|
|
|
Where/On what basis do Thp cells differentiate?
|
Based on local environment
|
|
|
What is the most efficient APC cell?
|
Dendritic cell
|
|
|
List the interactions necessary for CD4+ T cell activation?
|
Peptide-Class II MHC/TCR
|
|
|
For CD4+ T cell activation
|
what molecule does a cell's Class II MHC bind with?
|
|
|
T/F: The other molecular interactions occuring during conjugate formation decrease the avidity of peptide-MHC/TCR interactions
|
False
|
|
|
Which cells express LFA-3?
|
APCs
|
|
|
Which cells express CD2?
|
T cells
|
|
|
Which molecule does LFA-3 bind to in T cell activation?
|
CD2
|
|
|
Which molecule does CD2 bind to in T cell activation?
|
LFA-3
|
|
|
When APC/T cells interact via their MHC Class II/TCR molecules
|
Thp cells express what receptor?
|
|
|
IL-2 receptor expression on Thp cells induces what?
|
Clonal expansion of antigen stimulated T cells
|
|
|
Clonal expansion of CD4+ T cells is induced by which molecule combination(s)?
|
IL-2/IL-2 receptor
|
|
|
T/F: Clonal expansion events lead to IL-2 mRNA stabilization
|
True
|
|
|
T/F: CD80/CD86 are always expressed on B cells and Langerhans cells
|
False
|
|
|
For CD8+ T cell activation
|
what molecule does a cell's Class II MHC bind with?
|
|
|
Thp cells proceed to Th1 or Th2 subsets via what intermediate?
|
Th0
|
|
|
What are the cytokines that Th0 cells secrete which are common to both Th1 and Th2 cells?
|
IL-2
|
|
|
Under induction of IL-12
|
Thp cells can progress to which two cells?
|
|
|
Release of this cytokine by (x) cells leads Th0 cells to become Th1 cells
|
INFGamma
|
|
|
Release of this cytokine by (x) cells leads Th0 cells to become Th2 cells
|
IL-4
|
|
|
T/F: Both mast and Th0 cells secrete IL-4 in the early phase of CD4+ T cell activation
|
True
|
|
|
T/F: Th0
|
Th1 and Th2 cells relate to CD4+ T cells
|
|
|
List the cytokines Th1 cells produce
|
IL-2
|
|
|
List the cytokines Th2 cells produce
|
IL-4
|
|
|
List the general functions of the cytokines produced by Th1 cells
|
Support macrophage/NK cell/CD8+ T cell effector response
|
|
|
T/F: Th1 cytokines are required for immunity against viruses
|
True
|
|
|
T/F: Th1 cytokines are not required for immunity against parasites
|
False
|
|
|
T/F: Th1 cytokines are required for immunity against fungi
|
True
|
|
|
T/F: Th1 cytokines are not required for immunity against intracellular
|
False
|
|
|
List the general functions of the cytokines produced by Th2 cells
|
Support B cell induced activation
|
|
|
T/F: Both Th1 and Th2 cytokines support isotype switching
|
True
|
|
|
In particular
|
which isotype switching takes place with the aid of Th2 cytokines
|
|
|
Which Th2 cytokine promotes the switching of IgG1 > IgE?
|
IL-4
|
|
|
T/F: Cytokines produced by Th1 cells dampen Th2 cells
|
True
|
|
|
T/F: Cytokines produced by Th2 cells dampen Th1 cells
|
True
|
|
|
T/F: Cytokines produced by Th1 cells dampen Th2 cells and visa versa
|
True
|
|
|
Which Th2 cytokine(s) down regulates Th1 cells?
|
IL-10
|
|
|
Which Th1 cytokine(s) down regulates Th2 cells?
|
IFNGamma
|
|
|
What are the two general mechanisms by which Th1/Th2 cells are regulated?
|
Loss of T cell stimulation (no more antigen)
|
|
|
IL-10 dampening of Th1 cells (from its production by Th2 cells) is thought to be mediated by the role of which APC cytokine?
|
IL-12
|
|
|
T/F: CD28 is constitutively expressed on mature T cells
|
True
|
|
|
T/F: CD152 is constitutively expressed on mature T cells
|
True
|
|
|
T/F: CTLA-4 is constitutively expressed on mature T cells
|
False
|
|
|
When does CTLA-4 expression peak?
|
2 days after initial CD4+ T cell activation
|
|
|
When does CTLA-4 expression disappear?
|
4 days after initial CD4+ T cell activation
|
|
|
T/F: CTLA-4 has lower affinity for CD80/CD86 than CD28 does
|
False
|
|
|
CTLA-4 knockout mice demonstrate what phenomenon?
|
Increased number of activated lymphocytes
|
|
|
T cells stimulated only by peptide-MHC in the absense of suitable costimulation become (x) or undergo (y)
|
Anergic (x)
|
|
|
The engagement of B7 and CD28 enhances the expression of what molecule?
|
Bcl-x
|
|
|
Describe the function of bcl-x
|
Molecule important in protecting T cells from fas-mediated apoptosis
|
|
|
The recruitment of the tyrosine phosphatase SHP-2 has what effect on T cells?
|
Inactivates T cells
|
|
|
SHP-2 is thought to precipitate with the interaction with which other cytokine?
|
CTLA-4
|
|
|
Proliferation of activated T cells represents (x) from programmed cell death
|
Rescue (x)
|
|
|
T/F: T cell activation leads to the expression of both the fas ligand and receptor
|
True
|
|
|
CD200 and CD200R interaction leads to what?
|
T cell mediated immune response suppression
|
|
|
Which cells express CD200?
|
T cells
|
|
|
Which cells express CD200R?
|
T cells > myeloid cells
|
|
|
Which cells express higher concentrations of CD200R
|
CD4+ or CD8+?
|
|
|
Which cells express higher concentrations of CD200R
|
memory or naïve/effector cells?
|
|
|
T/F: CD200R expression is upregulated on both CD4+ and CD8+ cells after stimulation
|
True
|
|
|
T/F: nTreg cells arise from CD4+ Th0 cells
|
False
|
|
|
List the most distinguished markers on nTreg cells
|
CD4
|
|
|
nTreg cell depletion enhances what?
|
Immune response to pathogens
|
|
|
nTreg suppress which items?
|
IL-2 transcription
|
|
|
Which cytokine induces nTreg cells to become a/iTreg cells?
|
TBFBeta
|
|
|
T/F: a/iTreg cells arise from Th0 cells
|
True
|
|
|
T/F: Only nTreg (and not a/iTreg cells) demonstrate CD4
|
CD25 and FOXP3 markers
|
|
|
Where do a/iTreg cells arise (in comparison to nTreg cells)?
|
a/iTreg cells arise in the periphery
|
|
|
Th0 cells become a/iTreg cells in the presence of (x) (but in the absence of (y))
|
TGFBeta (x)
|
|
|
Tr1 cells were initially isolated from which patients?
|
SCID
|
|
|
Tr1 cells have cytokine profiles similar to which cells?
|
Th2 cells
|
|
|
Which cytokines are thought to aid in inducing the formation of Tr1 cells?
|
IL-10
|
|
|
Where are Tr1 cells abundant?
|
Intestine
|
|
|
Th3 cells are also called what?
|
Tr2 cells
|
|
|
Tr2 cells are also called what?
|
Th3 cells
|
|
|
Tr2 cells are a subset of (x) cells that primarily secrete (y)
|
CD4+ (x)
|
|
|
What phenomenon has been observed when transfering Tr2 cells between animals?
|
Tolerance transfer
|
|
|
Tr2 cells suppress the production of which cell(s)?
|
Th1
|
|
|
TGFBeta increases the production of which immunoglobulin?
|
IgA
|
|
|
CD4+ Th17 cells can arise in the presence of which two combinations of cytokines?
|
TGFBeta/IL-6
|
|
|
What are the steps in the differentiation of Th17 cells?
|
Differentiation
|
|
|
The amplification stage of Th17 cell differentiation is mediated by which cytokine?
|
IL-21
|
|
|
Stabilization and secretion by Th17 cells requires the action of which cytokine?
|
IL-23
|
|
|
IL-23 is secreted by which cell(s)?
|
APCs
|
|
|
What are the roles of Th17 cells?
|
Immune response against pathogens not eliminated by Th1 or Th2 cells
|
|
|
What cytokines do Th17 cells secrete?
|
IL-17(A)
|
|
|
T/F: Th17 cells are highly pathogenic and cause inflammation
|
True
|
|
|
Down regulation of Th17 cells is mediated by which cytokines?
|
IFNGamma
|
|
|
T/F: Both Th1 and Th2 memory cells exist
|
True
|
|
|
What is the time difference between primary and secondary Th1/Th2 cell activation?
|
Primary-7days
|
|
|
Which interactions are necessary to induce a conversion between pCTL and CTL cells?
|
Peptide-MHC I
|
|
|
How long does the process of pCTL > CTL conversion take?
|
About seven days
|
|
|
In CTL induction
|
which molecule(s) does CD2 bind to?
|
|
|
MHC Class I degrade antigens via the (x) pathway?
|
Endogenous
|
|
|
MHC Class II degrade antigens via the (x) pathway?
|
Exogenous
|
|
|
Which molecules need to bind to a fragmented antigen in MHC Class I presentation?
|
TAP-1
|
|
|
Describe cross presentation
|
The process of an exogenous antigen being processed to activate naïve CD8+ cells
|
|
|
Describe cross priming
|
The process of cross presentation being utilized by non-normal MHC cell types (e.g. exogenous by MHC I)
|
|
|
T/F: An early detection of pCTL > CTL progression is the increase in IL-2 receptor
|
True
|
|
|
Which cell type provides IFNGamma and IL-2 needed for CTL induction?
|
Th1
|
|
|
T/F: Circulating CTLs destroy viruses and cells infected with viruses
|
True
|
|
|
CTL-mediated lysis of the target cell I commonly referred to as (x)
|
Delivery of 'lethal hit'
|
|
|
T/F: Lytic granules for killing CTL-bound cells are polarized towards the CTL
|
False
|
|
|
Death of target cells by CTLs occurs by either (x) or (y)
|
Osmotic lysis (x)
|
|
|
Which CTL molecule is a pore forming protein which leads to colloidal swelling and osmotic lysis?
|
Perforin
|
|
|
T/F: The release of perforin
|
and its lytic actions
|
|
|
As the number of virally infected cells disappear
|
many cells will die
|
|
|
What are the time differences of CTL activation between a memory cell and naïve T cell?
|
Immediately (memory)
|
|
|
T/F: Memory cells require more costimulation than naïve T cells
|
False
|
|
|
List examples of monoclonal lymphocyte activators
|
T-dependent/T-independent antigens
|
|
|
List examples of oligoclonal lymphocyte activators
|
Superantigens
|
|
|
List examples of polyclonal lymphocyte activators
|
Mitogens (B: High LPS
|
|
|
Which organisms can be termed superantigens?
|
Various bacteria and viruses
|
|
|
T/F: Superantigens undergo processing and presentation by MHC molecules
|
False
|
|
|
When do thymic derived Gamma/Delta cells first appear?
|
During embryonic development
|
|
|
T/F: Both Alpha/Beta and Gamma/Delta T cells complex with CD3
|
True
|
|
|
What CD4/CD8 patterns are present on Gamma/Delta T cells?
|
Double negative (CD4-
|
|
|
T/F: Different subsets of Gamma/Delta TCRs appear ant different times during ontogeny and are restricted to different anatomical locations
|
True
|
|
|
List some anatomic locations where Gamma/Delta TCRs may potentially be located
|
Skin epithelia
|
|
|
Skin Gamma/Delta TCRs usually express which V genes?
|
VGamma3
|
|
|
Gut Gamma/Delta TCRs usually express which V genes?
|
VGamma5
|
|
|
Peripheral blood Gamma/Delta TCRs usually express which V genes?
|
VGamma9
|
|
|
T/F: Gamma/Delta T cell recognition is uniform (like Alpha/Beta T cell)
|
False
|
|
|
Clonal expansion of Gamma/Delta T cells recognizing heat shock proteins (HSP) is observed in what pathologies?
|
Malignancy
|
|
|
In general
|
cytokines are pleitropic and redundant
|
|
|
Where can IL-7 be produced?
|
Bone marrow stromal cells
|
|
|
IFNAlpha and IFNBeta are secreted by which cells?
|
Those that have been infected with viruses that produce dsDNA
|
|
|
IL-1 is produced by which cell(s)?
|
Macrophages
|
|
|
IL-2 is produced by which cell(s)?
|
Thp
|
|
|
IL-3 is produced by which cell(s)?
|
T cells
|
|
|
IL-4 is produced by which cell(s)?
|
Mast
|
|
|
IL-5 is produced by which cell(s)?
|
Mast
|
|
|
IL-6 is produced by which cell(s)?
|
Macrophages
|
|
|
IL-10 is produced by which cell(s)?
|
Th2 cells
|
|
|
IL-12 is produced by which cell(s)?
|
Macrophages
|
|
|
IL-23 is produced by which cell(s)?
|
Macrophages
|
|
|
IFNGamma is produced by which cell(s)?
|
NK
|
|
|
TNF is produced by which cell(s)?
|
Macrophages
|
|
|
TGFBeta is produced by which cell(s)?
|
Th2 cells
|
|
|
ALL CSF is produced by which cell(s)?
|
Macrophages
|
|
|
GM-CSF is produced by which cells(s)?
|
Macrophages
|
|
|
IL-17A is produced by which cell(s)?
|
Th17 cells
|
|
|
IL-17F is produced by which cell(s)?
|
Th17 cells
|
|
|
IL-21 is produced by which cell(s)?
|
Th17 cells
|
|
|
IL-22 is produced by which cell(s)?
|
Th17 cells
|
|
|
T/F: IL-1 and TNF are synergisitic cytokines
|
True
|
|
|
List the effects of IL-1 and TNF
|
Role in inflammation
|
|
|
List the effects of TNF alone
|
Enhances NADPH oxidase activity
|
|
|
List the effects of IL-2
|
T cell growth factor
|
|
|
List the effects of IL-3
|
Important for both myeloid and lymphoid progenitor cell development
|
|
|
List the effects of IL-4
|
Required to isotype switch to IgE
|
|
|
List the effects of IL-5
|
Differentiation of eospinophils
|
|
|
List the effects of IL-6
|
Stimulus for CRP secretion from hepatocytes (inflammation)
|
|
|
List the effects of IL-7
|
Aids in BM/thymus hematopoiesis
|
|
|
List the effects of IL-10
|
Down regulates IL-12 secretion by dendritic cells/macrophages/Th1 cytokines
|
|
|
Which cytokine is most effective at down regulating iNOS?
|
TGFBeta (>IL-10)
|
|
|
List the effects of IL-12
|
Activates NK cells to secrete IFNGamma
|
|
|
List the effects of IFNGamma
|
Activates iNOS
|
|
|
List the effects of IFNAlpha and IFNBeta
|
Triggers enzyme production which interferes with virus replication
|
|
|
List the effects of TGFBeta
|
Down regulation of iNOS
|
|
|
List the functions of IL-17A and IL-17F
|
Induce expression of proinflammatory cytokines and chemokines (e.g. IL-6
|
|
|
List the effects of IL-21
|
Plays a role in the differentiation of Th0 > Th17 (with TGFBeta)
|
|
|
List the effects of IL-22
|
Proinflammatory
|
|
|
List the effects of IL-33
|
Allergic inflammation and asthma
|
|
|
List the effects of GM-CSF
|
Role in differentiation of myeloid > GM progenitor
|
|
|
List the effects of G-CSF
|
Role in differentiation of GM progenitor > granulocytes
|
|
|
List the effects of M-CSF
|
Role in differentiation of GM progenitor > monocytes
|
|
|
Chemokines are divided into subclasses based on what?
|
Position of invariant cysteine residues
|
|
|
Which cells produce the chemokine Macrophage Inflammatory Protein 1Alpha (MIP-1Alpha)?
|
Macrophages
|
|
|
MIP-1Alpha is chemoattractive for which cell(s)?
|
Granulocytes
|
|
|
Which gene is responsible for encoding MIP-1Alpha?
|
CCL3
|
|
|
Which gene is responsible for encoding RANTES?
|
CCL5
|
|
|
Which cells produce the chemokine RANTES?
|
T cells
|
|
|
RANTES is chemoattractive for which cell(s)?
|
T cells
|
|
|
Which gene is responsible for encoding IFNGamma Inducible Protein 10 (IP-10)?
|
CXCL10
|
|
|
Which cells produce the chemokine IP-10?
|
Monocytes
|
|
|
IP-10 is chemoattractive for which cell(s)?
|
Monocytes/macrophages
|
|
|
Which gene is responsible for encoding MCP-1?
|
CCL2
|
|
|
Which cells produce the chemokine Monocyte Chemoattractant Protein-1 (MCP-1)?
|
Macrophages
|
|
|
MCP-1 is chemoattractive for which cell(s)?
|
Monocytes
|
|
|
Which gene is responsible for encoding IL-8?
|
CXCL8
|
|
|
Which cells produce the chemokine IL-8?
|
Macrophages
|
|
|
IL-8 is chemoattractive for which cell(s)?
|
PMNs
|
|
|
The chemokines CINC and GRO are attractants for which cell(s)?
|
PMNs
|
|
|
Which gene is responsible for encoding Eotaxin?
|
CCL11
|
|
|
Which cells produce the chemokine Eotaxin?
|
Epithelial cells
|
|
|
Eotaxin is chemoattractive for which cell(s)?
|
Eosinophils
|
|
|
T/F: Dendritic cells are highly potent APCs
|
True
|
|
|
Dendritic cells are derived from what bone marrow stem cells?
|
CD34+ (in the presence of GM-CSF and other cytokines)
|
|
|
T/F: Stimulation of nerve endings by bradykinin produces pain
|
True
|
|
|
Tissue damage triggers activation of the coagulation pathway contact system which is comprised of which four parts?
|
Factor XII
|
|
|
What serves as a activating factor/substance for Factor XII?
|
Collagen (exposed in damaged tissues)
|
|
|
Activated Factor XII converts (x) to (y)
|
Prekallikrein (x)
|
|
|
Kallikrein enzymatically cleaves (x) to (y)
|
Kininogen (x)
|
|
|
In relation to the complement system
|
kallikrein cleaves (x) to (y)
|
|
|
Describe anaphylatoxins
|
Bind to receptors on basophils and mast cells to induce degranulation and histamine release
|
|
|
List some mediators needed for vasodilation
|
Histamine
|
|
|
What effect(s) does histamine have on endothelial cells?
|
Contraction in capillary beds and post-capillary venules
|
|
|
Histamine upregulates the production of which endothelial cell marker?
|
P-selectin
|
|
|
Selectins aid in the (x) of leukocyte diapedesis
|
Rolling (x)
|
|
|
Which cells are usually the first responders to tissue injury?
|
Macrophages
|
|
|
List some cytokines/chemokines secreted by activated macrophages
|
IL-8/CXCL8
|
|
|
T/F: Macrophages first secrete metalloproteinases
|
then secrete tissue inhibitors of matrix metalloproteinases (TIMPS)
|
|
|
Which molecule(s) induce E-selectin
|
VCAM-1 and ICAM1/2?
|
|
|
VCAM-1 and ICAM-1 aid in the (x) of leukocyte diapedesis
|
Firm adhesion (x)
|
|
|
Which molecule(s) induce vascular endothelial cells to secrete IL-8 and MCP-1?
|
TNF
|
|
|
C5a and platelet activating factor (PAF) are both chemoattractant for which cell(s)?
|
PMNs
|
|
|
T/F: L-selectin is expressed on circulating cells in the non-inflammatory state
|
True
|
|
|
T/F: P and E-selectins are expressed on circulating cells during the non inflammatory state
|
False
|
|
|
Where are P and E-selectins expressed during the inflammatory state?
|
Post-capillary venules
|
|
|
For P-selectin
|
the cell associated counter receptor is what kind of carbohydrate?
|
|
|
T/F: Each selectin interacts with distinct carbohydrate ligands
|
True
|
|
|
TNF and IL-1 upreguate the production of which endothelial cell marker(s)?
|
E-selectin
|
|
|
What is the genereal purpose for leukocyte rolling?
|
Prolong the time cells are exposed to chemoattractants/activators
|
|
|
Integrins aid in the (x) of leukocyte diapedesis
|
Firm adhesion (x)
|
|
|
T/F: Integrins are made up of Alpha/Beta subunits
|
True
|
|
|
Integrins are classed into families based on the (x) they express
|
Beta chain (x)
|
|
|
List some common integrin family classes
|
Beta1
|
|
|
Along with metalloproteinases
|
which markers have been implicated in the destruction of endothelial cell basement membrane?
|
|
|
Describe Gelatinase B
|
Member of zinc binding matrix metalloproteinases
|
|
|
Transmigration of cells between endothelial cells requires the homophilic interaction of which molecule on both leukocytes and endothelial cells?
|
PECAM
|
|
|
REVIEW LEUKOCYTE RECREUITMENT FLOW CHART
|
REVIEW LEUKOCYTE RECREUITMENT FLOW CHART
|
|
|
T/F: TNF and IL-1 can act systemically
|
producing vasodilation
|
|
|
Which process induces the classic complement pathway?
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Binding of IgM or IgG to C1
|
|
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Which complement fragment is a chemoattractant for PMNs?
|
C5a
|
|
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Which cells secrete matrix metalloproteinases (MMPs)?
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T cells
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|
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What is an alias for MMP-2?
|
Pro-gelatinase A
|
|
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What is an alias for MMP-9?
|
Pro-gelatinase B
|
|
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Which molecules induce MMP-9?
|
VIP
|
|
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T/F: The phenotype of Th cells generated in response to the antigen determines the course of inflammation
|
True
|
|
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Th1 cells/cytokines (ENHANCE/DAMPEN) inflammatory responses
|
EHNANCE
|
|
|
Th2 cells/cytokines (ENHANCE/DAMPEN) inflammatory responses
|
DAMPEN
|
