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387 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
  • 3rd side (hint)
1st line tx for a fib is …
Digoxin
how does digoxin help in a fib?
decreases conduction through AV node
treatment for C. difficile
metronidazole
why doesn't gentamicin work for C. diff?
genatmicin = aminoglycoside that only works for gram (-) infections
most common cause of drug-induced thrombocytopenia
heparin
anticoagulant associated with development of ProC deficiency
warfarin
kernicterus can result when pregnant women are given ___ in the third trimester
TMP-sulfa
associated with "gray baby syndrome" when given to pregnant women
chloramphenicol
topical ointment often used in the prophylaxis of infections in burn patients
silver sulfadiazine cream
appropriate pharmacologic tx for DIC
heparin
antidote for acetaminophen OD
acetylcysteine
chelating agent used to treat OD with copper, lead, gold, and other metals
penacillamine
given to people who OD on heparin
protamine
acetylcholinesterase reactivator used in organophosphate poisoning
pralidoxime
antiarrythmic which can cause drug-induced lupus
procainamide
other drugs that can cause drug-induced lupus
hydralazine, quinine, INH, methyldopa
drug that causes release of factor VIII from storage sites
desmopressin
drug that specifically inhibits the translocation in CML
imanitib mesylate (Gleevac)
neurotransmitter affected by sertraline
serotonin (SSRI)
type of antibiotic likely to exacerbate MG
aminoglycosides (risk for neuromuscular blockade)
drug used to diagnose MG
edrophonium
most appropriate treatment of Klebsiella pneumonia
cefotaxime IV
most appropriate treatment of Legionella pneumonia
erythromycin IV
drugs that potentiate the effects of warfarin
quinolones, erythromycin, sulfas, and metronidazole

(Qween UP WAR MES!) Clean up your mess.
None
mucolytic used in the treatment of CF
N-acetylcysteine
tricyclic antidepressant which may cause hyperprolactinemia
nortriptyline
anti-Parkinson's drug that affects dopamine
selegiline
mechanism of selegiline
MAO-B inhibitor (slows metabolism of dopa)
β blocker which does NOT exacerbate asthma (3)
atenolol, metoprolol, esmolol

(MEeT ES AT the Back)
None
two main Abx used for anaerobes
metronidazole and clindamycin
streptokinase binds to …
plasminogen
mechanism of cocaine
blocks reuptake of NE
two drugs that increase the activity of lipoprotein lipase
gemfibrozil and clofibrate
two drugs that act as bile acid sequestrants
cholestyramine and colestipol
aminocaproic acid is indicated for …
control of bleeding by hyperfibrinolysis, and prophylaxis in hemophiliacs undergoing a surgical procedure

(Puts an amine CAP on bleeding)
None
what causes hemolysis in G6PD deficient individuals?
oxidative stress (low NADPH means glutathione cannot scavenge free radicals)
1st-line rx for panic disorder
SSRI
reserved for refractory cases of schizophrenia due to risk of agranylocytosis
clozapine

(A GRANY uses clothes pins)
None
inappropriate laughter, scleral injection, tachycardia, and paranoia are typical of a person using what illicit substance?
cannabis
1st-line rx for DVT
IV heparin
1st-line rx for hypothyroidism
levothyroxine
contraindication for levothyroxine use
CAD (enhances β-adrenergic effects; may precipitate MI)
toxicities of methotrexate
liver, renal, BM
after CLL chemotherapy, patients are at risk for what type of kidney stones?
uric acid
alcoholics have (increased/decreased) levels of theophylline
decreased (EtOH induces P450)
name the K+ sparing diuretics
spironolactone, triamterene, amiloride
drug class of salsalate
NSAID (salicylate)
effect of ammonium chloride on the urine
acidifies
interaction of ammonium chloride and salicylates
salicylate toxicity (amm chloride inhibits excretion)
mechanism of flutamide
comp antagonist at androgen receptors
mechanism of finasteride
5α reductase inhibitor
Class I antiarrhythmics block ___
sodium channels
Name some class I antiarrhythmics
quinidine (A), amiodarone (A, III), procainamide (A), lidocaine (B), flecainide ©
Class II antiarrhythmics block ___
beta-adrenergic receptors
Class III antiarrhythmics block ____
potassium channels
Name some class III antiarrhythmics
sotalol (also β), amiodarone, bretylium
Class IV antiarrhythmics block ___
calcium channels
Name some class IV antiarrhythmics
verapamil, diltiazam
mechanism of metoclopromide
antagonist at D receptors
use of metoclopromide
prokinetic agent used in GERD and diabetic gastroparesis
contraindication for metoclopromide (2)
bowel obstruction, Parkinson's
necrosis of the skin can be a toxicity of what anticoagulant?
warfarin
drug given for acute gouty attacks
colchicine
xanthine oxidase inhibitor used in gout
allpurinol
increases the excretion of uric acid (2)
probenacid, sulfinpyrazone
define REM rebound
some drugs steal REM; when removed, body has more REM, including vivid dreams
drugs that cause REM rebound when withdrawn
barbiturates, EtOH, MAOI, phenothiazines
mechanism of caffeine
inhibition of phosphodiesterase (prevent cAMP degradation)
carbonic anhydrase inhibitors can lead to what acid-base disturbance?
metabolic acidosis
close a PDA with …
indomethacin
class of drugs that must be given to a patient in a fib and WHY
anticoagulants; because the flow in the atrium is nonlaminar and predisposes to mural clots
inhaled corticosteroids are associated with ___ in asthmatic patients (microbial infxn)
candidiasis
these cardiac drugs "mask" the initial sx of hypoglycemia and are thus contraindicated in diabetics
β blockers
analgesic of choice for acute cholecystitis and WHY
meperidine; least likely to cause spasm of sphincter of Oddi
initial drug of choice for acute status epilepticus
diazepam
indications for carbamazepine
prophylaxis and treatment of tonic-clonic, focal, and complex partial seizures
drug of choice for absence seizures
ethosuximide
NSAID that is contraindicated in patients with sulfa allergy
celecoxib
location of action of spironolactone
collecting tubule
Name some drugs associated with the development of SIADH
tricyclics, carbamazepine, SSRI, MAOI, neuroleptics, antineoplastics
post-MI drugs that cause dry cough
ACE-I (captopril, enalapril)
two β1-selective antagonists
metoprolol and atenolol
mechanism of propythiouracil
inhibits peripheral conversion of T4 to T3 (aka inhibit deiodination of thyroxine)
general class of 5HT3 antagonists
the -setrons
use for the -setrons
antiemetics
indications for dimenhydrinate
motion sickness (Dramamine ©)
what is dronabinol?
active substance in marijuana
type of leukemia for which chlorambucil is used
CLL

C hl L orambuci L
None
the "better drug" than tamoxifen
raloxifene
mechanism of amphetamines
induce release of dopa and NE
side effects associated with steroid use
hypernatremia, hypocalcemia, fluid retention, hypocalcemia, hyperglycemia
indication for bethanechol
urinary retention (as in BPH)
oxybutynin is indicated in …
urinary incontinence and urgency
α1 agonist indicated for both BPH and HTN
terazosin
1st drug of choice for community-acquired S. pneumo pneumonia
Pen G
lactic acidosis is the most severe complication of this diabetes drug
metformin

Foreign Met's have lactic acid
None
what is the effect of cimetidine on hepatic enzymes?
inhibits them
what is the effect of cimetidine on phenobarbital levels?
increases them (inhibits metabolism)
do proton-pump inhibitors affect hepatic enzymes?
no
in a patient with ulcers and RA, use …
COX-2 inhibitors
what neurotransmitter system do benzodiazepines affect?
GABA
drug to treat T. cruzi
Nifurtimox

Nice Fur Tom Cruise
None
what drug is used for immediate lowering of intracranial pressure?
high-potency steroid (dexamethasone, prednisolone)
mechanism of action of amiodarone
potassium-channel blocker (also Class IA)
big toxicity of amiodarone
pulmonary disease
mechanism of action of warfarin
inhibit synthesis of clotting factors (2, 7, 9, 10)
high doses of ____ will reduce morbidity and mortality in measles infxn
vitamin A

Me A sles
None
children <3 mo of age who have come into contact with measles should get…
immune globulin
the best diuretic class for patients with CrCl of 10 mL/min
loops (furosemide) (other categories only work down to a CrCl of 40)
common acid-base disorder as a result of overuse of diuretics
metabolic alkalosis (increased Na and K excretion)
use for doxepin
tricyclic antidepressant
common side effects of doxepin
tachycardia, xerostomia (dry mouth)
name some ACEI
captopril, enalapril
mechanism of erythromycin
inhibits translocation
mechanism of streptomycin
misreading during protein synthesis
mechanism of cyclohexamide
inhibits peptidyl transferase (eukaryotes)
mechanism of chloramphenicol
inhibits peptidyl transferase (prokaryotes)
drugs that increase peripheral insulin senstivity
glitazones
rx for aspirin OD
alkalinize the urine with sodium bicarb
mechanism of chlorpropamide
sulfonylurea which causes release of insulin from pancreas (closes K channels)
Name the two α glycosidase inhibitors
ascarbose, miglitol
effect of cimetidine on hepatic enzymes
inhibits them
1st line tx for fibromyalgia
antidepressants (usually amitriptyline)
antidepressant contraindicated in anorectics/bulemics because of risk of seizures
buproprion
only antidepressant used in bulimia
fluoxetine
first-generation cephalosporins are useful in killing which bugs?
Proteus, E. Coli, and Klebsiella (PEcK)
this drug is useful in helping the kidneys to excrete amphetamines
ammonium chloride (acidify urine)
syndrome of muscle rigidity, hyperpyrexia, CNS alterations, and heart alterations
neuroleptic malignant syndrome (caused by antipsychotics and amoxipine)
side effects of fluoxetine
insomnia, sexual dysfunction, anxiety
side effects of diazepam
dizziness, somnolence, and drowsiness
epinephrine will decrease BP if what class of drug is coadministered?
alpha-antagonists (phentolamine)
dietary drug that should be given with INH
Vit B6 (pyridoxine)
class of diabetic drugs that is contraindicated in patients with sulfa allergies
sulfonylureas (tolbutamide, glipizide, glyburide, chlorpropamide)
what is the effect of glucocorticoids on osteoclasts and osteoblasts?
↑ osteoclast activity, ↓ osteoblast activity (net bone loss)
mechanism of trihexyphenidyl
muscarinic antagonist
indication for trihexyphenidyl
Parkinson's
define efficacy
maximum effect that can be obtained from a drug (regardless of dose)
drugs implicated in the development of acute interstitial nephritis
NSAIDs, β lactams, sulfa drugs, diuretics, cimetidine, phenytoin, methyldopa
drugs implicated in hemolysis of G6PD-deficient pts
primaquine, sulfas, dapsone, quinine
1st line tx in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
β blockers
hyperkalemia is a potential effect of what anesthetic?
succinylcholine (depolarizing)
2 treatments for OCD
clomipramine, SSRIs
sx of EtOH withdrawl
tremor, n/v, high BP, hallucinations, sweating
sx of cocaine abuse
tremor, n/v, high BP, hallucinations, sweating
prophylactic agent used to prevent hemorrhagic cystitis caused by nitrogen mustard agents (cyclophosphamide, ifosfamide)
Mesna
prevents potential side effects of methotrexate
leucovorin
overdose of atenolol can cause what EKG finding?
heart block
drugs (2) used to treat H. pylori-induced gastric ulcer
PPI + Abx
indication for cyclobenzaprine
muscle relaxant (structurally related to tricyclic antidepressants)
way to remember the amide anesthetics
they have two "I"s in their names (lidocaine, prilocaine, etidocaine)
way to remember the ester anesthetics
they do not have two "I"s in their names
main side effect of tPA
hemorrhage
1st order kinetics means that the drug kills a constant (#/proportion) of bugs
proportion
the effectiveness of diuretics depend on ____ (laboratory value)
creatinine clearance
which diuretics work best in a patient with very low creatinine clearance?
loop (furosemide)
the antidepressant that can cause neuroleptic malignant syndrome
amoxipine
this antiarrythmic can cause v fib in patients with Wolfe-Parkinson-White
digoxin
β1-selective antagonists
BEAM: metoprolol, esmolol, and atenolol, Betaxolol
None
Name 4 sulfonylurea diabetic drugs
glipizide, glyburide, tolbutamide, chlorpropamide
Why are β-blockers contraindicated in diabetics?
blunt premonitory sx of hypoglycemia
silver sulfa cream is indicated for …
severe burns
betamethasone cream is indicated for …
inflammatory conditions of the skin (e.g. psoriasis)
erythromycin topical cream is indicated for …
acne
metronidazole cream is indicated for …
acne rosacea
analgesic used in acute cholecystitis
meperidine
depolarizing skeletal muscle agent used in anesthesia
succinylcholine
preferentially inhibits MAO-B
selegiline
antimuscarinic that improves the muscular rigidity & tremor of Parkinson's
benztropine
dopamine receptor antagonists used in Parkinson's (2)
bromocriptine, pergolide
the active metaboits of 5-FU mimics the action of which nucleotides?
uracil (RNA) and thymine (DNA)
mechanism of action of bethanechol
muscarinic agonist
mechanism of bumetanide
loop diuretic (inhibits Na-K-Cl transporter in thick ascending limb)
mechanism of neostigmine
inhibits acetylcholinesterase (muscarinic agonist)
indicated for the rx of both BPH and HTN
terazosin
mechanism of guanfacine and indication
centrally-acting α2 agonist (for HTN)
acute control of a fib is achieved with …
digoxin
cyclobenzapine is structurally related to …
tricyclic antidepressant
tricyclic antidepressant with strong anticholinergic properties
amitriptyline
mechanism of citalopram
SSRI
LEAST sedating anti-seizure medication
valproic acid
treatment for salicylate poisoning
acidifcation of urine (e.g. ammonium chloride)
β blockers with intrinsic sympathomimetic activity (2)
acebutolol, pindolol
inhibitory amino acid receptors (2)
GABA and glycine
antidepressants that may cause amenorrhea and galactorrhea
tricyclics (due to increased prolactin)
1st line rx for severe, refractory Crohn's
corticosteroids (e.g. prednisone)
uric acid kidney stones are associated with what rx?
chemotherapy
uric acid kidney stones are associated with what sytemic dz?
gout
centrally-acting skeletal muscle depressant structurally related to tricyclic antidepressants
cyclobenzaprine
baclofen is indicated for …
rx of spasticity of MS or spinal cord injuries
reinforcement properties of illicit drugs are most likely associated with what neurotransmitter?
dopamine
hemorrhagic cystitis can be prevented in patients taking cyclophosphamide by administration of what drug?
mesna
antidote for cyanide poisoning
sodium thiosulfate
mechanism of N-acetycystine
mucolytic (splits disulfide linkages between mucoproteins)
CHF can be caused by what chemotherapeutic drug?
doxorubicin (adriamycin)
abx associated with kernicterus in an infant when taken during 3rd trimester
sulfa drugs
anticoagulant that can cause skin necrosis
warfarin
acute management of RA is usually …
COX-2 inhibitors
mechanism of sumatriptan
serotonin 1D agonist
the two active metabolites of primidone
phenobarbital, PEMA
drug of choice for HTN in a pregnant woman
methyldopa (α2 agonist)
drugs proven to delay progression of CHF
ACE inhibitors
which tetracycline is best to use in a patient with renal disease?
doxycycline
three Class IB antiarrhythmics
procainamide, mexiletine, tocainide
three Class IA antiarrythmics
quinidine, disopyramide, amiodarone, procainamide
rx for methotrexate OD
alkalinize the urine with sodium bicarb
mechanism of benztropine
anticholinergic (used in Parkinson's)
side effects of benztropine
decreased salivation, lacrimation, urination, defecation, and GI motility (anti-SLUDG)
where in a liver cell is the P450 system located?
smooth ER
antihypertensives indicated in ADPKD
ACE inhibitors (b/c renin is high in ADPKD)
nonsedating anti-seizure medication
valproic acid
primary side effect of niacin
facial flushing
β blocker known to cause dyslipidemia
metoprolol
anti-migraine medication that can cause hypertensive crisis
sumatriptan
primary side effect of ergotamine
n/v
how does one differentiate between stimulant OD and anticholinergic OD?
look at the skin - sweaty with stimulants and dry with anticholinergics
mechanism of the statins
HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors
mechanism of the tricyclic antidepressants
inhibit uptake of NE and serotonin
rx for serum sickness
prednisone and diphenhydramine
name the drug(s): ↓SA node automaticity, ↑AV node refractoriness, ↓AV node conduction velcoity
propanolol (Class II antiarrhythmics)
acute rx for closed-angle glaucoma
lower IOP with acetazolamide or mannitol
rx for open-angle glaucoma
β blockers
which class of antiarrhythmics can be used for immediate control of a fib and flutter?
Class IV (especially verapamil)
how long does amiodarone take to show an effect?
weeks (i.e. DO NOT USE for acute rx!!)
exacerbations of narrow-angle glaucoma can be precipitated by what class of drug?
anticholinergics
how do anti-myasthenia gravis drugs typically work?
anticholinesterases (carbamylate the cholinesterase reversibly)
mechanism of edrophonium
comp inhibitor (short-acting) of cholinesterase
which type of receptor (β1, α2, etc.) would be expected to maximally increase the intracellular concentration of calcium?
α1 (it works by PLC, not adenylyl cyclase)
to what class does indipamide belong?
thiazide diuretic
what is the effect of thiazides on Ca excretion?
less excretion (thus can help prevent osteoporosis)
the drugs that artifically prolong the patency of the ductus arteriosis
PGs
associated with p-ANCA
polyarteritis nodosa
viral infection associated with polyarteritis nodosa
Hep B
type of diuretic which places the patient at risk for gout
thiazides
NO stimulates ____ to induce vascular changes
guanylate cyclase
anovulatory cycles cause what changes in the endometrium?
proliferative changes due to unopposed estrogen stimulation (get dysfunctional bleeding)
best drug to treat both HTN and BPH
α antagonist
sucralfate CANNOT be given with what other classes of drug?
antacids or H2 blockers
opioid agonist without abuse liability, constipating SE, resp depression, or analgesia
dextromethorphan
Ca channel blocker used to treat both angina and HTN
verapamil
side effects of verapamil
signs and sx of CHF (a small percentage of patients actually develop CHF)
what is the rx for an amphetamide OD?
acidify the urine with ammonium chloride
what is the rx for phenobarbital OD?
alkalinize the urine with sodium bicarb
rx for TIA
aspirin
drugs given to mitigate the effects of CNS stimulants
diazepam, antipsychotics, β blockers
CHF drug that afftects BOTH preload and afterload
ACEI
abrupt discontinuation of glucocorticoids causes …
hypotension, hypoglycemia, hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, decreased ACTH, low cortisol
serious side effect of misoprostol
induced abortion
noncompetitive antagonist's effect on efficacy and potency
potency unchanged, decreased efficacy
competitive antagonist's effect on efficacy and potency
decreased potency, unchanged efficacy
β blocker that antagonizes the vascular and cardiac effects of NE
labetolol (β1 = β2 antagonist, α1 antagonist)
formication is typical of what illicit drug use?
Stimulants (e.g. amphetamine)
mechanism of cromolyn sodium
inhibits the degranulation of mast cells in asthmatics
drugs of choice for acute gout
colchicine and NSAIDs (which take longer for symptomatic relief)
opioid agonist used to induce emesis
apomorphine
histamine blocker without sedating properties
fexofenadine
nitroprusside causes dilation of (arterioles/venules/both)
both
side effects of nitroprusside
cyanide toxicity, hypotension
mechanism of action of leuprolide
GnRH analog
mechanism of finasteride
5α reductase inhibitor
mechanism of action of flutamide
antagonist at androgen receptors
mechanisms of action of gemfibrozil and clofibrate
activate lipoprotein lipase
mechanism of action of cholestyramine
bind bile acids in the intestine
mechanism of action of ticlopidine
prevents fibrinogen from binding to platelets
mechanism of action of dipyridamole
phosphodiesterase inhibitor that blocks the reuptake of adenosine
muscarinic antagonist that produces mydriasis and prevents accomodation
scopolamine
stimulation of which receptors causes bladder emptying (detrusor contraction)?
cholinergic parasympathetics
effect of isoproterenol on the heart
tachycardia
anticancer agent that causes minimal myelosuppression
vincristine
Level 5 emetogenic drugs given for cancer chemo
Dacarbazine, Cyclophosphamide, Cisplatin, Carmustine
anti-seizure med associated with thrombocytopenia
valproate
what's the second messanger associated with alpha-1 receptors?
PIP2 > DAG + IP3 > pro kin C + increased Ca
what is the second messanger associated with beta receptors?
inc adenylate cyclase > cAMP > pro kin C
how does the second messanger system of alpha-2 receptors differ from that associated with beta receptors?
both use adenylate cyclase; alpha is inhibitory, beta is stimulatory
D2 receptors have a second messanger system similar to what other receptor?
alpha2 (inhibit adenylate cyclase)
what is ergocalciferol?
synthetic Vitamin D (for lack of PTH)
antibacterial agent which will be not absorbed if taken with antacids
tetracycline
neurotransmitter used at the NMJ
Ach
are charged or uncharged drugs more readily taken up?
uncharged
illicit drug that causes nystagmus
PCP
illicit drug that causes perceptual changes, but not behavioral changes
LSD
mechanism of action of losartan
competitively inhibits angiotensin II
used in the rx of HTN in diabetic patients
ACEI
the effect of enalapril on sodium & potassium balance
hyperkalemia and mild hyponatremia
drug of choice for pneumococcal pneumonia
Penicillin
two drugs used in pneumococcal pneumonia in patients with sulfa allergies
erythromycin or vancomycin
recessed, darkened rings w/o enamel on new teeth can be caused by excess of what mineral?
flouride
what class of antidepressants cause delayed ejaculation?
SSRI
cancer antimetabolites act during which phase of the cell cycle?
S (synthesis) phase
lab studies in a patient given T3 supplementation
low TSH, high T3, low T4 (b/c T3 not peripherally converted to T4)
Ca channel blocker that is associated with acceleration of CHF in some patients
verapamil
is verapamil a - or + inotrope?
-
which antidepressant can cause spontaneous priapism?
trazodone
the bug that causes granuloma formation in utero
Listeria
leukocytoclastic angiitis is also known as …
hypersensitivity angiitis
leukocytoclastic angiitis has been linked to the use of what drug?
penicillin
mechanism of action of methoxamine
alpha-1 agonist
side effects of methotrexate
BM suppression, pulm toxicity, renal toxicity
significant side effect of vinblastine
BM suppression, hemmorrhagic colitis
significant side effect of vincristine
neurotoxicity
most common cause of drug-induced hypothyroidism
lithium carbonate
lente insulins have best effect between __ and __ hours
10 and 16
insulin preparations with long (i.e. 16-24 hours) duration of action
ultralente or protamine zinc
peak effect of regular insulin
4 hours
what other insulin preparation has a peak effect similar to regular insulin?
semilente
mechanism of action of carvedilol
like labetolol - beta and alpha-1 antagonist with longer half-life
ACEI are contraindicated in what type of hypertension?
renovascular
local anesthetics block ___ channels while (charged/uncharged) (inside/outside) the cell
Na channels when charged inside the cell
livedo reticularis is a common side effect of what anti-Parkinson's drug?
amantidine
sx of livedo reticularis
purplish-red mottling of the LE which intensifies with standing
cardioprotective agent used to protect pt against doxorubicin
dexrazoxane
clozapine's advantage over the typical antipsychotics
fewer EPS and good for (-) sx
NSAID with the greatest renal toxicity
indomethacin
synthetic PG used to prevent NSAID-induced ulcers
misprostol
appropriate initial therapy for septic shock
dopamine
mechanism of dobutamine
alpha-1 and beta-1 agonist
treat pinworm with …
mebendazole
orally active lead chelator
succimer
mechanism of action of glycopyrrolate
anticholinergic (like atropine)
preferred class of drug for panic disorder
benzodiazepine
antidepressant used in OCD
clomipramine, SSRIs
Rx for pyelo in patients allergic to sulfa
aminoglycosides
cephalosporins have cross-allergenicity with …
penicillins
buspirone is most often used for …
generalized anxiety disorder
why isn't buspirone used for stage fright or performance anxiety?
it takes a long time to take effect
increased zinc protophoryin indicates poisoning with …
lead
the effect of aspirin on warfarin
displaces warfarin; makes warfarin more potent
drugs that often lead to orthostatic hypotension
alpha-1 blockers
nitroprusside works due to what second messanger?
NO, which increases cGMP to relax smooth muscle
Is it often or rare that tetracycline resistance accompanies methicillin resistance in S. aureus?
often (>75%)
what do we use for methicillin- and tetracycline-resistant S. aureus?
use vancomycin
chemotherapeutic agent associated with peripheral neuropathy
vincristine
antibiotic which will NOT be absorbed in the presence of antacids
tetracycline
overuse of a thiazide diuretic will induce a ____ in aldosterone
increase
effect of physostigmine on the eye
accomodation and niosis
when acyclovir fails, try …
foscarnet
one major side effect of IM fluphenazine is …
severe orthostatic hypotension
hyperprolactinemia can be reduced with …
bromocriptine
treatment for methemoglobinemia
methylene blue
best agent for lowering intracranial pressure
mannitol
histologic feature of measles infection
syncytia formation
treatment for PCP
SMX-TMP
increased amounts of sER indicate that the patient has been taking …
a drug that induces P450
mechanism of tolbutamide
blocks ATP-sensitive K channels, leading to the release of insulin
pharacologic treatment for enuresis
imipramine
maintaining the patency of a ductus arteriosis is done with …
misoprostol
schedule of cortisol replacement
20 mg in am and 10 mg in pm
mechanism of finasteride
5-alpha reductase inhibitor
skeletal mm relaxant associated with decreases in BP
tubocurarine
mm rigidity, diaphoresis, hyperpyrexia, and altered mental status are typical of what reaction caused by antipsychotics?
neuroleptic malignant syndrome (caused by antipsychotics and amoxipine)
common side effects of erythromycin
Gi discomfort
which adrenergic receptor best stimulates protein kinase A?
beta-1
which beta blocker has weak adrenergic agonist activity?
pindolol
the most effective adrenergic drugs for increases intracellular Ca are …
alpha-1 agonists
mechanism of action of tyramine
releases catecholamines
acute mastitis is treated with …
dicloxacillin
strep pneumo is treated with …
Pen G
treat C diff with …
metro, vanc
the diuretic class that inhibits Cl transport in the loop of henle
loop diuretic (inhibits Na-K-Cl transporter in thick ascending limb)
what type of drug would enhance the reflex change in HR produced by IV norepi?
cholinergics, e.g. neostigmine
the mechanism of contraceptive effect in testosterone is …
inhibition of LH release from the pituitary
drug of choice for trichuriasis
mebendazole
drug of choice for OCD
clomipramine, SSRIs
long-term use of broad-spectrum Abx can cause a deficiency in what vitamin?
vitamin K
what cell produces NO?
capillary endothelium
why is PenG ineffective against most gram (+) organisms?
outer cell membrane acts as a sieve to keep out large molecules like Pen G
non-pharmacologic tx for patient with stress incontinence
strengthen the urogenital diaphragm
mechanism of action of belladonna alkaloids
muscarinic antagonists
what is cycloplegia?
paralysis of the ciliary mm (accomodation affected)
the radial mm is innervated by …
alpha-1 adrenergics
the ciliary mm is innervated by …
muscarinics
role of the radial mm
changes pupil size
expected effect of phenylephrine on accomodation and pupil size
no affect on accomodation (ciliary mm = muscarinics); mydriasis
the tx for neostigmine overdose is …
atropine (pralidoxime won't work because neostigmine irreversibly carbamoylates)
effect of dig on intracellular Na and K levels
Na increases; K decreases
main virulence factor of group B strep
capsule to prevent phagocytosis
how does one eradicate spores?
autoclaving (wet heat for 15 minutes)
effect of TMP-SMX on warfarin
displaces warfarin; makes warfarin more potent
most rational drug regimen for fast metabolizers
normal loading dose, increased maintenance dose
10% of patients taking ___ show increased CK and myalgias after exercise
statins
how to distinguish propanolol, nadolol, and pindolol
YOU CAN'T! They are all the same.
used to prevent bone loss in a 30 yo woman with recent oophorectomy/hysterectomy
estrogens (oral Ca not as effective)
drug of choice for iron poisoning
deferoxamine
EtOH use increases the serum concentration of what lipoprotein?
HDL (this is why it is cardioprotective)
diuretics often trigger what acid-base abnormality?
metabolic alkalosis (with low K and high HCO3)
the appropriate therapeutic interventions for a patient who stepped on a nail but who has not had a tetanus shot in over 10 years
both toxoid (booster) and antitoxin
the intervention for a patient who stepped on a nail who has current tetanus shots
booster toxoid shot
treatment for AIDS patient (taking RT inhibitors and protease inhibitors) with anemia
EPO