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388 Cards in this Set

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7a.10 Review Questions - AC General
7a.10 Review Questions
1. With the NOSE taxi and takeoff light ON, when will those lights automatically extinguish?
a. Landing gear retraction.
2. With the STROBE switch in AUTO when do the strobe lights operate?
a. When the landing gear strut is not compressed.
3. When will the LOGO lights illuminate?
a. NAV & LOGO switch ON and main gear compressed or slats extended.
4. If the LAND light selector is moved from RETRACT to OFF, what does the landing light do?
a. It extends, but is extinguished.
5. Is the ANN LT TEST switch utilized during preflight?
a. No, ANN LT TEST switch is a Maintenance function.
6. What flight deck lighting is maintained if normal electrical power is lost?
a. Standby compass, Captain's instruments, and right dome light.
7b.9 Air Systems Review Questions
7b.9 Air Systems Review Questions
1. What would an amber temperature indication in either the Pack Outlet Temperature or Pack Compressor Outlet Temperature indicate?
a. Excessive Temperature.
2. How is the Hot Air Pressure Regulating Valve controlled?
a. HOT AIR PB on the overhead panel.
3. If bleed air is being supplied by the APU or if one pack fails, pack flow will go to what rate?
a. HIGH.
4. With the APU supplying bleed air, what will be the pack flow if the PACK FLOW switch is in LOW?
a. HIGH.
5. There are three temperature selectors for the various zones in the aircraft. The pack controllers will deliver air at the coolest demanded temperature to the mixing units. How are the individual zone temperatures maintained comfortable if the air being demanded is always the coldest?
a. By mixing hot bleed air, through trim air valves into the distribution network.
6. In flight, what happens if HP bleed air pressure is insufficient?
a. Engine speed is increased automatically.
7. What is indicated by a FAULT light in the HOT AIR pushbutton?
a. Duct overheat.
8. The pack flow control valve automatically closes for engine start when the mode selector is moved to IGN/START. When does the valve automatically reopen?
a. After successful start or 30 seconds.
9. How many motors are installed on the crossbleed valve?
a. Two, one for the automatic mode and one for the manual mode.
10.Can external air be used to supplement low APU bleed pressure?
a. No.
11.If the APU bleed valve is open and the X BLEED selector is in AUTO, what is the position of the X Bleed valve?
a. Open.
12.When would the RAM AIR pb be used?
a. Ventilation and/or smoke removal.
13.What happens to the outflow valve when the RAM AIR pb is selected ON?
a. The outflow valve opens when cabin differential pressure is less than 1 psi.
14.If SYS 1 (or SYS 2) were displayed in amber, what would be indicated?
a. System fault.
15.What is indicated if the Cabin Vertical Speed is indicated in amber?
a. High Cabin rate of climb/descent.
16.What occurs when the DITCHING pushbutton is selected ON?
a. All valves below the water line close, except the outflow valve if the CABIN PRESS MODE SEL is in MAN
17.With the LDG ELEV selector in Auto, what altitude is used for landing field pressurization reference?
a. FMGC database information.
18.With the LDG ELEV selector at 2, what would be the landing elevation?
a. 2,000 feet.
19.When does the pressurization system switch auto-controllers?
a. After each landing.
20.What does the FAULT light in the MODE SEL switch indicate?
a. Both automatic systems have faulted.
21.Is cargo heat provided to the forward cargo compartment?
a. No
22.What ECAM page is selected to verify aft cargo compartment temperature?
a. ECAM COND Page.
23.What would the FAULT light in the AFT ISO VALVE indicate?
a. A fault has been detected.
24.How many CAB FANS are installed?
a. Two.
25.If either the Blower or Extract pb is selected to OVRD, will the system run in the OPEN or CLOSED configuration?
a. Closed.
7c-8 Auxiliary Power Unit (APU)
7c-8 Auxiliary Power Unit (APU)
1. How can you tell the APU is up to speed and the generator is available?
a. APU electrical power is available.
2. When would the corresponding APU N% Speed be displayed in amber or red?
a. When an overspeed occurs.
3. What is indicated when the APU EGT indication is displayed in amber or red?
a. An over-temperature condition.
4. The APU START pb is pressed and illuminates blue. What does this mean?
a. The APU starter is energized.
5. With external power supplying the buses and the APU operating, what action is required to select APU power?
a. Deselect external power by pushing the EXT PWR pb.
6. When would the APU fault light illuminate?
a. APU automatic shutdown.
7. What are some possible reasons for an APU auto shutdown?
a. High oil temp, low oil pressure, overspeed, etc.
8. Is altitude a consideration when considering use of the APU as a source of bleed air and/or electrical power?
a. Yes.
7d-172 Autoflight
7d-172 Autoflight
1. How does the crew confirm that the data contained in the FMGC database is valid?
a. Check the database validity period on the Aircraft Status page.
2. When would a takeoff shift be entered into the PERF TO page?
a. When departing from a runway intersection.
3. If NAV is engaged and the aircraft flies into a flight plan discontinuity, what will occur?
a. NAV will disengage and the aircraft will revert to HDG/TRK mode.
4. Box prompts on the MCDU indicate what?
a. Box prompts on the MCDU indicate data entry is required for minimum FMGS operation.
5. Dashes on the MCDU indicate what?
a. Dashes on the MCDU indicate data is being calculated by the FMGC.
6. If in flight we lost both FMGCs due to internal failure, could we still navigate and complete our flight?
a. Yes, by using the RMP. Lift the guard and depress the NAV switch and you can dial appropriate frequencies.
7. What is the difference between OPT vs. REC MAX?
a. OPT is based on present GW, Temperature and Cost Index; best economy based on compromise between fuel and time savings. REC MAX is based on GW and ISA deviation, provides 1.3g load protection.
8. In flight with the autopilot engaged, will movement of the pitch trim wheel cause the autopilot to disengage?
a. Yes
9. What occurs when the altitude knob on the FCU is pulled?
a. When the altitude knob on the FCU is pulled OPEN CLIMB or DESCENT engages.
10.What is the function of the LOC pushbutton?
a. The autopilot and/or flight director is armed to capture the localizer.
11.Once the APPR is armed but not captured, provide an example of what methods may be used to disarm it?
"a. As long as the aircraft is above 400 feet RA, we can disarm the APPR by:
12.If I were hand flying the precision approach without the aid of the FD or AP, would I still push the APPR pushbutton to arm the approach?
a. No
13.Name some examples when the autopilot will disengage?
a. Takeover switch is pressed; the sidestick is moved beyond the load threshold; the other AP is engaged, except when LOC G/S modes are engaged; the thrust levers are set to TOGA on the ground; at DA - 50' with APP engaged on a RNAV; moving THS wheel.
14.When can the second autopilot be engaged?
a. After selecting APPR during an ILS approach.
15.Do any procedures require the use of the EXPED button?
a. No.
16.What action would the pilot take to use SELECTED SPEED?
a. Pull the SPD MACH selector.
17.If the pilot desired an immediate level off, what action should be taken?
a. Push the V/S selector knob
18.Is V/S “0” altitude hold?
a. No.
19.Is altitude alerting automatically inhibited with the autopilot on?
a. Yes.
20.Must the flight director be on for the windshear function of the FAC's to operate normally?
a. No, the windshear function of the FAC's is independent of the flight director on/off switch.
21.What does the APPR pushbutton do?
a. This arms the FD and/or AP to capture the glideslope and localizer or non-precision approach guidance.
7e-32 Communications
7e-32 Communications
1. The CAPT & PURS switch should always be in which position?
a. CAPT.
2. How would the flight deck crew command an evacuation?
a. Utilize the PA.
3. With the RDCR GND CTL pb in AUTO, when do the CVR and Digital Flight Data Recorder (DFDR) energize?
"a. For 5 minutes after electrical power application, when one engine is running and continuously in flight.
4. In order to test the CVR, the Parking Brake must be in what selected position?
a. Parking brake ON.
5. When will the Digital Flight Data Recorder operate?
a. On the ground with one engine running and continuously in flight.
6. How would you erase the data on the CVR?
a. On the ground, with the parking brake set, pressing the CVR ERASE switch for two seconds causes erasure of the Cockpit Voice Recorder.
7. When the MECH pb is pushed what signals are received in the landing gear bay?
a. Blue light and horn. Horn will sound as long as button is held.
7a.10 Review Questions - AC General
7a.10 Review Questions
"1. With the NOSE taxi and takeoff light ON
when will those lights automatically extinguish?"
2. With the STROBE switch in AUTO when do the strobe lights operate?
a. When the landing gear strut is not compressed.
3. When will the LOGO lights illuminate?
a. NAV & LOGO switch ON and main gear compressed or slats extended.
"4. If the LAND light selector is moved from RETRACT to OFF
what does the landing light do?"
5. Is the ANN LT TEST switch utilized during preflight?
"a. No
6. What flight deck lighting is maintained if normal electrical power is lost?
"a. Standby compass
7b.9 Air Systems Review Questions
7b.9 Air Systems Review Questions
1. What would an amber temperature indication in either the Pack Outlet Temperature or Pack Compressor Outlet Temperature indicate?
a. Excessive Temperature.
2. How is the Hot Air Pressure Regulating Valve controlled?
a. HOT AIR PB on the overhead panel.
"3. If bleed air is being supplied by the APU or if one pack fails
pack flow will go to what rate?"
"4. With the APU supplying bleed air
what will be the pack flow if the PACK FLOW switch is in LOW?"
5. There are three temperature selectors for the various zones in the aircraft. The pack controllers will deliver air at the coolest demanded temperature to the mixing units. How are the individual zone temperatures maintained comfortable if the air being demanded is always the coldest?
"a. By mixing hot bleed air
"6. In flight
what happens if HP bleed air pressure is insufficient?"
7. What is indicated by a FAULT light in the HOT AIR pushbutton?
a. Duct overheat.
8. The pack flow control valve automatically closes for engine start when the mode selector is moved to IGN/START. When does the valve automatically reopen?
a. After successful start or 30 seconds.
9. How many motors are installed on the crossbleed valve?
"a. Two
10.Can external air be used to supplement low APU bleed pressure?
a. No.
"11.If the APU bleed valve is open and the X BLEED selector is in AUTO
what is the position of the X Bleed valve?"
12.When would the RAM AIR pb be used?
a. Ventilation and/or smoke removal.
13.What happens to the outflow valve when the RAM AIR pb is selected ON?
a. The outflow valve opens when cabin differential pressure is less than 1 psi.
"14.If SYS 1 (or SYS 2) were displayed in amber
what would be indicated?"
15.What is indicated if the Cabin Vertical Speed is indicated in amber?
a. High Cabin rate of climb/descent.
16.What occurs when the DITCHING pushbutton is selected ON?
"a. All valves below the water line close
"17.With the LDG ELEV selector in Auto
what altitude is used for landing field pressurization reference?"
"18.With the LDG ELEV selector at 2
what would be the landing elevation?"
19.When does the pressurization system switch auto-controllers?
a. After each landing.
20.What does the FAULT light in the MODE SEL switch indicate?
a. Both automatic systems have faulted.
21.Is cargo heat provided to the forward cargo compartment?
a. No
22.What ECAM page is selected to verify aft cargo compartment temperature?
a. ECAM COND Page.
23.What would the FAULT light in the AFT ISO VALVE indicate?
a. A fault has been detected.
24.How many CAB FANS are installed?
a. Two.
"25.If either the Blower or Extract pb is selected to OVRD
will the system run in the OPEN or CLOSED configuration?"
7c-8 Auxiliary Power Unit (APU)
7c-8 Auxiliary Power Unit (APU)
1. How can you tell the APU is up to speed and the generator is available?
a. APU electrical power is available.
2. When would the corresponding APU N% Speed be displayed in amber or red?
a. When an overspeed occurs.
3. What is indicated when the APU EGT indication is displayed in amber or red?
a. An over-temperature condition.
4. The APU START pb is pressed and illuminates blue. What does this mean?
a. The APU starter is energized.
"5. With external power supplying the buses and the APU operating
what action is required to select APU power?"
6. When would the APU fault light illuminate?
a. APU automatic shutdown.
7. What are some possible reasons for an APU auto shutdown?
"a. High oil temp
8. Is altitude a consideration when considering use of the APU as a source of bleed air and/or electrical power?
a. Yes.
7d-172 Autoflight
7d-172 Autoflight
1. How does the crew confirm that the data contained in the FMGC database is valid?
a. Check the database validity period on the Aircraft Status page.
2. When would a takeoff shift be entered into the PERF TO page?
a. When departing from a runway intersection.
"3. If NAV is engaged and the aircraft flies into a flight plan discontinuity
what will occur?"
4. Box prompts on the MCDU indicate what?
a. Box prompts on the MCDU indicate data entry is required for minimum FMGS operation.
5. Dashes on the MCDU indicate what?
a. Dashes on the MCDU indicate data is being calculated by the FMGC.
"6. If in flight we lost both FMGCs due to internal failure
could we still navigate and complete our flight?"
7. What is the difference between OPT vs. REC MAX?
"a. OPT is based on present GW
"8. In flight with the autopilot engaged
will movement of the pitch trim wheel cause the autopilot to disengage?"
9. What occurs when the altitude knob on the FCU is pulled?
a. When the altitude knob on the FCU is pulled OPEN CLIMB or DESCENT engages.
10.What is the function of the LOC pushbutton?
a. The autopilot and/or flight director is armed to capture the localizer.
"11.Once the APPR is armed but not captured
provide an example of what methods may be used to disarm it?"
"12.If I were hand flying the precision approach without the aid of the FD or AP
would I still push the APPR pushbutton to arm the approach?"
13.Name some examples when the autopilot will disengage?
"a. Takeover switch is pressed; the sidestick is moved beyond the load threshold; the other AP is engaged
14.When can the second autopilot be engaged?
a. After selecting APPR during an ILS approach.
15.Do any procedures require the use of the EXPED button?
a. No.
16.What action would the pilot take to use SELECTED SPEED?
a. Pull the SPD MACH selector.
"17.If the pilot desired an immediate level off
what action should be taken?"
18.Is V/S “0” altitude hold?
a. No.
19.Is altitude alerting automatically inhibited with the autopilot on?
a. Yes.
20.Must the flight director be on for the windshear function of the FAC's to operate normally?
"a. No
21.What does the APPR pushbutton do?
a. This arms the FD and/or AP to capture the glideslope and localizer or non-precision approach guidance.
7e-32 Communications
7e-32 Communications
1. The CAPT & PURS switch should always be in which position?
a. CAPT.
2. How would the flight deck crew command an evacuation?
a. Utilize the PA.
"3. With the RDCR GND CTL pb in AUTO
when do the CVR and Digital Flight Data Recorder (DFDR) energize?"
"4. In order to test the CVR
the Parking Brake must be in what selected position?"
5. When will the Digital Flight Data Recorder operate?
a. On the ground with one engine running and continuously in flight.
6. How would you erase the data on the CVR?
"a. On the ground
7. When the MECH pb is pushed what signals are received in the landing gear bay?
a. Blue light and horn. Horn will sound as long as button is held.
8. What can you expect if you push the EMER pb?
"a. Three high-low chimes (6 bells)
"9. The Audio Switching selector allows us to replace a failed ACP with the third occupants ACP. After switching
is the third occupant’s ACP still operational?"
10.How should the PA button be positioned on the #3 ACP?
a. Selected out in the three o’clock position.
11.How do we make a PA using the ACP?
a. Press and hold the PA pb.
12.How is the ATT or MECH flashing lights extinguished after a call?
a. Press the RESET key.
13.How is a Flight Attendant call answered?
"a. Press the ATT transmission key
14.Can any communications radio be controlled from any RMP?
a. Yes. All communications radios can be controlled from any one of the three radio management panels (RMP's).
7f-20 Electrical System
7f-20 Electrical System
"1. Are there any procedures in the Pilot Handbook
which direct us to use the EMER GEN TEST switch?"
2. An amber SMOKE annunciation in the GEN 1 LINE pb indicates what?
a. Smoke in the avionics ventilation system.
"3. If the GEN 1 LINE pb is selected to OFF
what becomes the power source to AC bus #1?"
"4. After selecting the GEN 1 LINE pb to OFF
is there any equipment still powered from generator #1?"
5. What will cause the RAT to extend automatically?
a. Loss of AC bus 1 & 2 and airspeed above 100 knots.
"6. In flight with the airplane powered normally (both generators)
we push the RAT MAN ON switch. What will power the AC and DC ESS buses?"
7. What is the difference between this RAT MAN ON switch and the switch labeled similarly on the hydraulic panel?
a. Emergency generator operation through the electrical RAT MAN ON.
8. What does the FAULT light in the RAT & EMER GEN indicate?
a. FAULT light is illuminated if the emergency generator is not supplying power when AC BUS 1 & 2 are not powered.
9. What does a fault light in a BAT pb indicate?
a. Charging current is outsitde limits.
10.What does the indication ____% in the GEN 1 icon indicate?
a. Generator 1 current load is ____%.
"11.Upon entering the flight deck prior to the first flight of the day
what should the battery voltage be?"
12.What is the primary purpose of the batteries?
a. Emergency electrical and APU starting.
"13.During preflight
what options are available if the battery voltage for either battery is below 25.5 volts?"
"14.During the Safety & Power on checklist
why is the battery check accomplished with the batteries in the OFF position?"
"15.If the BATT switches are in AUTO position overnight without any other power
will the batteries discharge completely?"
16.Under what conditions are the batteries connected to the DC BATTERY BUS?
a. Each battery’s BATTERY CHARGE LIMITER automatically connects the batteries to the DC BATT BUS when needed to supply electrical power for APU start; when Emergency electrical configuration less than 100 knots; or batteries require charging (voltage below 26.5V).
17.When is the main galley bus automatically shed?
a. Single generator operation.
"18.If the main galley bus sheds automatically on a single generator or power source
how is it powered on the ground."
19.What does the FAULT light in the IDG pushbutton indicate?
a. High oil temperature or low oil pressure.
20.What precautions exist when disconnecting an IDG?
a. Do not hold the disconnect pb for more than 3 seconds. The engine is must be running or windmilling.
"21.If the pilot inadvertently pushes the IDG disconnect
can it be reconnected?"
22.The normal priority for supplying electrical power to the AC busses is:
"a. Engine generators
23.What does the FAULT light indicate in the GEN 1 ?
a. A fault has been detected.
24.What is the normal source of power for AC ESS BUS?
a. AC BUS 1.
25.Could AC 2 be used to power the AC ESS BUS?
"a. Yes
26.What does the FAULT light indicate in the AC ESS FEED pb?
"a. A fault has been detected
27.What does the green AVAIL light indicate in the EXT PWR pb?
a. External power is connected and within normal parameters.
"28.If the green AVAIL light is present in the EXT PWR pb and a green AVAIL light on the APU
what is the
source of electrical power (with engines shut down)?"
"a. APU
"29.If both engines were started at the gate using external electrical power
would the EXT PWR ON light
still be illuminated?"
"a. Yes
"30.If EXT power is in use during APU start
does the green AVAIL light in the APU START pb indicate it is
now the source of ship’s electrical power?"
a. No. EXT has priority over the APU. The green APU AVAIL light indicates that the APU generator is available.
"31.In the Emergency Electric configuration
when will the DC BAT bus be automatically connected to the
batteries?"
"a. Loss of AC Buses 1 & 2
"32.If landing in Emergency Electric configuration and speed decreases below 50 knots
the AC ESS bus is
shed. What would be indication to the crew?"
a. Loss of display units.
33.What is the significance of the green circuit breakers?
a. ECAM monitored.
34.Why do the Wing Tip Brake circuit breakers have red caps installed on them?
a. To prevent in-flight resetting.
"35.The FASTEN SEAT BELT
NO SMOKING
altitude exceeds ______ feet
regardless of the respective switch position."
36.When will the emergency lighting system illuminate automatically?
a. Normal aircraft electrical power system fails.
37.What is included in the aircraft emergency lighting?
"a. Overhead emergency lights
7g-14 Fire Protection
7g-14 Fire Protection
1. How many fire bottles are provided for the cargo compartments?
a. One bottle is provided for both compartments.
2. How many channels must detect smoke to receive and Cargo Smoke warning?
a. Both channels.
3. When is the fire detection and extinguishing system tested?
a. First flight of the day during the Flightdeck Preparation Flow
"4. If the FIRE pb were released out
would that action affect the electrical system?"
"5. If the FIRE pb were released out
would that action affect the fuel system?"
6. When is the engine extinguishing agent switch armed?
a. The engine fire switch is released out.
7. Where are the engine fire sensing elements installed?
"a. Engine fire detectors are installed in the pylon nacelle
"8. If a failure in both engine fire loops occurs within 5 seconds of each other
what will occur?"
9. How would the crew know if any component of the fire detection system fails?
a. ECAM message(s).
"10.If an APU start is initiated on battery power only
is fire protection available?"
11.How many fire bottles are available for fighting an engine fire?
a. Two for each engine.
12.How many fire bottles are available for fighting an APU fire?
a. One.
"13.If an APU fire occurs on the ground
what must be done to shut down the APU and extinguish the fire?"
14.A DISCH light on either the ENGINE or APU fire agent switch indicates?
a. A DISCH light on either the ENGINE or APU fire agent switch indicates the extinguisher bottle has lost pressure.
15.If there is an APU fire in flight will the APU automatically shutdown?
a. No. The APU must be shut down manually and the agent manually discharged.
"16.With battery power only
what would an APU fire test look like?"
"17.If the aircraft is powered
what indications would be seen during the APU fire test?"
Flight Controls 7h-23
Flight Controls 7h-23
1. How would low hydraulic pressure be indicated on the F/CTL page?
"a. G
2. What indicators would the First Officer reference during the Flight Control Check?
"a. Flight Control Position Indications for Aileron
3. On what other ECAM page would spoiler deployment be indicated?
a. ECAM WHEEL Page
"4. How many ELAC computers are installed
and what are their functions?"
5. What would the FAULT light in the ELAC 1 pushbutton indicate?
a. The fault light illuminates when a failure has been detected or during power up. (8 seconds).
6. How many SEC computers are installed and what are their functions?
a. Three spoiler elevator computers provide spoiler control and standby elevator and stabilizer control.
7. What control surface do the FAC’s control?
a. The rudder.
8. Is there any rudder pedal feedback for yaw dampening or and turn coordination functions?
a. No.
9. What flight control computer provides reactive windshear detection?
a. The FAC.
"10.If one FAC is lost
are any FAC functions lost?"
11.Can the rudders be moved with both FACs inoperative?
"a. Yes
12.Do the sidesticks move with autopilot inputs or with inputs from the opposite sidestick?
a. No.
13.What would result if both sidesticks were moved at the same time during flight with the autopilot OFF?
"a. Both inputs are summed algebraically
14.Are hydraulics required to fly the aircraft in mechanical backup?
a. Yes.
gaining priority?"
a. Illuminates in front of the pilot losing priority.
16.What indications are present when inputs are being made simultaneously to the side-sticks?
a. The green Capt. & F/O portions of the side-stick priority lights flash and the aural Dual Input warning sounds when the pilots move both sidesticks simultaneously and neither takes priority.
17.Config 1 is selected for takeoff. What flaps/slats combination is indicated?
a. Flaps 1 + F.
18.Config 1 is selected on approach. What flaps/slats combination is indicated?
"a. Flaps 1
"19.If the flaps are not retracted after takeoff
what happens automatically?"
20.Does the rudder trim rotary switch have any effect with the autopilot engaged?
a. No.
21.What does the RESET button on the rudder trim do?
a. Resets rudder trim to zero if the autopilot is off.
22.What happens to extended speed brakes when FLAPS FULL is selected on the A320?
a. Speed brakes retract.
"23.During landing
when does partial spoiler extension occur?"
"24.During landing
when does full ground spoiler extension occur?"
7i-64 Flight Instruments
7i-64 Flight Instruments
panel?"
"a. Yes
2. Is the radar display available in all modes of the ND selector?
"a. No
"3. When the LS/ILS pb is selected
where will the localizer and glideslope scales be displayed?"
"4. If the Standby Attitude indication power source fails
how will this be indicated?"
5. What does STS indicate when displayed on the EWD?
a. The STS message indicates that the STATUS page holds messages.
"6. If the upper ECAM display fails
what happens automatically?"
7. What if the LOWER ECAM DU failed? Could we display the lower ECAM information?
a. We could press and hold the related systems page pushbutton on the ECAM control panel and the page will be displayed on the UPPER ECAM. We could select the rotary switch labeled ECAM/ ND XFR on the switching panel to Capt. or F/O.
8. Briefly describe the purpose of the EIS SWITCHING Panel?
a. Permits cockpit display screens to access secondary sources.
9. Can the lower ECAM display be transferred to another display unit?
a. Yes
10.DMC 1 (2) has failed. Can the information on the affected displays be restored?
a. Yes. Rotate the switch labeled EIS DMC to replace the failed DMC with DMC #3.
11.What happens when the TO CONFIG pb is depressed?
a. An application of takeoff power is simulated. A warning occurs if the aircraft is not in takeoff configuration.
"12.If during the flight we received continuous spurious warning messages that we knew to be incorrect
is
there any way to cancel this caution?"
"a. By depressing the EMER CANC pushbutton
"13.We have pressed the EMER CANC pushbutton
how can we put the system back to normal?"
14.How could we check the status page for inoperative systems or maintenance messages?
"a. Press the STS pushbutton and the status page is displayed on the lower ECAM. If there is no status message present
15.Why is it very important to maintain a 'lights out' condition on the ECP during flight?
a. Because the automatic phase of flight function and display of the relative system on the lower ECAM during an abnormal will be inhibited by the page we have displayed.
normally displayed by DMC #1? DMC #2?"
"a. Normally DMC#1 supplies data to PFD 1
17.How is a DMC failure displayed?
a. A diagonal line on the display units driven by the failed DMC.
"18.If a display unit failed
would the screen have a diagonal line displayed?"
19.How many VOR and DME receivers are on board the aircraft?
a. Two VOR and two DME receivers installed.
"20.If all systems were working normally
and a crewmember wanted to remotely tune a VOR through the
RMP
would that have any effect on the FMGC NAV functions?"
21.When would we use the RMP to tune an ILS?
"a. We could use RMP tuning when both MCDU’s or FMGCS are inoperative
22.Can two different ILS frequencies be tuned at the same time?
"a. No
"23.If the LOC or G/S fails
what would be indicated on the PFD?"
Fuel 7j-23
Fuel 7j-23
1. What is the Fuel Feed Sequencing for the ____ (A319/A320/A321)?
"a. A319/A320: Fuel is used from the center tank first
2. The transfer valves automatically open when the wing inner tank fuel quantity drops to ____ pounds?
"a. 1
3. The transfer valves have opened. When will they close?
a. Automatically at the next refueling operation.
"4. With the mode SEL switch in AUTO
when will the center tank pumps
5. Is refueling possible if the aircraft batteries are the only source of power.
a. Yes.
6. Can fuel be gravity fed to the engines?
"a. Yes
7. How many fuel pump(s) are in each fuel tank ( A319/A320 only)?
a. Two.
Hydraulic Power 7k-9
Hydraulic Power 7k-9
1. Which hydraulic systems have engine driven pumps?
a. The green and yellow hydraulic systems.
2. Name some of the major users of the GREEN system.
"a. Landing gear
"3. The yellow system has an engine driven pump
what other means do we have to pressurize the yellow system?"
"4. How many pumps does the yellow hydraulic system have
not counting the PTU?"
5. What does the yellow system hand pump supply pressure for?
a. Opening the cargo doors.
6. When does the PTU operate?
a. When pressure between the green and yellow system drops to a predetermined level.
7. Can fluid be transferred between hydraulic systems?
a. No.
8. Will the PTU operate during Cargo Door operation?
a. No.
9. When is the PTU tested?
a. During second engine start.
10.Is it possible to pressurize the green hydraulic system on the ground via the PTU?
a. Yes.
"11.What are the hydraulic priority valves
and what is their function?"
"12.With the airplane on the ground and the blue electric pump switch in AUTO
when will the blue pump be
energized?"
a. With one engine is running.
action accomplish?"
"a. This shuts off hydraulic pressure to the gear
14.After emergency extension do the gear doors remain open?
a. Yes.
15.Do we have nose wheel steering after emergency gear extension?
a. No.
Ice & Rain Protection 7l-5
Ice & Rain Protection 7l-5
1. What would happen if the rain repellent pb were pushed on the ground with the engines shut down?
a. Nothing
2. Is it permitted to select WING anti-ice on the ground?
a. No.
"3. On the ground
will the wing anti-ice valves open?"
"4. After takeoff
when should WING anti-ice be selected ON
"5. On approach
when should WING anti-ice be selected OFF?"
6. What part of each wing is anti-iced with pneumatic bleed air?
a. The three outboard slats on each wing are anti-iced with pneumatic bleed air.
7. What part of the engine is anti iced?
a. The nacelle
8. What happens when either engine anti-ice valve is open with regard to engine RPM?
a. Minimum idle rpm is increased. (if necessary)
9. When does probe heat come on automatically?
a. When at least one engine is running.
10.Window heat operates at what power level in flight?
a. Normal.
7m-22 Landing Gear & Brakes
7m-22 Landing Gear & Brakes
1. Where does the crew look to verify that the parking brake is on?
a. Confirm on the ECAM Memo.
2. What is the purpose of the brake check accomplished immediately after the aircraft start moving.
"a. Checks brake efficiency
"3. If AUTO BRK is displayed in green
what is indicated?"
4. What does the UNLK light in the LDG GEAR indicate?
"a. UNLK in red indicates gear is not locked in selected position
5. What does “HOT” in the BRK FAN light indicate?
"a. Illuminates when brakes are to hot
6. Will the lights on the LDG GEAR panel illuminate if LGCIU #1 is not powered?
"a. No
7. Does the alternate brake system have same capabilities as normal brakes?
"a. The alternate brake system has the same capabilities
8. Is nose wheel steering available with green hydraulic pressure inoperative?
a. On basic aircraft no. On enhanced aircraft yes because NWS is operated by the yellow hydraulic system.
"9. When using the alternate brake system on accumulator pressure only
how many brake applications can the pilot
expect."
"a. When using the alternate brake system on accumulator pressure only
10.What is the maximum degree of nose wheel steering available when using the hand wheel?
a. Maximum degree of nose wheel steering available using the hand wheel is +/- 75°
"11.When using the rudder pedals for nose wheel steering
the steering angle starts to reduce what speed and
progressively reduces to zero degrees at ____kts?"
"a. When using the rudder pedals for nose wheel steering
what percent of the selected rate."
a. The green DECEL light on the autobrake switch illuminates when the actual airplane deceleration corresponds to 80% of the selected rate.
13.When is the antiskid system automatically deactivated?
a. Below 20 knots.
14.When is brake pressure applied to the brakes during landing using the LO setting? MED?
"a. LO
landing?"
a. No.
16. Is the anti-skid system operational with yellow alternates brakes?
a. The anti-skid system may or may not be available with alternate brakes.
17.What does the RED ARROW indicate on landing gear panel?
a. Landing gear is not locked down when the aircraft is in the landing configuration.
18. The brake pressure indication on Triple Pressure Indicator reads which system pressure?
a. The brake pressure indication on Triple Pressure Indicator reads yellow system pressure.
19.Which hydraulic system does the parking brake use?
a. Yellow
"20.When the parking brake is ON
is the anti-skid active?"
Navigation 7n-35
Navigation 7n-35
1. How many ADIRU’s does the US Airways Airbus 319/320/321 have?
a. Three.
"2. When the Mode Selectors are positioned to NAV during a full alignment
what indications should be
noted on the panel?"
a. The ON BAT light illuminates momentarily followed by three align lights on each respective IR.
3. What does the ON BATT light indicate?
a. One or more IR’s is being supplied only by the aircraft battery. It illuminates momentarily at the beginning of a full alignment.
"4. If the ADIRS switches are already in NAV
how do you accomplish a rapid alignment?"
from OFF back to NAV?"
a. The affected IRS will initiate a full alignment.
6. Can the present position be entered through the ADIRU panel or must we use the MCDU?
a. Present position may be entered in the ADIRU through the numeric keyboard.
"7. Does the center OFF
1
8. What would cause an ADIRS ALIGN light to flash?
"a. IR alignment fault
"9. The entered position causes the ALIGN lights to flash. If the coordinates are correct
how is the problem
corrected?"
a. Check the city pairs and re-enter if necessary.
10.What would a steady FAULT light in the #1 IR indicate?
a. The respective IR is lost.
11.Would a fault in the #1 IR cause the #1 ADR to fail?
"a. No
12.What would a flashing IR FAULT light indicate?
a. Attitude and Heading may be recovered in ATT mode.
13.Are we allowed to pushback during the alignment process?
a. No. Movement will cause the system to fault.
"14.After selecting the IR MODE selectors to NAV
when should you select ALIGN IRS on the INIT A page?"
"15.If you were to rotate the #1 IR mode rotary selector to OFF
would that affect the #1 ADR?"
"16.If IR #1 were to fault in flight
what information would be lost on the #1 PFD? How is it displayed?"
"17.If IR #1 were to fault in flight
the DDRMI will show a compass card flag. Why?"
18.What IR information may be recovered if an IR fault light is flashing?
a. Attitude and heading may possibly be recovered by turning the rotary IR selector to ATT.
"19.Are the IR track
wind
magnetic?"
a. True.
"20.If the SYS pb is selected OFF
what is inhibited?"
21.When is the purpose of the FLAP MODE pb?
a. To inhibit nuisance warnings when an ECAM calls for landing with a reduced flap setting.
22.What is the purpose of the LDG FLAP 3 pb?
a. It is used when making a landing in CONFIG 3.
"23.If a TERR fault light illuminated
would that affect the basic EGPWS modes?"
24.Where is ILS #1 and #2 displayed?
"a. ILS #1 is displayed on the CAPTAIN’S PFD and F/O ND
25.Radio Height displayed on the PFD below what altitude?
a. Radio Height is displayed on the PFD below 2500'.
26.What information from the ADR is displayed on the PFD?
a. Airspeed and altitude.
"27.When is side stick position and max sidestick deflection
displayed on PFD?"
"28.If a RADIO ALTIMETER #1 fails
is radio altitude information lost on either PFD?"
29.What information do the FAC’s provide that is indicated on the PFD?
"a. On the PFD
control?"
No.
"31.With the TERR ON ND pushbutton off
what happens if a terrain caution is generated?"
"32.How can the pilot differentiate terrain
from radar sweeps?"
33.Does the EGPWS use radar signals to “ground map” terrain?
"a. No
Oxygen 7o-9
Oxygen 7o-9
1. The passenger oxygen mask doors open automatically if the cabin altitude exceeds what altitude?
"a. 14
2. How is cockpit crew oxygen supplied?
a. A single high pressure bottle
3. What is the purpose of the CREW SUPPLY pushbutton?
a. Controls the supply value in the avionics bay.
4. What indications do we have on ECAM when the CREW SUPPLY pushbutton is off?
a. “OXY” in front of oxygen pressure on DOOR PAGE turns amber.
5. Passenger oxygen is supplied by what?
a. Chemical generator system.
6. The passenger oxygen system will provide a supply of oxygen for approximately how long?
a. 13 minutes.
"7. Above 35
000 ft. the cockpit crew oxygen masks provide what type of oxygen
8. How can the passenger oxygen system can be activated?
"a. Automatically at 14
9. What does the MASK MAN ON pb do?
"a. Energizes the system
10.When will the flow of oxygen begin for the passengers?
a. When the mask is pulled toward the seat.
7p-40 Powerplant
7p-40 Powerplant
1. When might a manual start be considered?
a. If an automatic start aborts due to low starter inlet air pressure.
"2. If the #1 ENG MAN START pushbutton is depressed
will the engine begin to motor?"
"3. During a manual start of the #1 engine
does the ENG MAN START pushbutton have to be depressed to
close the start valve?"
"a. No
4. What are the five positions of the thrust levers?
"a. TOGA
5. How is the Autothrust usually armed on the ground?
a. By setting the thrust levers at the FLX or TOGA detent when the engines are running.
6. How is Autothrust usually activated?
a. By selecting the Thrust Levers to the CL detent.
7. How is activation of Autothrust confirmed?
a. A/THR is displayed in white in column five of the FMA.
8. What is Thrust Lock?
a. The Thrust Lock function prevents thrust variations when the A/THR fails/disconnects.
9. What is Alpha Floor?
a. A protection that commands TOGA thrust regardless of thrust lever position.
10.What is TOGA Lock?
"a. After the aircraft leaves Alpha Floor conditions
11.What happens if the instinctive disconnect pushbuttons are pushed and held (15sec.)?
"a. The autothrust system is disconnected for the remainder of the flight
12.What does the FAULT indication on the ENG panel mean?
"a. Automatic start abort
"13.With the ENGINE MODE switch in NORM
when will ignition be provided?"
14.What does the FADEC control?
"a. The Full Authority Digital Engine Control (FADEC) controls start sequencing
15.What happens if one FADEC fails?
a. The FADEC is dual channel so the other channel will provide full authority for all engine functions.