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70 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back

Who is responsible for appointing qualified individuals to become certified munitions inspectors?



a. Executive officer.


b. Unit commander.


c. Element chief.


d. Flight chief.

d

What is the minimum skill-level requirement to be a certified munitions inspector?



a. 3.


b. 5.


c. 7.


d. There is no minimum requirement.

b

Who is responsible for determining and assigning the appropriate condition codes to munitions assets?



a. The flight chief.


b. Munitions inspectors.


c. Munitions accountability personnel.


d. The munitions accountable systems officer (MASO).

b

What type of lot number is assigned to a combination of 5.56 mm ball and tracer packed together for field use?



a. Functional.


b. Regrouped.


c. Assembled.


d. Pseudo.

a

The presence of corrosion represents



a. metal returning to a natural state.


b. blending of compounds in the environment.


c. combining specific alloys to create a specific metal.


d. deterioration of the physical properties of each component of a specific metal.

a

What type of corrosion is characterized by damage that marks the surface with lines but pits are not visible to the naked eye?



a. Pitting.


b. Etching.


c. Caked rust.


d. Developed rust.

b

A munitions item or component with its explosives material completely removed is considered



a. inert.


b. empty.


c. obsolete.


d. nonexplosive.

b

A munitions item or component never intended or designed to contain explosive material is considered



a. nonexplosive.


b. obsolete.


c. empty.


d. inert.

a

When you encounter a ballooned barrier bag, what document do you follow for specific item instructions?



a. AFI 21−201.


b. AFMAN 91−201.


c. Item’s technical order (TO).


d. Local operating instruction (OI).

c

What term is used to conspicuously mark previously opened hermetically sealed containers?



a. UNSEALED.


b. COMPRIMISED SEAL.


c. NOT HERMETICALLY SEALED.


d. PRESSURE SENSITIVE SEALED.

c

A shipping inspection is accomplished to ensure that munitions are properly marked or labeled to meet



a. other munitions.


b. municipal codes.


c. transportation requirements.


d. security forces operating instructions.

c

What inspection ensures that an item is suitable for its intended use before it is signed over to a user?



a. Periodic (PI).


b. Shipping (SI).


c. Receiving (RI).


d. Pre-issue (PII).

d

Who is responsible for managing the installation’s storage monitoring inspection program?



a. Storage section chief.


b. Munitions flight chief.


c. Senior munitions inspector.


d. Munitions accountable systems officer (MASO).

c

Which response best describes condition code B?



a. Serviceable without qualification.


b. Serviceable with qualification.


c. Serviceable but priority issue.


d. Unserviceable repairable.

b

Condition code C is best described as



a. serviceable without qualification.


b. serviceable with qualification.


c. serviceable, priority issue.


d. unserviceable repairable.

c

Which selection best describes condition code N?



a. Suspended for emergency combat use only.


b. Serviceable without qualification.


c. Serviceable with qualification.


d. Unserviceable repairable.

a

Which unserviceable item tag is used on munitions that are not economical to repair?



a. DD Form 1574.


b. DD Form 1575.


c. DD Form 1577.


d. DD Form 1577–2.

c

Which AFTO IMT Form is used to update item lot history for units that do not directly input inspection results into the combat ammunition system (CAS)?



a. 350.


b. 231.


c. 102.


d. 22.

c

You must update historical records in which database before you can dispose of the AFTO IMT Form 102?



a. Deficiency reporting and investigating system (DRIS).


b. Tactical missile reporting system (TMRS).


c. Ammunition disposition request (ADR).


d. Combat ammunition system (CAS).

d

Which is not a turn-in process program option?



a. Found on base (FOB) turn-in.


b. Complete round turn-in.


c. Serviceable turn-in.


d. Custody turn-in.

c

Which combat ammunition system (CAS) report must accompany Non-CAS/DODAAC munitions shipments?



a. Periodic inspection report.


b. Quarterly inspection report.


c. Lot history inspection report.


d. Ammunition disposition report.

c

What report is used to identify a shipping related problem caused by the shipping activity?



a. Lot History Report.


b. Supply Discrepancy Report.


c. Transportation Discrepancy Report.


d. Product Quality Deficiency Report.

b

The SF Form 364, Report of Discrepancy (ROD), is used to determine what type of discrepancy?



a. Issue.


b. Turn-in.


c. Shipping.


d. Receiving.

c

Which of the following is an example of a packaging discrepancy?



a. Item received in the wrong condition code.


b. Unacceptable substitutes shipped.


c. Container markings incorrect.


d. Missing documentation.

c

When using the transportation discrepancy report (TDR), you are identifying a problem against the



a. person who packaged the assets.


b. carrier who delivered the assets.


c. manufacturer who produced the assets.


d. person who certified the assets for transportation.

b

Which of these is used to report problems and defects on military weapon systems which are caused by the manufacturer?



a. Lot History Report.


b. Supply Discrepancy Report.


c. Transportation Discrepancy Report.


d. Product Quality Deficiency Report.

d

You are required to use TO 11A–1–53 for which inspections of inert and empty munitions items?



a. Pre-issue and returned munitions inspections.


b. Returned munitions inspection and periodic.


c. Pre-issue and shipping inspections.


d. Periodic and shipping inspections.

c

Which word is impressed and stenciled on items that have had their explosive material removed and not replaced?



a. Inert.


b. Empty.


c. Dummy.


d. Practice.

b

Four holes, no smaller than ¼ inch, are required to be drilled 90° apart for munitions items



a. procured as inert or empty.


b. displayed on a wall plaque.


c. on permanent display in a museum.


d. stock listed as explosive and have had their explosive filler removed.

d

The material remaining after a munitions item has had its explosive filler removed by either normal functioning or demilitarization is called



a. hazardous waste.


b. munitions residue.


c. nonexplosive material.


d. obsolete munitions waste.

b

Where do you place the certificate of clearance after you inspect empty containers?



a. Inside the container.


b. Outside the container.


c. Inside the desiccant port.


d. Next to the identification markings.

a

What must you do to the old munitions identification before you certify a container as empty?



a. Nothing, the next person may need it.


b. Obliterate all markings on the container.


c. Obliterate the old munitions identification markings.


d. Nothing, as long as you stencil “empty” on the container.

c

Which procedure is performed during the initial munitions inspection?



a. Internal inspection of railcars, motor vehicles, or aircraft.


b. Identify the type of any corrosion spotted.


c. Visually inspect vehicle seals.


d. Open all damaged containers.

c

Any vehicle found to be in a hazardous condition is considered



a. suspect.


b. restricted.


c. frustrated.


d. suspended.

a

The governing directive for hazardous materials movement by military air is



a. AFJMAN 24–202.


b. AFMAN 24–204.


c. The orange book.


d. CFR–49.

b

According to AFMAN 24–204, Preparing Hazardous Materials for Military Air Shipments, personnel trained and qualified to maintain an item by technical specialty for only those hazardous materials in their specialty are called



a. technical specialists.


b. technical journeymen.


c. subject matter specialists.


d. subject matter journeymen.

a

Which organization regulates the movement of explosives by commercial aircraft?



a. HQ USAF.


b. The Air Staff.


c. Major command (MAJCOM).


d. Federal Aviation Administration (FAA).

d

Which of the following regulates the transportation of explosives and other hazardous materials by water?



a. US Navy.


b. US Coast Guard.


c. Homeland Security.


d. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).

b

The choice for transporting munitions by an ocean-going vessel is the



a. 40-foot MILVAN container.


b. 20-foot MILVAN container.


c. 40-foot ISO container.


d. 20-foot ISO container.

d

What United Nations (UN) specification is designed to keep hazardous materials inside containers and away from people and the environment?



a. Performance oriented packaging.


b. Combat ammunition system.


c. Container allocation system.


d. Packaging operations point.

a

When you do not have an original container you can have one built using



a. the special packaging instruction (SPI) drawing.


b. AFMAN 24−204.


c. MIL-STD 129.


d. The item’s technical order (TO).

a

A common document used for shipping munitions from army depots or contract facilities is



a. AF Form 2005.


b. DD Form 1131.


c. DD Form 1149.


d. DD Form 1150.

c

When shipping mission capable (MICAP), you have to submit documentation to the transportation management office (TMO) within how many hours of notification?



a. 12.


b. 24.


c. 36.


d. 48.

b

A munitions storage magazine is



a. used for holding cartridges in some firearms types.


b. a building or structure used for storing explosives.


c. a magazine published for munitions specialists.


d. used for shipping munitions by any method.

b

What are the two categories of earth-covered magazines?



a. Cover and ultra-cover.


b. Conventional and nuclear.


c. Standard and nonstandard.


d. Above ground and below ground.

c

Earth-covered magazines have a firebreak of how many feet around the ventilators?



a. 20.


b. 15.


c. 10.


d. 5.

d

Which munitions storage structure is used to store small quantities of explosives and is ideal for providing courtesy storage for custody accounts?



a. Multicube magazine.


b. Corbetta magazine.


c. Nonstandard igloo.


d. Standard igloo.

a

What type of facility is normally used to store only class/division 1.3 and 1.4 munitions?



a. Claytile storage warehouse.


b. Modular-constructed igloo.


c. Corbetta magazine.


d. Standard igloo.

a

If a lock will not open, what type of lubricant do you use after verifying that the keyway is clear?



a. Hydrogen dioxide.


b. Ammonium nitrate.


c. Molybdenum disulfide.


d. Hydrogen sulfurperoxide.

c

How often should you put grease or oil into the lock cylinder when lubricating locks?



a. Never.


b. Monthly.


c. Semiannually.


d. Annually.

a

The source document for explosives capacities and controls for each facility in a munitions storage area is the explosives



a. license.


b. waiver.


c. site plan.


d. inventory.

c

The minimum distance between potential explosion sites to prevent one from simultaneously detonating the other is called the



a. inhabited building distance.


b. intermagazine distance.


c. intraline distance.


d. quantity distance.

b

Simultaneous propagation of an explosion between two adjacent explosives locations is unlikely when what is used in conjunction with the two degree rule?



a. Distance.


b. Buildings.


c. Barricades.


d. Buffer material.

c

What type of barricade is used when protected storage facilities are built underground, into hills, or separated by a hill that may reduce quantity-distance (QD) requirements?



a. Natural.


b. Artificial.


c. Sling type.


d. Earth filled.

a

What type of barricades use a select cohesive earth fill, free from unhealthy organic matter, trash, debris, and frozen material?



a. Natural.


b. Artificial.


c. Sling type.


d. Earth filled.

b

The purpose of fire and chemical symbols is to



a. inform anyone who enters the building of the explosives stored there.


b. mislead the enemy about which buildings contain explosives.


c. reflect the quantity of explosives stored inside the building.


d. inform emergency response forces of any hazards present.

d

Where is the fire symbol posted when a multicube storage magazine is sited as a multicube instead of as a single storage magazine?



a. On top of the facility.


b. Inside each facility.


c. Entry control point.


d. On each door.

d

Posting or changing the fire symbol is the responsibility of the



a. munitions flight chief.


b. senior munitions inspector.


c. person in charge of the operation.


d. munitions accountable systems officer (MASO).

c

Location designators for munitions consist of how many digits?



a. 1.


b. 2.


c. 11.


d. 21.

c

The “003” in location designator 34A003C001E, represents the



a. last two digits of the building number.


b. bay within a warehouse.


c. shelf level.


d. row.

d

When direct input methods are not used what AF IMT form is used to document munitions movements from one location to another?



a. 68.


b. 102.


c. 2005.


d. 4331.

d

What is the expected explosive result from two different explosives that are compatible?



a. One will off-set the detonation of the other.


b. They are expected to produce the same reaction if initiated.


c. They are expected to produce different reactions if initiated.


d. The effect will be twice the reaction of either initiated alone.

b

How many lite boxes are allowed per stock/lot number and condition code in one base stock location?



a. One.


b. Two.


c. Three.


d. Four.

a

The lite box should be stored on the



a. top and to the front of the stack.


b. top and to the back of the stack.


c. bottom and to the front of the stack.


d. bottom and to the back of the stack.

a

Structures containing explosives may also store



a. empty pallets.


b. excess dunnage.


c. flammable liquids.


d. inert munitions items.

d

How often are courtesy storage agreements reviewed?



a. Monthly.


b. Quarterly.


c. Semiannually.


d. Annually.

d

What storage method was designed and tested to increase the explosive storage capacity of limited net explosive weight (NEW) igloos, without increasing quantity distance separation requirements?



a. Stuff-it.


b. Buffered storage.


c. Complete round storage.


d. Survive to operate (STO).

b

What weapon storage and security system (WS3) group provides physical storage and security?



a. Console.


b. Coder-transfer.


c. Monitor-indicator.


d. Vault control group.

d

What weapon storage and security system (WS3) group provides communications and processing capabilities for monitoring the status of up to 80 vault subsystems?



a. Console.


b. Coder-transfer.


c. Monitor-indicator.


d. Vault control group.

a

What weapon storage and security system (WS3) group uses portable modules to store and transfer encryption keys and unlock-codes?



a. Console.


b. Coder-transfer.


c. Monitor-indicator.


d. Vault control group.

b