A To Memorize

Front 1

Which embryonic structure becomes the ascending aorta and pulomary trunk?

Back 1

Truncus arteriosus

Front 2

Which embryonic structure becomes the right ventricle and smooth parts of left and right ventricle?

Back 2

Bulbus Cordis

Front 3

Which embryonic structure becomes a portion of the left ventricle?

Back 3

Primitive Ventricle

Front 4

Which embryonic structure becomes the coronary sinus?

Back 4

The left horn of the sinus venosus.

Front 5

Which embryonic structure becomes the SVC?

Back 5

Right common cardinal vein and right anterior cardinal vein.

Front 6

Causes urine discharge from the umbilicus:

Back 6

Patent Urachus

Front 7

Causes meconium discharge from the umbilicus or meckels diverticulum:

Back 7

Vitelline Fistula

Front 8

This tissue gives rise to the brain, the retina and the spinal cord:

Back 8

Neuroectoderm

Front 9

This tissue gives rise to the ANS, the dorsal root ganglia, cranial nerves, melanocytes, bones of the skull, schwann cells, etc.

Back 9

Neural Crest

Front 10

This tissue gives rise to gut tube epithelium and derivatives.

Back 10

Endoderm

Front 11

This tissue gives rise to the adenohypophysis, lens of the eye, epithelium of the oral cavity, sensory organs of the ear and olfactory epithelium.

Back 11

Surface ectoderm

Front 12

A craniopharyngioma is derived from:

Back 12

Surface Ectoderm

Front 13

Caused by excessive resorption of the septum primum or secundum:

Back 13

Patent foramen Ovale

Front 14

Drug that would help to close a PDA:

Back 14

Indomethacin

Front 15

Would help to maintain a PDA in a newborn:

Back 15

Prostaglandins

Front 16

Cerebellar tonsillar herniation through the foramen magnum with aqueductal stenosis and hydrocephaly. Often presents with syringomyelia and thoracolumbar myelomeningocele.

Back 16

Chiari II

Front 17

Large posterior fossa of the brian, absent cerebellar vermis with cystic enlargement of the 4th ventricle. Can lead to hydrocephalus and spina bifida.

Back 17

Dandy Walker

Front 18

Enlargement of the central canal of the spinal cord that leads to cape like bilateral loss of pain and temperature in the upper extremities with preservation of touch. Which fibers are typically damaged first?

Back 18

Syringomyelia- crossing fibers of the spinothalamic tract. Associated with Chiari II.

Front 19

This leads to a branchial cleft cyst in the lateral neck:

Back 19

Persistent cervical sinus

Front 20

Mullerian Inhibitory factor from _______ suppresses development of paramesonephric ducts.

Back 20

Sertoli Cells

Front 21

Increased androgens from _________ stimulates the development of mesonephric ducts

Back 21

Leydig cells

Front 22

Grown on Chocolate agar with factors V (NAD) and X (hematin).

Back 22

H. Influenzae

Front 23

Form on Thayer Martin or VPN media:

Back 23

N. Gonorrhoeae

Front 24

Grown on Tellurite plate or Loffler's media:

Back 24

C. diptheriae

Front 25

Grown on Eaton's agar:

Back 25

M. pneumoniae

Front 26

Grows on EMB agar as blue/black colonies with a metallic sheen:

Back 26

E. Coli

Front 27

Grows on Sabouraud's Agar

Back 27

Fungi

Front 28

This aerobe is seen in burn wounds, nosocomial pneumonia, and pneumonia in CF patients:

Back 28

Pseudomonas auruginosa

Front 29

Name three obligate anaerobes

Back 29

Clostridium, Bacteroides, and Actinomyces

Front 30

Name two intracellular bugs- must be in another cell because they can't make their own ATP:

Back 30

Chlamydia and Rickettsia

Front 31

This bacteria has a blue green pigment and smells like grapes:

Back 31

Psuedomonas Aeruginosa

Front 32

This bacteria have yellow sulfur granules that are composed of a mass of filaments and formed in pus

Back 32

Actinomyces Israelii

Front 33

This is the virulence factor of staph aureus- it binds to the Fc region of Ig and prevents opsonization and phagocytosis

Back 33

Protein A

Front 34

Is the virulence factor of S. pneumo, HiB, and Neisseria.

Back 34

IgA protease- helps to colonize respiratory mucosa

Front 35

This is the virulence factor of Group A strep: helps prevent phagocytosis

Back 35

M protein

Front 36

What mechanism causes the voluminous watery diarrhea of cholera?

Back 36

ADP ribosylation of G protein that stimulates adenylyl cyclse - increases NaCl in the gut

Front 37

Which bacteria produce toxins that stiumlate adenylate or guanylate cyclase?

Back 37

E. Coli

Front 38

This bacteria increases cAMP by inhibiting G-alpha

Back 38

B. pertussis

Front 39

This bacteria blocks the release of inhibitory neurotransmitters GABA and glycine

Back 39

C. tetani

Front 40

Bacteria that produces a toxin the cleaves host cell rRNA (inactivates 60s) and enhances cytokine release, causing HUS

Back 40

Shigella or EHEC

Front 41

Toxin that permanantly diables Gi

Back 41

Pertussis Toxin

Front 42

This toxin permanently activates Gs increasing cAMP.

Back 42

Vibrio cholerae

Front 43

This lancet shaped gram positive bacteria causes meningitis, otitis media, pneumonia, and sinusitis

Back 43

S. Pneumoniae

Front 44

This normal flora of the oral cavity causes dental carries and is resistant to optochin:

Back 44

S. viridans

Front 45

This bacteria is associated with rusty sputum, causes sepsis in sickle cell and ppl with splenectomy:

Back 45

S. pneumoniae

Front 46

Bacteria that can cause bacteremia and subacute endocarditis in colon cancer pts:

Back 46

Strep bovis

Front 47

The only bacteria with a polypeptide capsule:

Back 47

Bacillus anthracis

Front 48

Is a facultative intracellular bacteria with characteristic tumbling motility

Back 48

listeria

Front 49

Gram positive rod, anaerobe, causes oral/facial abcesses that drain through sinus tracts in skin.

Back 49

Actinomyces

Front 50

Gram postive and weakly acid fast aerobe that forms long, branching filaments and causes pulmonary infection in immunocompromised

Back 50

Nocardia asteroides

Front 51

How do you treat actinomyces?

Back 51

Penicillin

Front 52

How do you treat nocardia?

Back 52

Sulfa

Front 53

What is prophylaxis for exposure to TB?

Back 53

Azithromycin

Front 54

How do you treat leprosy?

Back 54

Long term oral dapsone

Front 55

This type of Neisseria ferments both maltose and glucose and has a capsule

Back 55

N. Meningococci- rifampin is prophylaxis in close contacts

Front 56

This gram negative bacteria causes epiglottitis, meningitis, otitis media, and pneumonia. How should you treat the meningitis?

Back 56

H. Influenza
Treat meningitis with ceftriaxone

Front 57

How do you treat legionella?

Back 57

Erythromycin

Front 58

This bacteria have flagella and disseminate hematogenously. They produce H2S

Back 58

Salmonella

Front 59

How do shigella move?

Back 59

actin polymerization

Front 60

This comma shaped or S shaped bacteria causes bloody diarrhea and is associated with Guillain Barre

Back 60

Campylobacter jejuni

Front 61

This causes diarrhea that can mimic appendicitis. Transmission occurs through pets, contaminated milk or pork

Back 61

Yersinia enterocolitica

Front 62

Question mark shaped bacteria (spirochete) found in water contaminated with animal urine.

Back 62

Leptospira

Front 63

How do you treat Lyme dz?

Back 63

Doxycycline and ceftriaxone

Front 64

Is the only rickettsiae that is transmitted by aerosol and causes pneumonia:

Back 64

Coxiella (Q fever) - no rash, no vecor and a negative Weil Felix

Front 65

In the Weil-felix reaciton, Rickettsia cross reacts with ________ and agglutinates.

Back 65

Proteus O antigens

Front 66

Threeinfections that cause rash on the palms and soles:

Back 66

Coxsackie A, Syphilis and RMS

Front 67

How do you treat chlymidia:

Back 67

Azithromycin or Doxy

Front 68

Is found in bird or bat droppings, endemic to the Mississippi and Ohio river valleys, and enters macrophages

Back 68

Histoplasmosis

Front 69

Found in states east of the Mississippi, causes inflammatory lung disease that can disseminate to skin and bone. Forms granulomatous nodules.

Back 69

Blastomycosis

Front 70

Found in the SW US, causes penumonia and meningitis, is associated with dust and has sperules filled with endospores

Back 70

Coccidiomycoses

Front 71

Heavily encapsulated yeast found in pigeon droppings and soil. Is cultured on Sabourauds agar and confirmed by latex agglutination test.

Back 71

Crytococcus Neoformans

Front 72

A mold with irregular non-septate hyphae found in diabetics with DKA or leukemia patients. They grow in the blood vessel and penetrate the cribiform plate- causes frontal lobe abcesses.

Back 72

Mucor and Rhizopus

Front 73

Causes classic triad of chorioretinitis, hydrocephalus, and intracranal calcifications.

Back 73

Toxoplasma

Front 74

Leishmaniasis causes spikning fevers, hepatomegaly and pancytopenia. How do you treat it?

Back 74

Sodium Stibogluconate

Front 75

Which are the live viruses?

Back 75

Smallpox, yellow fever, chickenpox (VZV), Sabin's polio, and MMR

Front 76

Which are the killed viruses?

Back 76

Rabies, Influenza, Salk Polio, and HAV
(RIP Always)

Front 77

Which are the two recombinant virus vaccines?

Back 77

HBV and HPV

Front 78

The only DNA virus that is not double stranded:

Back 78

Parvovirus

Front 79

Two RNA viruses that aren't single stranded

Back 79

Reo and Rotavirus

Front 80

Which DNA virus doesn't replicate in the nucleus?

Back 80

Pox

Front 81

Which two RNA viruses don't replicate in the cytoplasm?

Back 81

Influenza and Retro

Front 82

Which virus gets its envelope from the nuclear membrane?

Back 82

Herpes

Front 83

What are the seven DNA viruses?

Back 83

Herpes, Hepadna (HBV), Adeno, Parvo, Papilloma, Polyoma, and Pox

Front 84

High fevers for several days that can causes seizures followed by a diffuse macular rash

Back 84

Roseola- caused by HHV-6

Front 85

The number one causes of fatal diarrhea in children

Back 85

Rotavirus

Front 86

What type of virus is rubella?

Back 86

Toga virus

Front 87

Polio, Echo, Rhino, Cosackie and hepatitis A are all which kind of virus

Back 87

Picornavirus - all are fecal oral except rhino

Front 88

Influenza is which kind of virus?

Back 88

Orthomyxo- killed viral vaccine si major mode of protection

Front 89

Characterized by fever, postauricular tenderness, lymphadenopathy, arthralgias, and a fine trucal rash.

Back 89

Rubella- a toga virus

Front 90

Parainfluenza (croup), Mumps, measels and RSV are all which kind of virus?

Back 90

Paramyxovirus - has surface F protein that causes epithelial cells to join and become mutinucleated cells

Front 91

Illness characterized by cough, coryza, and conjunctivitis. Can cause SSPE years later, encephalitis, and giant cell pneumonia. Rash presents last and spreads form head to toe

Back 91

Rubeola (measels)- a paramyxovirus

Front 92

Causes parotitis, orchitis, and meningits- can cause sterility

Back 92

Mumps- a paramyxovirus

Front 93

What are the three leading causes of UTI?

Back 93

E. Coli, S. Saptophyticus, Klebsiella

Front 94

Bacteria that causes swarming on Agar, produces protease, and is associated with struvite stones

Back 94

Proteus

Front 95

Congenital infection that causes cataracts and deafness with blueberry muffin rash:

Back 95

Rubella

Front 96

Congenital infection causing hearing loss and seizures with a petichial rash

Back 96

CMV

Front 97

This virus can causes hydrops fetalis if contracted in the 2nd or 3rd trimester- it is a ssDNA:

Back 97

Parvovirus B19

Front 98

Causes a vesicular rash on palms and soles with ulcers in the oral mucosa

Back 98

Hand Foot and Mouth Disease- Caused by Cosackie A

Front 99

Causes a positive PAS stain

Back 99

Tropheryma Whippeli

Front 100

Results from Dog or Cat bite

Back 100

Pasteurella Multocida

Front 101

Mutations of ________ are gain of function mutations leading to cancer. Need damage to only one allele:

Back 101

Oncogenes

Front 102

This gene codes for a tyrosine kinase and is mutated in CML:

Back 102

abl

Front 103

This gene codes for transcription factor and is mutated in Burkitt's lymphoma:

Back 103

c-myc

Front 104

This gene codes for an Anti-apoptotic molecule and is mutated in follicular and undifferentiated lymphomas

Back 104

bcl-2

Front 105

This gene codes for tyrosine kinase and is mutated in breast, ovarian, and gastric carcinomas:

Back 105

erb-2

Front 106

This gene codes for GTPase and is mutated in colon cancer:

Back 106

ras

Front 107

This gene codes for transcription factor and is mutated in lung cancer:

Back 107

L-myc

Front 108

This gene codes for transcription factor and is mutated in neuroblastomas

Back 108

N-myc

Front 109

This gene codes for tyrosine kinase and is mutated in MEN types II and III:

Back 109

ret

Front 110

This gene codes for cytokine receptor and is mutated in gastrointestinal stromal tumors (GIST)

Back 110

c-kit

Front 111

Mutation of these types of genes caues loss of function leading to cancer. Both alleles must be lost for expression of disease:

Back 111

Tumor supressor genes

Front 112

This gene product blocks the G1-S phase of the cell cycle and mutation leads to retinoblastoma and osteosarcoma:

Back 112

Rb (13q)

Front 113

This gene product blocks G1-S phase of the cell cycle and mutation is found in most cancers; Li-Fraumeni syndrome

Back 113

p53 (17p)

Front 114

This gene codes for DNA repair protein and is indicated in breast and ovarian cancer:

Back 114

BRACA1 (17q)

Front 115

This gene codes for a DNA repair protein and is mutated in breast cancer:

Back 115

BRACA2 (13q)

Front 116

Which gene is mutated in melanoma?

Back 116

p16

Front 117

Which gene is mutated in colorectal cancer associated with FAP?

Back 117

APC

Front 118

Which tumor supressor gene is mutated in Wilm's tumor?

Back 118

WT1

Front 119

Which tumor supressor gene is deleted in pancreatic cancer?

Back 119

DPC

Front 120

Which tumor supressor gene is mutated in colon cancer?

Back 120

DCC

Front 121

Used to screen for prostate cancer but can be elevated in BPH and prostatitis:

Back 121

PSA

Front 122

Which marker is produced by most colorectal and pancreatic cancers and also produced by gastic, breast and thyroid medullary cancers?

Back 122

CEA

Front 123

This tumor marker is elevated in hepatocellular carcinoma and yolk sac tumors in the testes?

Back 123

Alpha fetoprotein

Front 124

This tumor marker is elevated in hydatidform moles, choriocarcinomas and gestational trophoblastic tumors:

Back 124

beta HCG

Front 125

This tumor marker is elevated in ovarian and malignant epithelial tumors:

Back 125

CA-125

Front 126

Tumor marker elevated in melanoma, neural tumors, and astrocytomas

Back 126

S-100

Front 127

Is elevated in metastases to bone, obstructive biliary disease, and Paget's disease of the bone

Back 127

Alk Phos

Front 128

Tumor marker for neuroblastoma, lung cancer and gastric cancer

Back 128

Bombesin

Front 129

Tumor marker for hairy cell leukemia

Back 129

TRAP

Front 130

Tumor marker for pancreatic adenocarcinoma

Back 130

CA 19-9

Front 131

Naphthlalene or aniline dyes cause which kind of cancer:

Back 131

Bladder transitional cell carcinoma

Front 132

Arsenic causes which kinds of cancer

Back 132

Squamous cell in skin and angiosarcoma in the liver

Front 133

Which four cancers have psammoma bodies?

Back 133

Papillary thyroid, Serous ovary, meningioma, and mesothelioma

Front 134

Top three cancers that mets to brain

Back 134

Lung, Skin and Kidney

Front 135

Top three cancers that mets to the kidney

Back 135

colon, stomach and pancreas

Front 136

Top three cancers that mets to bone:

Back 136

Prostate, thyroid, and testes

Front 137

Nicotinic ACh receptors are which kind of channels?

Back 137

ligand gated Na+/K+

Front 138

Muscarinic ACh receptors are which kind of channels?

Back 138

G-protein coupled

Front 139

Which G protein pathway decreases adenylyl cyclase, decreasing cAMP, which decreases protein kinase A?

Back 139

Gi = inhibitory pathway

Front 140

Which receptors use the G inhibitory pathway?

Back 140

M2, A2, and D2

Front 141

Which G protein pathway increases adenylyl cyclase, increasing cAMP and increasing protein kinase A?

Back 141

Gs = stimulatory

Front 142

Which receptors use the Gs pathway?

Back 142

B1, B2, D1, H2, V2

Front 143

Which G protein pathway acts through phospholipase C, increasing the conversion of lipids to PIP, producing IP3 and DAG, which cause an increase in intracellular calcium and protein kinase C?

Back 143

Gq

Front 144

Which receptors act through the Gq pathway?

Back 144

H1, A1, V1, M1, M3

HAVe 1 M&M

Front 145

Drug used in the challenge test for asthma:

Back 145

Methacholine - stimulates muscarinic receptors causing bronchoconstriction

Front 146

Which anticholinesterase is used in the case of an atropine OD?

Back 146

Physostigmine- crosses the blood brain barrier
Also used for glaucoma

Front 147

Used in cholinergic crisis involving glaucoma:

Back 147

echothiophate

Front 148

This muscarinic antagonist is used for asthma and COPD

Back 148

Ipratropium

Front 149

This drug is an equal B1 and B2 agonist

Back 149

Isoproterenol

Front 150

This drug is used as an alpha blocker before removing pheochromocytoma

Back 150

Phenoxybenzamine

Front 151

Three alpha 1 blockers used for HTN and urinary retention in BPH. Can cause orthostatic hypotension.

Back 151

Prazosin, terazosin, and doxazosin (alpha1 blockers have zosin endings)

Front 152

How do you treat a theophylline OD?

Back 152

beta blocker

Front 153

How do you treat poisoning with copper, arsenic or gold?

Back 153

penicillamine

Front 154

How do you treat an OD with tPA or streptokinase?

Back 154

Aminocaproic Acid

Front 155

Toxic doses of which two drugs are treated with NaHCO3 (alkylinization of the urine)?

Back 155

Salicylates and TCAs

Front 156

How do you treat beta blocker toxicity?

Back 156

Glucagon

Front 157

Name four non-selective beta blockers

Back 157

propranolol, timolol, nadolol, and pindolol

Front 158

Name the 5 B1 selective blockers

Back 158

Acebutolol, Betaxolol, Esmolol, Atenolol and Metropolol
(A BEAM)

Front 159

Name two non-selective alpha and beta agonists:

Back 159

Carvedilol and Labetalol

Front 160

What do furosemide, probenecid, thiazides, and acetazolamide have in common?

Back 160

They are sulfa drugs that can cause sulfa allergies in Pts.

Front 161

This drug can cause a direct coombs positive hemolytic anemia:

Back 161

Methyldopa

Front 162

Which three drugs can cause pulmonary fibrosis?

Back 162

Bleomycin, amidodarone, and Busulfan

Front 163

Which durgs causes torsades de pointes?

Back 163

Class III (sotalol) and class IA (quinidine) antiarrythmics

Front 164

Name 4 P-450 inducers (cause decreased levels of other drugs):

Back 164

Barbituates, SJW, Phenytoin and Rifampin

Front 165

Name 4 P-450 inhibitors (increases the concentration of other drugs)

Back 165

Erythromycin, Isoniazid, Ketoconazole, and Cimetidine

Front 166

Adrenal insufficiency causing decreased sex hormones and cortisol but increased mineralocorticoids. Males have no internal sex organs and females never get mature sex characteristics. Causes hypertension and hypokalemia.

Back 166

17-a hydroxylase

Front 167

This adrenal insufficiency causes masculinization and hypertension. Increased levels of sexhormones but decreased aldosterone and cortisol.

Back 167

11-B hydroxylase deficiency

Front 168

Which adrenal insufficiency has decreased cortisol, decreased mineralocorticoids, and increased sex hormones. Leads to masculinization and hypotension.

Back 168

21-hydroxylase deficiency

Front 169

Characterized by parathyroid tumors, pituitary tumors (prolactin or GH) and pancreatic endocrine tumors (Zollinger Ellison, VIPomas). Commonly presents with kidney stones and stomach ulcers.

Back 169

MEN 1

Front 170

Characterized by medullary thyroid cancer (calcitonin), pheochromocytoma, and parathyroid tumors.

Back 170

MEN II

Front 171

Characterized by medullary thyroid cancer, pheochromocytoma and marfanoid habitus

Back 171

MEN IIb or MEN III

Front 172

Associated with antibodies to tissue transglutaminase, blunting of villi, and lymphocytes in the lamina propria. Associated with dermatitis herpetiformis

Back 172

Celiac Sprue

Front 173

Gastric hypertrophy with protein loss, parietal cell atrophy, and increased mucous cells. Precancerous. Rugae of the stomach become so hypertrophied that they look like brain gyri:

Back 173

Menetrier's Dz

Front 174

Autosomal dominant mutation of APC gene on chromosome 5. Has thousands of polyps and 100% progress to cancer:

Back 174

FAP

Front 175

Autosomal dominant mutation in DNA mismatch repair gene leading to colon cancer in 80% of cases:

Back 175

HNPCC

Front 176

Condition with FAP and malignant CNS tumor:

Back 176

Turcot's syndromr

Front 177

Condition with FAP and osseous soft tissue tumors, retinal hyperplasia

Back 177

Gardner's Syndrome

Front 178

In the progression to colon cancer, what is the order of gene mutations?

Back 178

Loss of APC
K-RAS
Loss of P53

Front 179

Condition with mildly decreased UDP-glucuronyl transferase or decreased bilirubin uptake. Elevated unconjugated bilirubin without hemolysis. Caused by stress and has no clinical consequences.

Back 179

Gilbert's Syndrome

Front 180

Condition with absent UDP glucuronyl transferase. Patients have jaundice and kernicterus due to increased bilirubin. Pts die within a few years.

Back 180

Crigler-Najjar

Front 181

Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia due to defective liver excretion. Grossly black liver, benign.

Back 181

Dubin Johnson

Front 182

How do you treat wilson's dz?

Back 182

Penacillamine

Front 183

Cancer that has increased CEA and CA 19-9 tumor markers. Associated with smoking but not alcohol. Presents with abd pain radiating to the back, migratory thrombophlebitis, and obstructive jaundice.

Back 183

Pancreatic adenocarcinoma

Front 184

Drug that is a PGE1 analog and increases production/secretion of mucous, decreases acid.

Back 184

Misoprostol

Front 185

This somatostatin analog is used to treat VIPomas, carcinoid tumors, and acute variceal bleeds.

Back 185

Octreotide

Front 186

Monoclonal antibody to TNF- immune suppressant because TNF is a proinflammatory cytokine

Back 186

Infliximab

Front 187

Serotonin antagonist and powerful central acting anti-emetic

Back 187

Ondansetron

Front 188

This D2 receptor antagonist increases the resting tone of the stomach and increases motility. Used to treat gastroparesis:

Back 188

Metoclopramide

Front 189

Causes destruction of white matter of cervical region, random and assymetric lesions due to demyelination

Back 189

Multiple Sclerosis

Front 190

Combined upper and lower motor neuron deficits with no sensory deficit.

Back 190

ALS

Front 191

Complete occlusion of this artery in the spine spares the dorsal columns.

Back 191

Anterior Spinal

Front 192

Causes degeneration of dorsal roots and dorsal columns leading to impaired proprioception and locomotor ataxia

Back 192

Tabes Dorsalis (syphilis)

Front 193

Damages anterior white commissure of the spinothalamic tract resulting in bilateral loss of pain and temperature.

Back 193

Syringomyelia

Front 194

Which three conditions cause demyelination of dorsal columns, lateral corticospinal tracts, and spinocerebellar tracts leading to ataxic gait, hyperreflexia, impaired position and vibration

Back 194

Vitamin B12 deficiency, Vitamin E deficiency, and Friedrich's ataxia

Front 195

Autosomal recessive dz associtated with degeneration of anterior horns of the spinal cord with LMN involvement only. Presents as a floppy baby with tongue fasiculations. Die at 7 Months.

Back 195

Werdnig Hoffman Disease- Spinal Muscular Atrophy

Front 196

Autosomal recessive trinucleotide repeat disorder that leads to impaired mitochondrial functioning. Staggering gait, falls, nystagmus, dysarthria and hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. Presents in childhood with kyphoscoliosis.

Back 196

Friedreich's Ataxia

Front 197

Ipsilateral UMP signs and loss of vibration and proprioception. Contralateral loss of pain and temp below lesion.

Back 197

Brown Sequard Syndrome

Front 198

Paralysis of conjugate vertical gaze due to a lesion in the superior colliculi-

Back 198

Parinaud Syndrome

Front 199

Congenital disorder with port wine stains, ipsilateral leptomeningeal angiomas, pheochromocytomas. Can cause glaucoma, seizures, hemiparesis and mental retardation.

Back 199

Sturge-Weber Syndrome

Front 200

Hamartomas in the skin, CNS, organs; cardiac rhabdomyoma, renal angiomyolipoma, astrocytoma, mental retardation, seizures, hypopigmented spots, shagreen patch.

Back 200

Tuberous Sclerosis - autosomal dominant

Front 201

Cade au lait spots, lisch nodules (pigment in iris), optic gliomas, pheochromocytoma, Mutation in chromosome 17, autosomal dominant.

Back 201

Neurofibromatosis Type I

Front 202

Cavernous hemangiomas in skin, mucosa, organs; bilateral renal cell carcinoma, hemangioblastomas in the retina, brain stem, cerebellum, and Pheochomocytoma. AD mutation on chromosome 3.

Back 202

Von Hippel Lindau

Front 203

Vascular neoplasm of the brain with areas of necrosis and hemorrhage. Can cross the midline to the opposide hemisphere, pallisading necrosis.

Back 203

Glioblastoma Multiforme

Front 204

Most common brain tumor in adults, crosses the midline, stains for GFAP- Pleomorphic tumor cells

Back 204

Glioblastoma Multiforme

Front 205

Brain tumor that occurs in the convexities of hemispheres, has spindle cells with whorled pattern, and psammoma bodies (calcifications).

Back 205

Meningioma

Front 206

Brain cell tumor that is S-100 positive and usually found at the CP angle.

Back 206

Schwannoma

Front 207

Rare, slow growing tumor in the frontal lobes. Has chicken wire capillary pattern and round nuclei with clear cytoplasm.

Back 207

Oligodendroglioma

Front 208

Tumor in children most commonly found posterior fossa, GFAP positive, has eosinophillic corkscrew fibers, is cystic and solid. Has a good prognosis.

Back 208

Pilocytic astrocytoma

Front 209

Highly malignant cerebellar tumor in kids, has rosettes or perivascular psuedorosette. Solid small blue cells. Can compress the 4th ventricel causing hydrocephalus.

Back 209

Medulloblastoma

Front 210

Brain tumor in kids with characteristic perivascular pseudorosettes. Rod-shaped basal ciliary body found near the nucleus.

Back 210

Ependymoma

Front 211

Brain tumor in kids with famu cells and high vascularity. Most often cerebellar, associated with von hippel lundau, can produce EPO.

Back 211

Hemangioblastoma

Front 212

Benign childhood tumor with calcifications, can cause bitemporal hemianopia.

Back 212

Craniopharyngioma- derived from rathke's pouch

Front 213

Heterogeneously enhancing primary brain tumor in adults

Back 213

GBM

Front 214

Ovarian tumor with sheets of uniform cells. Secretes hCG and LDH.

Back 214

Dysgerminoma

Front 215

Ovarian tumor with large, hyperchromatic, syncytiotrophoblastic cells. Rare but malignant and can develop during pregnancy. Has increased hCG.

Back 215

Choriocarcinoma

Front 216

Agressive ovarian cancer- yellow, friable, solid mass. Has Schiller-duval bodies that look like glomeruli. Has increased AFP.

Back 216

Yolk Sac

Front 217

Ovarian tumor, frequently bilateral, lined with fallopian tube epithelium and is benign.

Back 217

Serous cystadenoma

Front 218

Most common ovarian tumor, malignant and frequently bilateral. Has multiple cystic spaces.

Back 218

Serous cystadenocarcinoma

Front 219

This is a general ovarian cancer marker

Back 219

CA-125

Front 220

Malignant ovarian tumor, causes intraperitoneal accumulation of mucinous material from ovarian or appendiceal tumor- can be massive

Back 220

Mucinous Cystadenocarcinoma

Front 221

Ovarian tumor that secretes estrogen and can lead to precocious puberty. Has small follicles filled with eosinophilic secretions. Causes abnormal uterine bleeding.

Back 221

Granulosa cell tumor

Front 222

Triad of ovarian fibroma, ascites, and hydrothorax. Pulling sensation in the groin.

Back 222

Meig's syndrome

Front 223

Malignant, painless, testicular tumor. Most common kind, affects men 15-35. Large cells in lobules with watery cytoplasm and a fried egg appearance.

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Seminoma

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Malignant, painful, testicular tumor that is often glandular or papillary. May have increased AFP or hCG.

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Embryonal carcinoma

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Yellow, mucinous testicular tumor. Schiller Duval bodies look like glomeruli. Has increased AFP.

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Yolk Sac

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Malignant testicular tumor with increased hCG. Disordered syncytiotrophoblastic and cytotrophoblastic elements. Hematogenous mets.

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Choriocarcinoma

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Usually benign testicular tumor containing Reinke crystals, usually andrgen producing- gynecomastia in men and precocious puberty in boys. Golden brown color.

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Leydig cell.

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Most common testicular cancer in older men:

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Lymphoma

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Nephrotic syndrome with highly selective loss of albumin, lipids in tubular cells, and diffuse effacement of podocytes. Seen in young children with a URI or recent immunization.

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Minimal Change disease

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MCC of nephrotic syndrome, caused by damage of the podocytes with sclerosis and hyalinosis. IgM and C3 present but no immune complexes. Poor prognosis and high rate of recurrence in transplants.

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Focal Segmental Glomerulosclerosis

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Nephrotic syndrome with damage to the epithelial and mesangial cells by immune complex activating complement. Has a spike and dome pattern with silver stain and granular deposits of IgG and C3.

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Membranous glomerulonephritis

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Nephrotic syndrome with mixed nephritic and nephrotic features. The glomeruli are large and hypercellular. Duplication and splitting of the GBM forms tram-tracks. Slow progression with asymptomatic proteinuria and hemtaturia.

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Membranoproliferative Glomerulosclerosis

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Which four things can cause membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis?

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Autoimmune disease, infection, schistosomiasis, and malignancy,

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Nephritic syndrome developing after a skin or respiratory infection. Increased ASO and anti DNAse B. Subepithelial immune complex deposition (lumpy bumpy). Hypercellular glomeruli with IgG, IgM and C3.

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Post Streptococcal (acute proliferative)

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Nephritic syndrome with hypercellular glomeruli with granular deposits of IgG, IgM and C3. Kidneys are enlarged and swollen with multiple surface punctuate hemorrhages.

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Post-streptococcal

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Nephritic syndrome caused by ruptures in the GBM with infiltration of leukocytes, fibrinogen and parietal epithelial cells. Has three types:

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Rapidly Progressive (cresentic)

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This type of rapidly progressive glomerulosclerosis has antibodies to GBM, with smooth, linear staining of IgG and C3.

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Type I RPGS
-if it has lung involvement, its Goodpastures

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This type of rapidly progressive GS has immune complex deposition and granular staining of IgG and C3

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Type II

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This type of rapidly progressive GS is ANCA positive and may be caused by vasculitis like Wegeners and Churg Strauss

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Type III

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Characterized by nephritis, hearing loss and ocular abnormalities. Is an X-linked recessive defect in type IV collagen. Has irregular thickening and thinning of the GBM with splitting.

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Alport Syndrome

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MCC of nephritic syndrome worldwide. Causes painless, recurrent hematuria in kids, 1-2 days post infection of mucosal tissue. Is associated with HSP, celiac sprue, and dermatitis herpetiformis

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IgA nephritis