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240 Cards in this Set

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01-01 Which certification is considered required for entrance into the PC industry?

A. Certified Cisco Network Associate
B. CompTIA A+ certification
C. CompTIA Network+ certification
D. Microsoft Certified Professional
B. The CompTIA A+ certification is considered required for entrance into the PC industry.
01-02 How many exams do you need to pass to become CompTIA A+ certified?

A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
B. You need to pass two exams to become CompTIA A+ certified.
01-03 Which of the following exams, combined with CompTIA A+ Essentials, gets you CompTIA A+ certified? (Select all that apply.)

A. CompTIA A+ 220-602
B. CompTIA A+ 220-604
C. CompTIA A+ Advanced
D. None of the above - passing the CompTIA A+ Essentials exam is all you need to get certified.
A, B. You can combine any of the three numbered exams (220-602, 220-603, and 220-604) with CompTIA A+ Essentials to become a CompTIA A+ Certified Technician.
01-04 What is the primary CompTIA Web site?

A. www.comptia.com
B. www.comptia.edu
C. www.comptia.net
D. www.comptia.org
D. The primary CompTIA Web site is www.comptia.org (although the .com and .net addresses will redirect you to the main site).
01-05 Which of the following best describes an adaptive exam format?

A. An adaptive exam enables you to adapt to the exam format by giving you several free questions at the beginning before the real questions start.
B. An adaptive exam offers weighted questions and adapts to your testing style by lowering the difficulty of questions when you get one right. Once you answer enough easy questions, you get a passing score.
C. An adaptive exam offers weighted questions and adapts to your testing style by raising the difficulty of questions when you get one right. Once you answer enough difficult questions, you get a passing score.
D. An adaptive exam offers questions in many formats, such as multiple choice, fill in the blank, and true/false, so that it can adapt to many testing styles. This enables adaptive exams to be more inclusive.
C. An adaptive exam offers weighted questions and adapts to your testing style by raising the difficulty of questions when you get one right. Once you answer enough difficult questions, you get a passing score.
01-06 Of the eight domains listed for the CompTIA A+ Essentials exam and the IT Technician exam, which do you need to study for each exam?

A. Domains 1-4 for Essentials; 5-8 for IT Technician
B. Domains 1-3 for Essentials; 4-8 for IT Technician
C. Domains 1-3 for Essentials; 4-7 for IT Technician; 8 ("Communication and Professionalism") is optional
D. Domains 1-8 for Essentials; 1-8 for IT Technician
D. All eight domains apply to both exams.
01-07 What companies administer the CompTIA A+ certification exams? (Select all that apply.)

A. CompTIA
B. Microsoft
C. Pearson/VUE
D. Prometric
C, D. Pearson/VUE and Prometric administer the CompTIA A+ certification exams.
01-08 Of the four possible exams, which requires the most in-depth understanding of the domain "Personal Computer Components"?

A. Essentials
B. 220-602 (IT Technician)
C. 220-603 (Help Desk Technician)
D. 220-604 (Depot Technician)
D. At 45 percent, the Depot Technician exam requires the most in-depth understanding of the domain "Personal Computer Components."
01-09 Of the four possible exams, which requires the most in-depth understanding of the domain "Security"?

A. Essentials
B. 220-602 (IT Technician)
C. 220-603 (Help Desk Technician)
D. 220-604 (Depot Technician)
C. At 15 percent, the Help Desk Technician exam requires the most in-depth understanding of the domain "Security."
01-10 Of the four possible exams, which requires the most in-depth understanding of the domain "Communication and Professionalism"?

A. Essentials
B. 220-602 (IT Technician)
C. 220-603 (Help Desk Technician)
D. 220-604 (Depot Technician)
C. At 20 percent, the Help Desk Technician exam requires the most in-depth understanding of the domain" Communication and Professionalism."
02-01 What do you call the commands that tell the computer what to do?

A. Data
B. Morse code
C. Programming
D. Output
C. Programming is the general term for commands that tell the computer what to do.
02-02 What is the essential tool for computer techs?

A. File
B. Phillips-head screwdriver
C. Pliers
D. Flat-head screwdriver
B. A Phillips-head screwdriver is the essential tool for computer techs.
02-03 Where do you connect an anti-static wrist strap? (Select the best answer.)

A. To an anti-static plate on the computer
B. To an electrical outlet
C. To a handy metal part of the case
D. Non-static wrist strap
C. Connect an anti-static wrist strap to any handy metal part of the computer. The metal plate, by the way, is the section on the strap where you connect the cable from the PC.
02-04 What sort of connector does a typical network card have?

A. DB-9
B. Mini-DIN
C. RJ-11
D. RJ-45
D. A typical network card sports an RJ-45 port.
02-05 Modern keyboards connect to which of the following ports? (Select all that apply.)

A. DIN
B. FireWire
C. Mini-DIN
D. USB
C, D. Modem keyboards connect to either mini-DIN or USB ports.
02-06 Which end of the USB cable plugs into the PC?

A. A
B. B
C. Mini-A
D. Mini-B
A. Plug the USB A connector into the PC.
02-07 A printer usually plugs into which of the following ports? (Select two.)

A. DB-9
B. DB-25
C. Mini-DIN
D. USB
B, D. A printer usually plugs into either DB-25 or USB (although some can use FireWire, it's not as common).
02-08 What do you plug into a three-row, 15-pin port?

A. Joystick
B. Keyboard
C. Monitor
D. Mouse
C. You plug a monitor into a three-row, 15-pin port.
02-09 What connector was designed to connect your PC to a high-end television set?

A. DB-HD
B. DVI
C. HDMI
D. VGA
C. HDMI was designed to connect your PC to a high-end television set.
02-10 What connector was designed to connect your PC to a high-end audio system?

A. DB-HA
B. DVI
C. Mini-audio
D. S/PDIF
D. S/PDIF was designed to connect your PC to a high-end audio system.
03-01 What do registers provide for the CPU?

A. Registers determine the clock speed.
B. The CPU uses registers for temporary storage of internal commands and data.
C. Registers enable the CPU to address RAM.
D. Registers enable the CPU to control the address bus.
B. The CPU uses registers for temporary storage of internal commands and data.
03-02 What function does the external data bus have in the PC?

A. The external data bus determines the clock speed for the CPU.
B. The CPU uses the external data bus to address RAM.
C. The external data bus provides a channel for the flow of data and commands between the CPU and RAM.
D. The CPU uses the external data bus to access registers.
C. The external data bus provides a channel for the flow of data and commands between the CPU and RAM.
03-03 What is the function of the address bus in the PC?

A. The address bus enables the CPU to communicate with the chipset.
B. The address bus enables the memory controller chip to communicate with the RAM.
C. The address bus provides a channel for the flow of data and commands between the CPU and RAM.
D. The address bus enables the CPU to access registers.
A. The address bus enables the CPU to communicate with the chipset.
03-04 What is the size of the data bus and L1 cache on a Core 2 Duo CPU?

A. 32-bit data bus, 32-KB L1 cache
B. 64-bit data bus, two 32-KB L1 caches
C. 64-bit data bus, two 64-KB L1 caches
D. 128-bit data bus, two 128-KB l1 caches
C. The Core 2 Duo CPU has a 64-bit data bus and two 64-KB Ll caches.
03-05 When a tech adds a new Athlon 64 X2 processor to a motherboard, which of the following should he or she check? (Choose the best answer.)

A. Clock speed of the CPU, clock multiplier for the CPU
B. Clock speed of the CPU clock multiplier for the CPU, voltage settings on the motherboard
C. Clock speed of the CPU, clock multiplier for the CPU, voltage settings on the motherboard, system clock speed
D. Voltage settings on the motherboard, system clock speed
C. Even with the CPUID built into modem processors, a good tech should check the motherboard settings for speed, clock multiplier, and voltage. He or she should also know the speed of the CPU.
03-06 The Intel Core Duo has which of the following advantages over the Pentium M?

A. Level 1 cache
B. 64-bit data bus
C. Quad pipelining
D. Dual processors
D. The Intel Core Duo has dual processors, a definite advantage over the Pentium M.
03-07 The Intel Core Duo processor has two 32-KB Level l caches, whereas the Athlon 64 X2 has one 128-KB Level l cache. What does the cache provide for the processor(s)?

A. It enables the CPU to continue working during pipeline stalls.
B. It enables the CPU to continue working during hard drive refreshes.
C. It enables the CPU to access RAM.
D. It enables the CPU to access the chipset memory controller.
A. Cache enables the CPU to continue working during pipeline stalls.
03-08 What distinguishes the Athlon Thunderbird from the original Athlon? (Select all that apply.)

A. Athlon Thunderbird used an SEC cartridge
B. Athlon Thunderbird used a PGA package
C. Athlon Thunderbird ran on a double-pumped frontside bus
D. Athlon Thunderbird ran on a quad-pumped frontside bus
B, C. The Athlon Thunderbird used a PGA package and ran on a double¬pumped frontside bus.
03-09 Jane, the hardware technician for a nonprofit corporation, has ten systems that she needs to upgrade with new microprocessors. Each system currently has a Socket 939 motherboard with an Athlon 64 3200+ CPU installed.
To keep the upgrade costs low, her boss has told her to use the existing motherboards if possible.
Primary objective - Upgrade the systems with faster CPUs.
Optional objectives - Use existing motherboards and avoid adding any hardware aside from the CPU, fan, and heat sink assembly.
Proposed solution - Jane places an order for ten PPGA Core 2 Duo processors and ten PPGA to Socket 939 converters.
The proposed solution:

A. Meets only the primary objective
B. Meets the primary objective and one of the optional objectives
C. Meets the primary objective and both of the optional objectives
D. Meets none of the objectives
D. What was Jane thinking? You can't install Intel processors on AMD-based motherboards! Her proposed solution accomplishes none of the objectives.
03-10 A donor gives five Socket 939 Athlon X2 processors to the nonprofit corporation for which Jane works as a technician. She has several systems with Socket 939 motherboards and Athlon 64 CPUs installed. Her boss wants her to upgrade five systems with the new processors but to keep the upgrade costs low if possible by using the existing motherboards.
Primary objective - Upgrade the systems with faster CPUs. Optional objective - Use existing motherboards.
Proposed solution - Remove the Athlon 64 CPUs on five systems and replace them with the new Athlon 64 X2 CPUs. Update the motherboards following the motherboard manufacturer's guidelines.

The proposed solution:
A. Meets only the primary objective
B. Meets only the optional objective
C. Meets the primary and optional objectives
D. Meets neither objective
C. That's a little more like it. With a minor motherboard update, Jane can put those Athlon 64 X2 processors to work.
04-01 Steve adds a second 512-MB 240-pin DIMM to his PC, which should bring the total RAM in the system up to 1 GB. The PC has a Pentium 4 3.2-GHz processor and three 240-pin DIMM slots on the motherboard. When he turns on the PC, however, the RAM count only shows 512 MB of RAM. Which of the following is most likely to be the problem?

A. Steve failed to seat the RAM properly.
B. Steve put DDR SDRAM in a DDR 2 slot.
C. The CPU cannot handle 1 GB of RAM.
D. The motherboard can use only one RAM slot at a time.
A. Steve failed to seat the RAM properly.
04-02 Scott wants to add 512 MB of PClOO SDRAM to an aging but still useful desktop system. The system has a lOO-MHz motherboard and currently has 256 MB of non-ECC SDRAM in the system. What else does he need to know before installing?

A. What speed of RAM does he need?
B. What type of RAM does he need?
C. How many pins does the RAM have?
D. Can the system handle that much RAM?
D. Scott needs to know if the system can handle that much RAM.
04-03 What is the primary reason that DDR2 RAM is potentially faster than DDR RAM?

A. The core speed of the RAM chips is faster.
B. The input/output speed of the RAM is faster.
C. DDR RAM is single-channel and DDR2 RAM is dual-channel.
D. DDR RAM uses 184-pin DIMMs and DDR2 uses 240-pin DIMMs.
B. The input/output speed ofDDR2 RAM is faster than DDR RAM (although the latency is higher).
04-04 What is the term for the delay in the RAM's response to a request from the MCC?

A. Variance
B. MCC gap
C. Latency
D. Fetch interval
C. Latency is the term for the delay in the RAM's response to a request from the MCC.
04-05 Rico has a motherboard with four RAM slots that doesn't seem to work. He has twO RDRAM RIMMs installed, for a total of 1 GB of memory, but the system won't boot. What is likely to be the problem?

A. The motherboard requires SDRAM, not RDRAM.
B. The motherboard requires DDR SDRAM, not RDRAM.
C. The motherboard requires all four slots filled with RDRAM.
D. The motherboard requires that the two empty slots be filled with CRIMMs for termination.
D. RDRAM-based motherboards require empty slots to be filled with CRIMMs for termination
04-06 Silas has a new Athlon 64 motherboard with two sticks of DDR2 RAM installed in two of the three RAM slots, for a total of 2 GB of system memory. When he runs CPU-Z to test the system, he notices that the software claims
he's running single-channel memory. What could be the problem? (Select the best answer.)

A. His motherboard only supports single-channel memory.
B. His motherboard only supports dual-channel memory with DDR RAM, not DDR2.
C. He needs to install a third RAM stick to enable dual-channel memory.
D. He needs to move one of the installed sticks to a different slot to activate dual-channel memory.
D. Motherboards can be tricky and require you to install RAM in the proper slots to enable dual-channel memory access. In this case, Silas should move one of the installed sticks to a different slot to activate dual-channel memory. (And he should check the motherboard manual for the proper slots.)
04-07 Motherboards that support more than four sticks of RAM may require what to function properly?
A. Buffered RAM
B. ECC RAM
C. Dual-channel RAM
D. DDR2 RAM
A. Motherboards that support more than four sticks of RAM may require buffered RAM to function properly.
04-08 What is the best way to determine the total capacity and specific type of RAM your system can handle?

A. Check the motherboard book.
B. Open the case and inspect the RAM.
C. Check the Device Manager.
D. Check the System utility in the Control Panel.
A. The best way to determine the total capacity and specific type of RAM your system can handle is to check the motherboard book.
04-09 Gregor installed a third stick of known-good RAM into his Athlon 64 system, bringing the total amount of RAM up to 768 MB. Within a few days, though, he started having random lockups and reboots, especially when doing memory intensive tasks like gaming. What is most likely the problem?

A. Gregor installed DDR RAM into a DDR2 system.
B. Gregor installed DDR2 RAM into a DDR system.
C. Gregor installed RAM that didn't match the speed or quality of the RAM in the system.
D. Gregor installed RAM that exceeded the speed of the RAM in the system.
C. Most likely, Gregor installed RAM that didn't match the speed or quality of the RAM in the system.
04-10 Cindy installs a second stick of DDR2 RAM into her Core 2 Duo system, bringing the total system memory up to 2 GB. Within a short period of time, though, she begins experiencing Blue Screens of Death. What could the problem be?

A. She installed faulty RAM.
B. The motherboard could only handle 1 GB of RAM.
C. The motherboard needed dual-channel RAM.
D. There is no problem. Windows always does this initially, but gets better after crashing a few times.
A. If you have no problems with a system and then experience problems after installing something new, then chances are the something new is at fault!
05-01 What does BIOS provide for the computer? (Choose the best answer.)

A. BIOS provides the physical interface for various devices such as USB and FireWire ports.
B. BIOS provides the programming that enables the CPU to communicate with other hardware.
C. BIOS provides memory space for applications to load into from the hard drive.
D. BIOS provides memory space for applications to load into from the main system RAM.
B. BIOS provides the programming that enables the CPU to communicate with other hardware.
05-02 What is the correct boot sequence for a PC?

A. CPU, POST, power good, boot loader, operating system
B. POST, power good, CPU, boot loader, operating system
C. Power good, boot loader, CPU, POST, operating system
D. CPU, power good, POST, boot loader, operating system
D. Here's the correct boot sequence: CPU, power good, POST, boot loader, operating system.
05-03 Jill decided to go retro and added a second floppy disk drive to her computer. She thinks she got it physically installed correctly, but it doesn't show up in Windows. Which of the following options will most likely lead Jill where she needs to go to resolve the issue?

A. Reboot the computer and press the F key on the keyboard twice. This signals that the computer has two floppy disk drives.
B. Reboot the computer and watch for instructions to enter the CMOS setup utility (for example, a message may say to press the DELETE key). Do what it says to go into CMOS setup.
C. In Windows, press the DELETE key twice to enter the CMOS setup utility.
D. In Windows, go to Start | Run and type "floppy." Click OK to open the Floppy Disk Drive Setup Wizard.
B. Jill should reboot the computer and watch for instructions to enter the CMOS setup utility (for example, a message may say to press the DELETE key). She should do what it says to go into CMOS setup.
05-04 Henry bought a new card for capturing television on his computer. When he finished going through the packaging, however, he found no driver disc, only an application disc for setting up the TV capture software. After installing the card and software, it all works flawlessly. What's the most likely explanation?

A. The device doesn't need BIOS, so there's no need for a driver disc.
B. The device has an option ROM that loads BIOS, so there's no need for a driver disc.
C. Windows supports TV capture cards out of the box, so there's no need for a driver disc.
D. The manufacturer made a mistake and didn't include everything needed to set up the device.
B. Most likely the device has an option ROM because it works.
05-05 Which of the following most accurately describes the relationship between BIOS and hardware?

A. All hardware needs BIOS.
B. All hardware that attaches to the motherboard via ribbon cables needs BIOS.
C. All hardware built into the motherboard needs BIOS
D. Some hardware devices need BIOS.
A. All hardware needs BIOS!
05-06 After a sudden power outage, Samson's PC rebooted, but nothing appeared
on the screen. The PC just beeped at him, over and over and over. What's most likely the problem?

A. The power outage toasted his RAM.
B. The power outage toasted his video card.
C. The power outage toasted his hard drive.
D. The power outage toasted his CPU.
A. The long repeating beep and a dead PC most likely indicates a problem with RAM.
05-07 Davos finds that a disgruntled former employee decided to sabotage her computer when she left by putting a password in CMOS that stops the computer from booting. What can Davos do to solve this problem?

A. Davos should boot the computer holding the left SHIFT key. This will clear the CMOS information.
B. Davos should try various combinations of the former employee's name. The vast majority of people use their name or initials for CMOS passwords.
C. Davos should find the CMOS clear jumper on the motherboard. Then he can boot the computer with a shunt on the jumper to clear the CMOS information.
D. Davos should find a replacement motherboard. Unless he knows the CMOS password, there's nothing he can do.
C. Davos should find the CMOS clear jumper on the motherboard. Boot the computer with a shunt on the jumper to clear the CMOS information.
05-08 Richard over in the sales department went wild in CMOS and made a bunch of changes that he thought would optimize his PC. Now most of his PC doesn't work. He can boot, but only to CMOS, not into Windows. Which of the
following tech call answers would most likely get him up and running again?

A. Reboot the computer about three times. That'll clear the CMOS and get you up and running.
B. Open up the computer and find the CMOS clear jumper.
Remove a shunt from somewhere on the motherboard and put it on the CMOS clear jumper. Reboot and then put the shunt back where you got it. Reboot, and you should be up and running in no time.
C. Boot into the CMOS setup program and then find the option to load a plug¬and-play operating system. Make sure it's set to On. Save and exit CMOS; boot normally into Windows. You should be up and running in no time.
D. Boot into the CMOS setup program and then find the option to load Optimized Default settings. Save and exit CMOS; boot normally into Windows. You should be up and running in no time.
D. Please don't hand Richard a screwdriver! Having him load Optimized Default settings will most likely do the trick.
05-09 Jill boots up an older Pentium III system that has been the cause of several user complaints at the office. The system powers up and starts to run through POST, but then stops. The screen displays a "CMOS configuration mismatch"
error. Of the following list, what is the most likely cause of this error?
A. Dying CMOS battery
B. Bad CPU
C. Bad RAM
D. Corrupt system BIOS
A. The CMOS battery is likely dying.
05-10 Where does Windows store device drivers?

A. My Computer
B. My Hardware
C. Registry
D. Drivers and Settings
C. Windows stores device drivers in the Registry.
06-01 Which of the following statements about the expansion bus is true?

A. The expansion bus runs at the speed of the system clock.
B. The expansion bus crystal sets the speed for the expansion bus.
C. The CPU communicates with RAM via the expansion bus.
D. The frontside bus is another name for the expansion bus.
B. A separate expansion bus crystal enables the expansion bus to run at a different speed than the frontside bus.
06-02 Which of the following statements best describes the hexadecimal numbering system?

A. It is a binary numbering system that uses only two digits, a 0 and a 1.
B. It is another name for the decimal numbering system with ten digits, 0 through 9.
C. It is an eight-digit numbering system, using letters A through H.
D. It is a sixteen-digit numbering system that can express all its values by using four wires.
D. The hexadecimal numbering system represents binary values using the characters 0-9 and A-F.
06-03 AGP stands for __ and is an expansion of the __ bus.

A. Accelerated Graphics Port, PCI
B. Alternative Graphics Port, PCI
C. Accelerated Graphics Port, ISA
D. Alternative Graphics Port, ISA
A. The Accelerated Graphics Port is a specialized PCI slot used for video cards.
06-04 Which of these devices is likely to still use DMA?

A. USB flash drive
B. Floppy drive
C. Hard drive
D. CD-ROM drive
B. On most modern PCs, only the floppy drive (if one is installed!) still uses classic DMA.
06-05 What does a red "X" next to a device in Device Manager indicate?

A. A compatible driver has been installed that may not provide all the functions for the device.
B. The device is missing or Windows cannot recognize it.
C. The system resources have been assigned manually.
D. The device has been disabled because it is damaged or has a system resource conflict.
B. The dreaded red "X" can mean a bad connection, a bad driver, or even a bad card.
06-06 What are the standard system resource assignments for LPT2?

A. I/O address 378 and IRQ7
B. I/O address 3F8 and IRQ4
C. I/O address 278 and IRQ5
D. I/O address 2F8 and IRQ5
B. The LPT2 port is by default assigned I/O base address 278 and IRQ5.
06-07 When installing an expansion card, which of these should you do?

A. Make sure the computer is plugged into the AC wall outlet.
B. Hold the card only by its slot connectors.
C. Use firm but not excessive force to snap the card into the slot.
D. Avoid letting the metal flange touch the PC case.
C. After handling the card only by the edges and avoiding the slot connectors, you should snap it into an open slot on an unplugged
system, pushing firmly and evenly until the metal flange is in contact with
the slot on the case.
06-08 How does the CPU communicate with a device?

A. It uses the device's I/O addresses over the address bus.
B. It uses the device's IRQ addresses over the data bus.
C. It uses the device's COM port over the address bus.
D. It uses the device's DMA over the data bus.
A. The CPU uses the device's I/O addresses over the address bus to communicate with that device.
06-09 Which of the following does a device use to initiate communication with the CPU?

A. IO/MEM wire
B. Bus mastering
C. DMA
D. IRQ
D. A device uses its IRQ to get the CPU's attention and begin communication.
06-10 Which variation of the PCI bus was specifically designed for laptops?

A. PCI-X
B. PCle
C. Mini-PCI
D. AGP
C. The Mini-PCI format conserves space and power, making it an ideal card type for use in laptops.
07-01 Which of the following form factors dominates the PC industry?

A. AT
B. ATX
C. BTX
D. CTX
B. Almost all modern motherboards follow the ATX form factor.
07-02 Which of the following form factors offers the best cooling?

A. AT
B. ATX
C. BTX
D. CTX
C. Although not widely adopted by the industry, BTX motherboards offer superior cooling to AT or ATX systems.
07-03 On Intel-based motherboards, which chip enables the CPU to interact with RAM?

A. Memorybridge
B. Northbridge
C. Southbridge
D. Super I/O
B. The Northbridge enables the communication between the CPU and RAM.
07-04 On modern motherboards, which chip most commonly supports floppy drives and infrared ports?

A. Memorybridge
B. Northbridge
C. Southbridge
D. Super I/O
D. The Super 1/0 chip handles older technologies such as floppy drives and infrared ports.
07-05 Brian bought a new motherboard that advertised support for eight USB ports.
When he pulled the motherboard out of the box, however, he found that it only had four USB ports! What's likely the issue here?

A. The extra four USB ports will connect to the front of the case or via a dongle to an expansion slot.
B. The extra four USB ports require an add-on expansion card.
C. The FireWire port will have a splitter that makes it four USB ports.
D. The motherboard chipset might support eight USB ports, but the manufacturer only included four ports.
A. The extra four USB ports most likely connect to the front of the case or via a dongle to an expansion slot.
07-06 Which of the following chips enables an Athlon 64 to use dual-channel DDRRAM?

A. ATI 200 Express
B. NVIDIA nForce 570 SLI Intel
C. NVIDIA nForce 590 SLI AMD D. None of the above
D. Athlon 64 CPUs have a memory controller built in; thus, none of the chips listed handles memory access for the CPU.
07-07 Martin bought a new motherboard to replace his older ATX motherboard. As he left the shop, the tech on duty called after him, "Check your standouts!" What could the tech have meant?

A. Standouts are the connectors on the motherboard for the front panel buttons, like the on/off switch and reset button.
B. Standouts are the metal edges on some cases that aren't rolled.
C. Standouts are the metal connectors that attach the motherboard to the case.
D. Standouts are the dongles that enable a motherboard to support more than four USB ports.
C. Standouts are the metal connectors that attach the motherboard to the case.
07-08 Amanda bought a new system that, right in the middle of an important presentation, gave her a blue screen of death. Now her system won't boot at all, not even to CMOS. After extensive troubleshooting, she determined that the motherboard was at fault and replaced it. Now the system runs fine. What was the most likely cause of the problem?

A. Burn-in failure
B. Electro-static discharge
C. Component failure
D. Power supply failure
A. Although all the answers are plausible, the best answer here is that her system suffered burn-in failure.
07-09 Solon has a very buggy computer that keeps locking up at odd moments and rebooting spontaneously. He suspects the motherboard. How should he test it?

A. Check settings and verify good components.
B. Verify good components and document all testing.
C. Replace the motherboard first to see if the problems disappear.
D. Check settings, verify good components, replace components, and document all testing.
D. Solon needs to check settings, verify good components, replace components, and document all testing.
07-10 Steve has been tasked to upgrade ten systems at his office. The systems currently have microATX motherboards with 512 MB of DDR RAM and Athlon XP CPUs.

Primary objective: Upgrade ten systems.
Optional objectives: Use the current cases and use the current RAM.
Proposed solution: Purchase ten microATX motherboards with NVlDIA nForce 570 SLI Intel chipsets and ten Pentium D CPUs.

The proposed solution:
A. Accomplishes only the primary objective.
B. Accomplishes the primary objective and one of the optional objectives.
C. Accomplishes the primary objective and both of the optional objectives.
D. Accomplishes neither the primary nor the optional objectives.
B. The motherboards would fit just fine in the cases because the switch from AMD to Intel CPUs has nothing to do with the form factor of the motherboards. Steve slipped up, however, because the chipset on the new motherboards requires DDR2 rather than DDR RAM.
08-01 When testing an AC outlet in the U.S., what voltage should the multimeter show between the hot and ground wires?

A. 120 V
B. 60 V
C. O V
D. -120 V
A. The multi meter should show 120 V (or thereabouts) between the hot and ground of a properly wired outlet.
08-02 What voltages does an ATX12V P1 connector provide for the motherboard?

A. 3.3 V, 5 V
B. 3.3 V, 12 V
C. 5 V, 12 V
D. 3.3 V, 5 V, 12 V
D. An ATX12V power supply P1 connector provides 3.3, 5, and 12 volts to the motherboard.
08-03 What sort of power connector does a floppy disk drive typically use?

A. Molex
B. Mini
C. Sub-mini
D. Micro
B. Floppy drives commonly use a mini connector.
08-04 Joachim ordered a new power supply but was surprised when it arrived because it had an extra, 4-wire connector. What is that connector?

A. P2 connector for plugging in auxiliary components
B. P3 connector for plugging in case fans
C. P4 connector for plugging into Pentium 4 and later motherboards
D. Aux connector for plugging into a secondary power supply
C. The P4 connector goes into the motherboard to support faster processors.
08-05 What should you keep in mind when testing DC connectors?

A. DC has polarity. The red lead should always touch the hot wire; the black lead should touch a ground wire.
B. DC has polarity. The red lead should always touch the ground wire; the black lead should always touch the hot wire.
C. DC has no polarity, so you can touch the red lead to either hot or ground.
D. DC has no polarity, so you can touch the black lead to either hot or neutral, but not ground.
A. DC has polarity. The red lead should always touch the hot wire; the black lead should touch a ground wire.
08-06 What voltages should the two hot wires on a Molex connector read?

A. Red = 3.3 V; Yellow = 5 V
B. Red = 5 V; Yellow = 12 V
C. Red = 12 V; Yellow = 5 V
D. Red = 5 V; Yellow = 3.3 V
B. A Molex connector's red wires should be at 5 volts; the yellow wire should be at 12 volts.
08-07 Why is it a good idea to ensure that the slot covers on your computer case are all covered?

A. To maintain good airflow inside your case.
B. It helps keep dust and smoke out of your case.
C. Both A and B are correct reasons.
D. Trick question! Leaving a slot uncovered doesn't hurt anything.
C. Both A and B are correct reasons-keeping the slots covered helps keep a good airflow in your case, and it keeps dust and smoke away from all those sensitive internal components.
08-08 A PC's power supply provides DC power in what standard configuration?

A. Two primary voltage rails, 12 volts and 5 volts, and an auxiliary 3.3 volt connector.
B. Three primary voltage rails, one each for 12-volt, 5-volt, and 3.3-volt connectors.
C. One primary DC voltage rail for 12-volt, 5-volt, and 3.3-volt connectors.
D. One voltage rail with a 12-volt connector for the motherboard, a second voltage rail with a 12-volt connector for the CPU, and a third voltage rail for the 5-volt and 3.3-volt connectors.
B. The standard PC power supply configuration has three primary voltage rails, one each for 12-volt, 5-volt, and 3.3-volt connectors.
08-09 What feature of ATX systems prevents a user from turning off a system before me operating system's been shut down?

A. Motherboard power connector
B. CMOS setup
C. Sleep mode
D. Soft power
D. The soft power feature of ATX systems prevents a user from turning off a system before the operating system's been shut down.
08-10 How many pins does a SATA power connector have?

A. 6
B. 9
C. 12
D. 15
D. SATA power connectors have 15 pins.
09-01 John's system is running INT13 extensions. What is the maximum size hard drive it can support?

A. 504 GB
B. 137 GB
C. 10 GB
D. 8.4 GB
B. A system running INT13 extensions can support up to a 137-GB hard drive.
09-02 How many IDE hard drives can you have on a system with two hard drive controllers?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
D. Each controller supports two drives.
09-03 How do you differentiate two IDE drives on the same cable?

A. The flat ribbon cable has a seven-wire twist that determines which is which.
B. Set jumpers on the individual drives to determine which is master and which is slave.
C. The IDE controller determines the hierarchy.
D. Both drives are considered equal.
B. Drives use master/slave jumpers to differentiate between the two drives.
09-04 What happens if you cable an IDE hard drive incorrectly?

A. You can destroy that hard drive.
B. The data will be erased, but the hard drive will be okay.
C. The system will not be able to communicate with that hard drive.
D. Nothing. It doesn't matter how the cable is set up; it doesn't have the seven-wire twist.
C. Nothing will be damaged or lost-there just won't be any communication.
09-05 John has just purchased an ATA/66-capable hard drive for his ATA/66-capable system. However, he notices that he forgot to get the special 80-wire cable. If he installs the ATA/66 drive with a 40-pin EIDE cable, what will happen?

A. The drive will work, but will not run at the ATA/66 speed.
B. He might damage the motherboard.
C. He won't be able to install the drive, because the cables are incompatible.
D. He will not be able to run in ATA mode.
A. ATA/66 drives work fine with a 40-pin cable-they just won't run at ATA/66 speed.
09-06 What is the maximum cable length of an internal serial ATA device?

A. 2 meters
B. 12 inches
C. 18 inches
D. 1 meter
D. The maximum cable length for an internal SATA device is 1 meter.
09-07 Which of the following is part of the ATA-7 standard?

A. Red controller connections on the motherboard
B. SATA
C. ATA/100
D. 1 meter maximum cable length
B. Serial ATA is part of the ATA-7 standard.
09-08 What is the maximum number of SATA drives you can have on a system?

A. One master, one slave
B. Two, with no master/slave distinction
C. Eight
D. There is no maximum other than the limitations of your motherboard
D. There is no maximum number of SATA drives you can have on a system beyond the limits imposed by the number of ports on your motherboard/host card.
09-09 Simon wants to connect his old PATA hard drive to the SATA controller in his new computer. What does he need to do this?

A. A SATA bridge to plug into the connector on the PATA drive
B. A PATA converter to plug into the SATA bridge on the controller
C. Nothing at all; he can just connect the PATA drive directly to the SATA controller
D. He can't do it; the SATA controller is not backward compatible with PATA drives
A. Simon needs a SATA bridge to plug into the connector on the PATA drive in order to connect his old PATA hard drive to the SATA controller.
09-10 What do you call a series of SCSI devices working together through a host adapter?

A. A SCSI controller
B. A SCSI chain
C. RAID
D. Cabled SCSI
B. A series of SCSI devices working together through a host adapter is a SCSI chain.
10-01 Which is the most complete list of file systems that Windows 2000 and XP can use?

A. FAT16,FAT32,NTFS
B. FATl6, FAT32, FAT64, NTFS
C. FAT16, FAT32
D. FAT16, NTFS
A. Windows 2000 and XP can use FAT16, FAT32, and NTFS.
10-02 Which of the following correctly identifies the four possible entries in a file allocation table?

A. Filename, date, time, size
B. Number of the starting cluster, number of the ending cluster, number of used clusters, number of available clusters
C. An end of file marker, a bad sector marker, code indicating the cluster is available, the number of the cluster where the next part of the file is stored
D. Filename, folder location, starting cluster number, ending cluster number
C. The four possible entries in a file allocation table are an end of file marker, a bad sector marker, code indicating the cluster is available, and the number of the cluster where the next part of the file is stored.
10-03 What program does Microsoft include with Windows 2000 and Windows XP to partition and format a drive?

A. Format
B. Disk Management console
C. Disk Administrator console D. System Commander
B. Windows 2000 and XP use the Disk Management console to partition and format a drive.
10-04 What does NTFS use to provide security for individual files and folders?

A. Dynamic disks
B. ECC
C. Access Control List
D. MFT
C. Because NTFS views individual files and folders as objects, it can provide security for those objects through an Access Control List.
10-05 Adam wants to create a new simple volume in some unallocated space on his hard drive, but when he right-clicks the space in Disk Management he sees only an option to create a new partition. What is the problem?

A. The drive has developed bad sectors.
B. The drive is a basic disk and not a dynamic disk.
C. The drive has less than 32 GB of unallocated space.
D. The drive is jumpered as a slave.
B. The drive is a basic disk and not a dynamic disk. Partitions are created on basic disks, while volumes are created on dynamic disks.
10-06 Jaime wants to check her hard drive for errors. What tool should she use?

A. FDISK
B. Format
C. Disk Management
D. Error-Checking
D. Error-Checking is used to check a drive for errors.
10-07 To make your files unreadable by others, what should you use?

A. Clustering
B. Compression
C. Disk quotas
D. Encryption
D. To make your files unreadable by others, use encryption.
10-08 How can you effectively expand the capacity of an NTFS drive?

A. Create an extended partition to extend the capacity.
B. Install a second drive and mount it to a folder on the original smaller
NTFS drive.
C. Convert the drive to a dynamic disk and create a mirrored set.
D. Format the drive with the Quick Format option.
B. You can effectively expand the capacity of an NTFS drive by installing a second drive and mounting it to a folder on the original smaller NTFS drive.
10-09 Which volume configuration uses parity for fault tolerance?
A. RAID 5
B. Mirrored set
C. Spanned volume
D. Striped volume
A. RAID 5 uses parity for fault tolerance.
10-10 You will almost certainly destroy your hard drive if you reverse which of the following?

A. Power cable
B. Data cable
C. Jumpers
D. Pins
A. You will almost certainly destroy your hard drive if you reverse the power cable.
11-01 To install a floppy drive as the A: drive, what must you do?

A. Attach the mini connector
B. Plug it into the end connector of the ribbon cable
C. Plug it into the middle connector on the ribbon cable D. Attach the Molex connector
B. Plug the floppy drive into the end of the ribbon cable to make it the A: drive.
11-02 If the floppy disk you used last week will not work today in your floppy drive, what should you do first to determine if the problem is the drive or the disk?

A. Try another disk in the drive or try the disk in another drive.
B. Open the computer and check the ribbon cable.
C. Replace the floppy drive. D. Check the CMOS settings.
A. If the floppy disk won't read in the drive, try another disk first.
11-03 Which term describes the capability to burn files to a CD-R and then come back later and burn additional files?

A. MultiBurn
B. Multisession
C. MultiDrive
D. Multibuffer
B. The term multisession describes the capability to burn files to a CD-R and
then come back later and burn additional files.
11-04 Which type of flash memory card is currently the most popular?

A. CompactFIash
B. Memory Stick
C. Secure Digital
D. SmartMedia
C. Secure Digital cards are the current kings of the marketplace.
11-05 What type of device must be installed on your system in order to acces data on a flash memory card?

A. Scanner
B. Card reader
C. Floppy drive
D. Zip drive
B. You need some sort of card reader to read a flash memory card.
11-06 Which of the following can be bootable media? (Select the best answer.)

A. CD-R disc
B. Floppy disc
C. USB thumb drive
D. All of the above
D. You can make a boot disk out of optical media, floppy disks, or flash memory drives.
11-07 When a CD is inserted, the AutoPlay feature of Windows looks for what file?

A. AUTOPLAY.INF
B. AUTORUN.INF
C. AUTORUN.INI
D. AUTORUN.EXE
B. By default, Windows looks for AUTORUN.INF when you insert a CD.
11-08 A copy of a CD or DVD can be saved as what type of file?
A. ISO
B. 150-9660
C. INF
D. CDDA
A. You can save a complete CD or DVD as an ISO image.
11-09 A CD-RW has a speed rating of 12xlOx32x. What do the three numbers refer to, in order?

A. Write, rewrite, read
B. Read, write, rewrite
C. Rewrite, read, write
D. Write, read, rewrite
A. The three speeds listed for CD-RW drives stand for write, rewrite, and read.
11-10 Which standard covers DVD-ROM technology?

A. MPEG-l
B. MPEG-2
C. MPEG-3
D. MPEG-4
B. The MPEG-2 standard covers DVD-ROM technology (among other things).
12-01 Which of the following is an advantage of running Windows 2000 on NTFS as opposed to FAT32?

A. Security
B. Support for DOS applications
C. Long filenames
D. Network support
A. Security is an advantage of running Windows 2000 on NTFS as opposed to FAT32.
12-02 Ricardo's Windows XP installation has failed. What file should he check to see what files failed to copy?

A. INSTALL.LOG
B. SETUP.LOG
C. SETUP.TXT
D. SETUPLOG.TXT
D. Ricardo should check SETUPLOG.TXT.
12-03 Which of the following best describes the operating system's user interface?

A. It enables the system to communicate with peripheral devices.
B. It provides a display of the programs and data on a system to the user.
C. It provides a display of the system hardware to the user.
D. It provides error handling or notification displays when communicating with hardware.
B. An operating system's user interface provides a display of the programs ane data on a system to the user.
12-04 If you do not complete the activation process for Windows XP, what will happen to your computer?

A. Nothing. Activation is optional.
B. The computer will work fine for 30 days and then Windows XP will be disabled.
C. Microsoft will not know how to contact you to provide upgrade information.
D. You will have to use a floppy disk set to boot to XP.
B. If you do not complete the activation process for Windows XP, the computer will work fine for 30 days and then Windows XP will be disabled.
12-05 If Windows locks up during the installation, what should you do?

A. Press CfRL-ALT-DEL to restart the installation process.
B. Push the Reset button to restart the installation process.
C. Press the Ese key to cancel the installation process.
D. Unplug the computer and restart the installation process.
D. If Windows locks up during the installation, you should unplug the computer and restart the installation process.
12-06 You can upgrade directly to Windows 2000 from which of these operating systems?

A. Windows 3.11
B. Windows 95
C. Windows Me
D. All of the above
B. You can upgrade directly to Windows 2000 from Windows 95.
12-07 The Windows XP CD-ROM contains which two tools for checking hardware and software compatibility?

A. The HCL and the HAL
B. The HCL and the Windows Catalog
C. The Windows Catalog and the Upgrade Advisor
D. The Upgrade Advisor and the HCL
C. The Windows XP CD-ROM contains the Windows Catalog and the Upgrade Advisor for checking hardware and software compatibility.
12-08 Vhich term describes a combination of many updates and fixes?

A. Hot fix
B. Hotpack
C. Service pack
D. Service release
C. A service pack is a combination of many updates and fixes.
12-09 Which operating system is made freely available under the GNU public license?

A. Linux
B. Mac OSX
C. UNIX
D. Windows 3.1
A. Linux is freely available under the GNU public license.
12-10 If you are experiencing problems with Windows Me and wish to install Windows XP, what type of installation is preferred?

A. Clean install
B. Upgrade install
C. Network install
D. Image install
A. If you are experiencing problems with any OS, a clean install is preferred so you don't migrate the trouble to the new OS.
13-01 Which of the following is an advantage of running Windows 2000 on NTFS as opposed to FAT32? (Select two.)

A. Security
B. Encryption
C. Long filenames
D. FDISK
A, B. NTFS offers security and encryption, two things you don't get with FAT32.
13-02 Which folder permission allows file creation and editing, but not deleting?

A. Full Control
B. Full Access
C. Modify
D. Read & Execute
C. Modify permission enables you to create and edit files, but not delete them.
13-03 What type of files are NTLDR, BOOTINI, and NTDETECT.COM?

A. Boot files
B. System files
C. Starter files
D. NTFS files
B. NTLDR, BOOT.INI, and NTDETECT.COM are the Windows 2000/XP system files.
13-04 What folder is a central storage location for user files?

A. Program Files
B. My Documents
C. My Files
D. My Network Places
B. Most users put files in My Documents.
13-05 Which utility is helpful in troubleshooting hardware?

A. System Properties
B. Device Manager
C. Disk Management
D. Security Center
B. For hardware in general, turn to the Device Manager.
13-06 Which Windows XP utility backs up critical files and settings and enables you to roll back to a previous state?

A. Registry
B. System Restore
C. System Information
D. Microsoft Management Console
B. System Restore does the trick here, enabling you to back up and restore your system.
13-07 Many tech tools are grouped together in which location?

A. Start | All Programs | Tools
B. Start | All Program | Tools | System Tools
C. Start | All Programs | System Tools | Accessories
D. Start | All Programs | Accessories | System Tools
D. You'll find many useful tools in Start | All Programs | Accessories | Tools.
13-08 Which utility is missing from the default Windows XP Home installation?
A. Backup
B. Character Map
C. Computer Management
D. User Accounts
A. Backup is not installed by default in Windows XP Home.
13-09 What is displayed in the My Computer window?

A. All the drives on your system
B. All the Control Panel applets
C. Installed programs
D. Other computers on the network
A. My Computer shows your drives.
13-10 Which Registry root key contains information about file types?

A. HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT
B. HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE
C. HKEY_CURRENT_CONFIG
D. HKEY_USERS
A. You'll find file information in HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT.
14-01 How many 8-bit characters does the ASCII standard define?

A. 64
B. 256
C. 512
D. 64,OOO
B. The ASCII standard has 256 characters, because that's all 8 bits can handle!
14-02 Which of the following is the correct path for a file named YODA.TXT on the C: drive in a directory called JEDI that's in a directory called REBELS that's in the root directory?

A. C:\ROOT\JEDI\YODA.TXT
B. C:\JEDI\REBELS\YODA.TXT
C. C:\REBELS\JEDI\YODA.TXT
D. C:\ROOT\REBELS\JEDI\YODA.TXT
C. You'll find the YODA.TXT file in the C:\REBELS\JEDI\ folder.
14-03 Which of the following commands will delete all the files in a directory?

A. DEL *.*
B. DEL ALL
C. DEL ?.?
D. DEL *.?
A. You can use the *.* wildcard combination to affect every file in a particular folder.
14-04 What command enables you to make a new directory in a Windows XP
Professional system?

A. MF
B. MKFOL
C. MD
D. MAKEDIR
C. MD enables you to make a directory or folder. You can also use the older form of MKDIR.
14-05 What command do you type at the Run dialog box to access the command-line interface in Windows XP?

A. CMD
B. COMMAND
C. MSDOS
D. PROMPT
A. Use the CMD command in the Run dialog box to access a command line in Windows 2000/XP.
14-06 Joey wants to change the name of a file from START.BAT to HAMMER.BAT. Which of the following commands would accomplish this feat?

A. REN HAMMER.BAT START.BAT
B. REN START.BAT HAMMER.BAT
C. RENAME /S START.BAT HAMMER.BAT
D. RENAME /S HAMMER.BAT START.BAT
B. The REN command with the proper syntax - REN START.BAT HAMMER.BAT - will rename the file.
14-07 What types of characters are the asterisk (*) and the question mark (?)?

A. Wildcards
B. Optionals
C. Designators
D. Switches
A. The asterisk and question mark characters are wild cards when used with command-line commands.
14-08 What is the command to make MYFILE.TXT read-only?

A. ATTRIB +R MYFILE.TXT
B. ATTRIB -R MYFILE.TXT
C. READONLY MYFILE.TXT
D. MYFILE.TXT /READ ONLY
A. The command ATTRIB +R MYFILE.TXT will make MYFILE.TXT read-only.
14-09 To learn the syntax of the DIR command, what can you type?

A. HELP DIR
B. DIR /?
C. DIR /HELP
D. Both A and B.
B. To learn the ins and outs of every command-line program, type the command followed by the /? switch.
14-10 What is the command to quit the command-line interface?

A. EXIT
B. BYE
C. QUIT
D. STOP
A. Type EXIT and press the ENTER key to bailout of a command line-interface dialog box in Windows.
15-01 Your Windows XP Professional system fails to boot up. You suspect that the boot sector has become corrupted. You start the system using the set of boot disks and then launch the Recovery Console. Which command should you use to write a new boot sector into the system partition?

A. chkdsk
B. fdisk
C. fixmbr
D. fixboot
D. The Recovery Console command "fixboot" writes a new partition sector to the system partition. The Recovery Console command "chkdsk" runs the CheckDisk utility; "fixmbr" writes a new Master Boot Record for the partition boot sector; "fdisk" is not a valid command for the Recovery
Console.
15-02 Which of the following commands would you use to install the Recovery Console?

A. Start | Run; then type d:\i386\winnt32 /cmdcons
B. Start | Run; then type d:\i386\winnt32 /rc
C. Start | Run; then type d:\i386\winnt32 /cmd:command_line
D. Start | Run; then type d:\i386\winnt32 /copydir:recovery_console
A. Start | Run; then type d:\i386\winnt32 /cmdcons is the correct command to install the Recovery Console.
15-03 Which tool in Windows XP Home would you use to back up your essental system files?

A. System Restore
B. Backup and Recovery Wizard
C. Emergency Repair Disk
D. Recovery Console
A. System Restore is the only tool in Windows XP Home for backing up essential system files.
15-04 Phil tried to install a printer on his Windows XP Professional machine, but found he didn't have permission. What could be the problem? (Select all that apply.)

A. Phil is logged on with a Limited account.
B. Phil is logged on as a Local User.
C. Phil is logged on as a Local Administrator.
D. Phil is logged on as Guest.
A, D. Phil needs to be logged on as an Administrator, not a Limited account or Guest.
15-05 Mary wants to get a quick snapshot of her System Resources on a Windows XP Home machine. How does she get to the appropriate tool?

A. Start | Run | Perfmon.
B. Start | Control Panel | Administrative Tools | Performance.
C. Start | All Programs | Accessories | System Resources.
D. Press CTRL-ALT-DEL once and click the Performance tab.
D. Press CTRL~ALT-DEL once and click the Performance tab.
15-06 What tool should Bill use to track who logs on and off of the busy library terminal for which he is responsible?

A. Event Viewer
B. Performance console
C. System Resource Meter
D. Task Manager
A. Event Viewer is the tool he needs.
15-07 Sven loaded a new video card on his system, but now everything looks very bad. What should he do first?

A. Go to Event Viewer and check the log
B. Go to Device Manager
C. Go to the printed manual
D. Call tech support
B. Always go to Device Manager first when hardware goes wrong.
15-08 Which of the following is a command-line utility?

A. Event Viewer
B. Microsoft Management Console
C. Task Manager
D. Recovery Console
D. The Recovery Console is a command-line utility.
15-09 Which of the following passwords will probably be the most secure one?

A. MaryEllen
B. ME02144
C. M-21e44
D. MikeM
C. The combination of letters, numbers, and non-alphanumeric characters makes M-21e44 the strongest password.
15-10 What's another name for a Windows Stop error?

A. ASR
B. BSOD
C. ERD
D. Virus
B. A Windows Stop error is better known as a Blue Screen of Death.
16-01 A serial port receives and sends serial data. What device translates that data into parallel data for the computer to use?

A. Parallel translator chip
B. Serial translator chip
C. COM chip
D. UART chip
D. The UART handles the serial to parallel and parallel to serial translation.
16-02 What integrated circuit device controls USB devices connected to a USB port?

A. Host controller
B. IC-USB
C. Serial port
D. UART
A. The host controller controls USB devices plugged into the USB bus via a USB port.
16-03 What happens to bus speed and power usage when you plug multiple devices into a USB hub?

A. The bus speed stays constant, but power usage increases.
B. The bus speed increases because each device brings a little burst; power usage increases.
C. The bus speed decreases because all devices share the same total bandwidth; power usage increases.
D. The bus speed decreases because all devices share the same total bandwidth; power usage decreases.
C. The bus speed decreases because all devices share the same total bandwidth; power usage increases.
16-04 Which port type offers the fastest transfer speed?

A. IEEE 1394a
B. IEEE 1394b
C. Full-Speed USB
D. Hi-Speed USB
B. FireWire 800 easily spanks the competition here.
16-05 You take a tech call from a user who complains that she gets an error message, "Hub power exceeded," when she plugs her new thumb drive into her USB keyboard's external USB port. Worse, the device won't work What's most likely the problem?

A. Her USB port is defective.
B. She has a defective thumb drive.
C. She plugged a Hi-Speed device into a Full-Speed port. D. She plugged one too many devices into the USB hub.
D. Just like the error message said, the thumb drive drew too much power for the hub to handle.
16-06 What is the fastest speed that Hi-Speed USB 2.0 can go?

A. 12 Mbps
B. 120 Mbps
C. 400 Mbps
D. 480 Mbps
D. Hi-Speed USB 2.0 has a theoretical maximum of 480 Mbps.
16-07 USB 1.1 devices can run at two speeds. What are the speeds?

A. 1 and 2 Mbps
B. 1.5 and 12 Mbps
C. 1.5 and 15 Mbps
D. 12 and 48 Mbps
B. USB 1.1 devices can run at either 1.5 Mbps or 12 Mbps.
16-08 What's the maximum cable length for USB?

A. 1.2 meters
B. 1.2 yards
C. 5 meters
D. 5 feet
C. USB has a maximum cable length of 5 meters.
16-09 Which of the following mice technologies most needs to be cleaned?

A. Ball
B. Optical
C. Parallel
D. Serial
A. Ball mice get the dirtiest.
16-10 If you attempt to scan an item and the scanner light assembly does not move what is most likely the problem?

A. The scanner is frozen.
B. The scanner is broken.
C. The scanner light assembly is locked.
D. The scanner light assembly is resetting.
C. The scanner light assembly is most likely locked.
17-01 What term refers to the amount of time it takes to draw an entire screen and get the electron guns back to the upper-left corner?

A. Horizontal refresh rate
B. Horizontal redraw rate
C. Vertical refresh rate
D. Vertical redraw rate
C. The vertical refresh rate is the amount of time it takes to draw the entire screen and get the electron guns back to the upper-left corner.
17-02 What does the dot pitch signify about a CRT monitor?

A. The resolution, such as 1024 x 768
B. The sharpness of the picture, such as 0.31 or 0.18
C. The maximum refresh rate, such as 100 Hz
D. The minimum refresh rate, such as GO Hz
B. The dot pitch, measured in millimeters, tells you how fine the screen
will be.
17-03 On an LCD monitor, what is the technology that uses a matrix of wires under colored glass?

A. Active matrix
B. Passive matrix
C. Active TFT
D. Passive TFT
B. Passive matrix technology uses a matrix of wires under colored glass.
17-04 What provides the illumination for LCD monitors?

A. Backlights
B. Inverter
C. Lamp
D. LCD panel
A. The backlights provide the illumination for the LCD panel.
17-05 Which statement best describes the difference, if any, between CRT and LCD
resolution?
A. The CRT has a single native resolution; LCDs have no native resolution
B. The CRT has three native resolutions; LCDs have no native resolution
C. The CRT has no native resolution; LCDs have three native resolutions
D. The CRT has no native resolution; LCDs have a single native resolution
D. The CRT has no native resolution; LCDs have a single native resolution.
17-06 Which typically uses more wattage?

A. CRT
B. DVl
C. LCD
D. VGA
A. CRTs use a lot more wattage than LCDs.
17-07 What is WSXGA+ resolution?

A. 1024 x 768
B. 1280 x 1024
C. 1680 x 1050
D. 1920 x 1080
C. WSXGA+ resolution is 1680 x 1050.
17-08 What is the processor on a video card called?

A. CPU
B. GPU
C. GDDR
D. MPU
B. You'll typically see video card processors referred to as GPUs.
17-09 What Microsoft API supports 3-D graphics?

A. Active Desktop
B. DirectX
C. Glide
D. OpenGL
B. Microsoft makes the DirectX API to support 3-D programs.
17-10 How would you adjust your screen settings?

A. Go to Start | Run and type DISPLAY to open the Display applet.
B. Go to Start | Run and type MSCONFIG to open the Display applet.
C. Go to Start | Control Panel and double-click the Display applet icon.
D. Go to Start | All Programs and select the Display applet icon.
C. The Display applet is part of the Control Panel.
18-01 What refers to the number of characteristics of a particular sound captured when sampling?

A. Sample rate
B. Kilohertz
C. Bit depth
D. Quality rating
C. The bit depth refers to the number of characteristics of a particular sound captured when sampling.
18-02 All recorded sound formats used in PCs today are derived from which format?

A. WAV
B. Fraunhoffer
C. MP3
D. PCM
D. All recorded sound formats used in PCs today are derived from PCM format.
18-03 Which sound format contains no actual sound recording, but only a series of commands stored in a text file for the sound card to interpret?

A. WMA
B. WAV
C. MIDI
D. MP3
C. MIDI files contains no actual sound recording, but only a series of commands stored in a text file for the sound card to interpret.
18-04 How many speakers are in a Dolby Digital 5.1 setup?

A. Five speakers plus a subwoofer
B. Six speakers plus a subwoofer
C. Seven speakers plus a subwoofer
D. Eight speakers plus a subwoofer
A. A Dolby Digital 5.1 setup has five speakers and one subwoofer.
18-05 What is the name of the extensions to the DirectSound3D standard developed by Creative Labs?

A. EAX
B. MP3
C. Positional audio
D. Reverberation
A. Creative Labs developed the EAX presets.
18-06 What is the name of the standard digital connection that replaces many analog connections on some sound cards?

A. CD audio connector
B. AUX connector
C. TAD connector
D. S/PDIF connector
D. The S/PDIF connector can replace analog connections on some sound
cards.
18-07 Which sampling rate would produce the highest quality sound?

A. 8 Hz
B. 8 KHz
C. 128 Hz
D. 128 KHz
D. The bigger the number, the better the quality, so 128 KHz is the king here.
18-08 What must be installed on your system to decode a sound file?

A. The proper codec
B. Sound application software
C. Speakers
D. Universal audio cables
A. You need a proper codec installed to decode a sound file.
18-09 Which of the following are valid audio file formats?

A. ASE, WMA, ASP
B. PCI, MP3, ASX
C. WAV, PCM, AU
D. MID, MPEG, AVI
C. WAV, PCM, and AU are audio file formats.
18-10 Which term describes the stereo speakers in a 2.1 sound system?

A. Woofers
B. Satellites
C. Subwoofers
D. Twins
B. Stereo speakers are called satellites.
19-01 What is the name of the lower level of software drivers that support PC Cards?

A. PCMCIA services
B. Socket services
C. Card services
D. I/O services
B. The lower level of software drivers for PC Cards is known as socket services.
19-02 How many Type III cards can typically fit into a laptop at one time?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
A. Due to their thickness, only one Type III PCMCIA card can fit into a laptop at a time.
19-03 Parallel PC Cards come in __ ,bit and __ ,bit versions. The latter is called CardBus.

A. 8,16
B. 16,32
C. 32, 64
D. 64,128
B. Parallel PC Cards come in 16-bit and 32-bit varieties.
19-04 What is the typical use for Type II PC cards?

A. Additional RAM
B. Hard drives
C. Flash memory
D. I/O devices such as modems and NICs
D. The typical use for Type II PC cards is for I/0 devices such as modems and NICs.
19-05 Which of the following are good ideas when it comes to smart batteries? (Choose all that apply.)

A. Keep the contacts clean by using alcohol and a soft cloth.
B. Store them in the freezer if they will not be used for a long period of time.
C. Toss them in the garbage when they wear out.
D. Store them in a cool, dry place.
A, D. Keeping a battery in the freezer is a good idea in theory, but not in practice. All batteries contain toxic chemicals and should never be treated like regular trash.
19-06 What's the typical input device for a PDA?

A. Keyboard
B. Mouse
C. Stylus
D. Voice
C. PDAs (and tablet PCs) use a stylus for input.
19-07 Tablet PCs come in which of the following form factors? (Select all that apply.)

A. Convertible
B. Desktop
C. Secure Digital
D. Slate
A, D. Tablet PCs come in convertible and slate form factors.
19-08 ExpressCards connect to which buses? (Select all that apply.)

A. ISA
B. PCI
C. PCle
D. Hi-Speed USB
C, D. ExpressCards connect to either the PCI Express or Hi-Speed USB buses.
19-09 Clara's laptop has a DVI connector to which she has connected a projector.
As she prepares to make her presentation, however, nothing comes on the projector screen. The laptop shows the presentation and the projector appears to be functional, with a bright white bulb making a blank image on the screen. What's most likely the problem?

A. She needs to plug in the projector.
B. She's running the laptop on batteries. You need to plug in laptops to use the DVI connector.
C. She needs to update her PC Card services to support projectors.
D. She needs to press the Function key combination on her keyboard to cycle through monitor modes.
D. Clara needs to press the Function key combination on her keyboard to cycle through monitor modes.
19-10 What is the primary benefit to adding more RAM to a laptop that uses shared memory? (Select the best answer.)

A. Improved battery life
B. Improved system performance
C. Improved video performance
D. None. Adding more RAM is pointess with systems that use shared memory.
B. Improved overall system performance is the primary benefit to adding more RAM to a laptop that uses shared memory.
20-01 What mechanism is used by most inkjet printers to push ink onto the paper?

A. Electrostatic discharge
B. Gravity
C. Air pressure
D. Electroconductive plates
D. Most inkjet printers use electroconductive plates to push the ink onto the paper.
20-02 With a laser printer, what creates the image on the photosensitive drum?

A. Primary corona
B. Laser imaging unit
C. Transfer corona
D. Toner
B. The laser imaging unit creates an image on the photosensitive drum.
20-03 What is the proper order of the laser printing process?

A. Clean, charge, write, develop, transfer, and fuse
B. Charge, write, transfer, fuse, develop, and clean
C. Clean, write, develop, transfer, fuse, and charge
D. Clean, charge, write, develop, fuse, and transfer
A. Clean, charge, write, develop, transfer, and fuse is the proper process.
20-04 On a dot-matrix printer, what physically strikes the ribbon to form an image?

A. Electromagnets
B. Printwires
C. Character wheel
D. Print hammers
B. Printwires physically strike the ribbon in dot-matrix printers.
20-05 Which of these items are considered to be dot-matrix printer consumables (Select all that apply.)

A. Drive motor
B. Paper
C. Flywheel
D. Ribbon
B, D. Both paper and ribbons are considered dot-matrix printer consumables.
20-06 What part must be vacuumed or replaced periodically to prevent damage as a result of the action of the corona?
A. The rubber rollers
B. The ozone filter
C. The transfer filter
D. The cleaning blade
B. The ozone filter should be periodically vacuumed or changed.
20-07 Which of the following port types commonly support printers? (Select two.)

A. Parallel
B. USB
C. Infrared
D. RS-232
A, B. You'll find almost all printers hooked up to parallel or USB ports.
20-08 A standalone printer will print a test page just fine, but it makes gobbledygook out of your term paper. What's probably wrong?

A. Out of toner
B. Fuser error
C. Printer interface
D. Faulty software configuration
D. The application (software) that is trying to print is probably configured incorrectly.
20-09 What printing process uses heat sensitive plastic files embedded with various color dyes?

A. Dye-sublimation
B. Inkjet
C. Ink-dispersion
D. Dye-dispersion
A. Dye-sublimation printers use heat sensitive plastic files embedded with various color dyes.
20-10 Which tool would help you determine why a print job didn't print?

A. Printer driver
B. Printer setup
C. Print spooler
D. System setup
C. The print spooler can help you determine why a print job didn't print.
21-01 To provide a computer with a physical and electronic connection to a network, what must be installed?

A. A hub
B. A router
C. A NIC
D. A bridge
C. A system must have a NIC to participate in any type of network.
21-02 Which of the following is needed to configure a PnP NIC in a Windows XP system?

A. CMOS
B. Configuration software
C. Device driver
D. DMA
C. PnP only requires the proper driver.
21-03 How far apart can two PCs that share the same 100BaseT switch be placed?

A. 100 meters
B. 200 meters
C. 330 meters
D. 1000 meters
B. Each system can be 100 meters from the switch, so any two systems can be up to 200 meters apart.
21-04 Under ideal conditions, the 802.11g standard supports data throughput of up to ---- and has a range of up to ----.

A. 11 Mbps/150 feet
B. 11 Mbps/300 feet
C. 54 Mbps/150 feet
D. 54 Mbps/300 feet
B. Under ideal conditions, the 802.11g standard supports data throughput of up to 11 Mbps and has a range of up to 300 feet.
21-05 What is the minimum speciflcation of cable types for 100BaseT networks?

A. CAT 2
B. CAT 3
C. CAT 4
D. CAT 5
D. 100BaseT requires CAT 5 rated cabling.
21-06 Joe needs to network two computers in his office together using an Ethernet
peer-to-peer connection. What kind of cable does he need?

A. CAT-5
B. Crossover
C. UTP
D. STP
B. Joe needs a crossover cable to network two computers in his office together using an Ethernet peer-to-peer connection.
21-07 What are the two TIA/EIA standards for connecting an RJ-45 connector to UTP cable?

A. 10BaseTjlOOBaseT
B. CAT5/CAT5e
C. RG-58/RG-59
D. 568A/568B
D. The TIA/EIA has two standards for connecting the RJ-45 connector to the UTP cable: TIA/EIA 568A and TIA/EIA 568B.
21-08 Steven's Windows XP system can't connect to the Internet, and he comes to
you, his PC tech, for help. You flgure out that it's a DHCP problem. what program should you run to get him a new DHCP lease?

A. IPCONFlG
B. WINIPCFG
C. CONFlG
D. DHCP /RENEW
A. You should run IPCONFIG to get a new DHCP lease for Steven's Windows XP system. WINIPCFG was the program used by Windows 9x for this task.
RENEW is a valid switch for both programs, but not for CONFIG.
21-09 Which encryption protocol offers the best security?

A. Hi-Encrypt
B. WEP
C. WPA
D. WPA2
D. WPA2 is the best of the encryption technologies listed.
21-10 Bluetooth technology enables computers to link into what sort of network?

A. Bluetooth area network (BAN)
B. Personal area network (PAN)
C. Local area network (LAN)
D. Wide area network (WAN)
B. Bluetooth creates personal area networks.
22-01 Of the four Internet connection options listed below, which typically offers the slowest connection speed?

A. Cable
B. Dial-up
C. DSL
D. Satellite
B. Dial-up connections are robust and widely-available, but slower than the newer connection types.
22-02 Which of the following technologies use dial-up connections? (Select all that apply.)

A. Cable modem
B. DSL receiver
C. ISDNTA
D. Modem
C, D. ISDN terminal adapters and traditional modems use dial-up for connecting to the Internet.
22-03 What advantages does dial-up have over DSL?

A. Dial-up is faster than DSL
B. You can be farther than 18,000 feet from a main phone service switching center.
C. You can get a second phone line to use just for dial-up. D. None. Dial-up has no advantages over DSL.
B. DSL has a fairly short limit of 18,000 feet from a main switch, leaving people in rural areas (in the U.S., at least) out of luck. Dial-up just requires a phone line.
22-04. Which protocol can you use to send e-mail?

A. IMAP
B. POP3
C. PPP
D. SMTP
D. You can use SMTP to send e-mail messages.
22-05 Which protocols can you use to receive e-mail? (Select all that apply.)

A. IMAP
B. POP3
C. PPP
D. SMTP
A, B. You can use either IMAP or POP3 to receive e-mail messages.
22-06 What advantage does satellite have over cable for connecting to the Internet?

A. Satellite is faster than cable.
B. Cable degrades in stormy weather; satellite does not.
C. Satellite requires you to be within 18,000 feet of a central switch.
D. Cable is limited to areas with cable installed; satellite is not.
D. Clearly, satellite cuts you loose from the wires!
22-07 Which Microsoft technology enables you to share a single Internet connection with multiple computers?

A. Internet Connection Sharing
B. My Network Places
C. Remote Access
D. Remote Desktop
A. Internet Connection Sharing enables you to share a single Internet connection with multiple computers.
22-08 What command often enables you to diagnose TCP/IP errors such as connection problems?

A. FTP
B. Ping
C. POP3
D. VoIP
B. You can often use the ping command to diagnose TCP/IP problems.
22-09 At what layer of the OSI seven-layer model do proxy servers operate?

A. Layer 1-Physical
B. Layer 2-Data Link
C. Layer 6-Presentation
D. Layer 7-Application
D. Proxy servers operate at Layer 7-the Application layer.
22-10 Which of the following programs enable you to access and work on a remote computer from your local computer?
(Select all that apply.)

A. FTP
B. Internet Connection Sharing
C. Remote Desktop
D. Telnet
A, D. Both Telnet and Remote Desktop enable you to access and work on a remote computer. The latter is just prettier!
23-01 Which of the following would you select if you need to back up an Active Directory server?

A. Registry
B. System state data
C. My Computer
D. My Server
B. Backing up the system state data gets the Registry, Active Directory files, and more.
23-02 Johan migrated his server data to a bigger, faster hard drive. At the end of the process, he partitioned and formatted the older hard drive before removing it to donate to charity. How secure is his company's data?

A. Completely secured. The drive is blank after partitioning and formatting.
B. Mostly secured. Only super skilled professionals have the tools to recover data after partitioning and formatting.
C. Very unsecured. Simple software tools can recover a lot of data, even after partitioning and formatting.
D. Completely unsecured. The data on the drive will show up in the Recycle Bin as soon as someone installs it on a system.
C. Although it would take a little work, simple software tools can recover a lot of data, even after partitioning and formatting.
23-03 What is the process of using or manipulating people to gain access to network resources?

A. Cracking
B. Hacking
C. Network engineering
D. Social engineering
D. Social engineering is the process of using or manipulating people to gain access to network resources.
23-04 Which of the following might offer good hardware authentication?

A. Strong passwords
B. Encrypted passwords
C. NTFS
D. Smart cards
D. Smart cards are an example of hardware authentication devices.
23-05 Randall needs to change the file system on his second hard drive (currently the D: drive) from FAT32 to NTFS. Which of the following commands would do the trick?

A. CONVERT D: /FS:NTFS
B. CONVERT D: NTFS
C. CONVERT /FS:NTFS D:
D. CONVERT NTFS D:
A. Use the following command to convert from FAT32 to NTFS:
CONVERT D: /FS:NTFS
23-06 Which of the following tools would enable you to stop a user from logging on to a local machine, but still enable him to log on to the domain?

A. AD Policy
B. Group Policy
C. Local Security Settings
D. User Settings
C. Local Security Settings enable you stop someone from logging on to a local machine.
23-07 Which type of encryption offers the most security?

A. MS-CHAP
B. PAP
C. POP3
D. SMTP
A. Of the choices here, MS-CHAP offers the most security.
23-08 Zander downloaded a game off the Internet and installed it, but as soon as he started to play he got a blue screen of death. Upon rebooting, he discovered that his My Documents folder had been erased. What happened?

A. He installed spyware.
B. He installed a Trojan.
C. He broke the Group Policy.
D. He broke the Local Security Settings.
B. Zander clearly installed a Trojan, a virus masquerading as a game.
23-09 Which of the following should Mary set up on her Wi-Fi router to make it the most secure?

A. NTFS
B. WEP
C. WPA
D. WPA2
D. Mary should set up WPA2 on her Wi-Fi router.
23-10 What tool would you use to enable auditing on a local level?

A. AD Policy
B. Group Policy
C. Local Security Settings
D. User Settings
C. You can enable local auditing through Local Security Settings.
24-01 While troubleshooting a fairly routine printing problem, the customer explains in great detail precisely what he was trying to do, what happened when he tried to print, and what he attempted as a fix for the problem. At what point should you interrupt him?

A. After he describes the first problem
B. As soon as you understand the problem
C. As soon as you have a solution
D. Never
D. Don't interrupt customers. Let them tell you what's happening and then ask questions.
24-02 While manning the help desk, you get a call from a distraught user who says she has a blank screen. What would be a useful follow-up question? (Select two.)

A. Is the computer turned on?
B. Is the monitor turned on?
C. Did you reboot?
D. What did you do?
A, B. Go for the simple answer first. When faced with a blank screen, check to see if the computer and the monitor are on.
24-03 While manning the help desk, you get a call from Sharon in accounting. She's lost a file that she knows she saved to her hard drive. Which of the following statements would direct Sharon to open her My Documents folder in the most efficient and professional manner?
A. Sharon, check My Documents.
B. Sharon, a lot of programs save files to a default folder, often to a folder called My Documents. Let's look there first. Click the Start button and move the mouse until the cursor hovers over My Documents. Then click the left mouse button and tell me what you see when My Documents opens.
C. Probably just defaulted to My Docs. Why don't you open Excel or whatever program you used to make the file, and then open a document and point it to My Documents.
D. Look Sharon, I know you're clueless when it comes to computers, but how could somebody lose a file? Just open up My Documents, and look there for the file.
B. Walking customers through the path to a fix, using simple, nontechnical words, is the best way to accomplish tasks over the phone.
24-04 What tool should be in every technician's toolkit?

A. Pliers
B. Hammer
C. Straight-slot screwdriver D. Phillips-head screwdriver
D. Every tech's toolkit should have a Phillips-head screwdriver, at the very least.
24-05 When is it appropriate to yell at a user?

A. When he screws up the second time
B. When he interrupts your troubleshooting
C. When he screws up the fifth time
D. Never
D. Don't get angry or yell at clients!
24-06 Al in marketing calls for tech support, complaining that he has a dead PC.
What is a good first question or questions to begin troubleshooting the
problem?

A. Did the computer ever work?
B. When did the computer last work?
C. When you say "dead," what do you mean? What happens when you press the power button?
D. What did you do?
C. Asking for clarification is a good first step. This is a tough call because A and B are obviously useful questions that will probably be the second and third questions you ask!
24-07 While manning the help desk, you get a call from Bryce in Sales complaining that he can't print and every time he clicks on the network shared drive, his computer freezes. He says he thinks it's his hard driver. What would be a good follow-up question or statement?

A. Bryce, you're an idiot. Don't touch anything. I'll be there in five minutes.
B. Okay, let's take this one step at a time. You seem to have two problems, one with printing and the second with the network shared drive, right?
C. First, it's not a hard driver, but a hard drive. It doesn't have anything to do with the network share or printing, so that's just not right.
D. When could you last print?
B. Similar to question 6, asking for clarification and stating the problem as you heard it are good follow-up options.
24-08 When troubleshooting a software problem on Phoebe's computer and listening to her describe the problem, your beeper goes off. It's your boss. Which of the following is the most appropriate action for you to take?

A. Excuse yourself, walk out of the cube, and use a cell phone to call your boss.
B. Pick up Phoebe's phone and dial your boss' number.
C. Wait until Phoebe finishes her description and then ask to use her phone to call your boss.
D. Wait until Phoebe finishes her description and run through any simple fixes; then explain that you need to call your boss on your cell phone.
D. Focus on the customer and don't use her things!
24-09 You've just installed new printer drivers into Roland's computer for the big networked laser printer. What should you do to complete the assignment?

A. Document that you installed new printer drivers.
B. Tell Roland to print a test page.
C. Print a test page and go to the printer to verify the results.
D. Print a test page and go to the printer to verify the results. Document that you installed new printer drivers successfully.
D. Always verify the results once you finish troubleshooting. Then document what you accomplished.
24-10 What's an FRU?

A. Foreign replacement unit-a cheaper part to replace an expensive American-made part
B. Field replacement unit-a known good computer part to swap with a suspect part as part of the troubleshooting process
C. Free repair unit-a gimmick used by some companies to provide free tech support for the first time customer
D. Short for FRU Linux, a Linux distribution
B. A field replacement unit is a known good computer part.