85 Board I Questions

Front 1

The fiber group in the periodontal ligament that constitutes the main support of the tooth against masticatory forces is the

Back 1

oblique

Front 2

Nonarticular surfaces of the temporomandibular joint are covered with

Back 2

periosteum

Front 3

The epithelial root sheath (Hertwig) is essential to development of the root of a tooth because it

Back 3

molds the shape of the root and stimulates differentiation of odontoblasts.

Front 4

In skeletal muscle, a triad consists of

Back 4

terminal cisternae and a fingerlike invagination of the sarcolemma.

Front 5

sarcolemma

Back 5

the thin transparent homogeneous sheath enclosing a striated muscle fiber

Front 6

Which of the following adult salivary glands are entirely serous?

Back 6

Ebner's and parotid

Front 7

The alternate loosening and tightening of a primary tooth that is about to be shed results from

Back 7

alternate resorption and apposition of cementurn and bone.

Front 8

Of the structures seen on a ground section of a permanent lateral incisor, which of the following was formed first?

Back 8

Enamel spindle

Front 9

Perikymata

Back 9

minute transverse ridges on the surface of the enamel of a tooth which correspond to the incremental lines of Retzius

Front 10

Colloid in the usual thyroid follicle stains

Back 10

acidophilic

Front 11

The normoblast is a developmental stage of the

Back 11

erythrocyte

Front 12

Which of the following has no lymph sinuses and is surrounded partly by connective tissue and partly by epithelium, the latter forming deep infoldings?

Back 12

pharyngeal tonsil

Front 13

In a relaxed state, transitional epithelium can be distinguished from stratified squamous epithelium because transitional epithelium contains

Back 13

dome-shaped superficial cells

Front 14

The free gingival groove is related to the

Back 14

arrangement of supraalveolar fibers

Front 15

Which of the following layers is totally lacking in thin skin?

Back 15

Stratum lucidum

Front 16

Gingiva is different from alveolar mucosa in that gingiva has

Back 16

high connective tissue papillae

Front 17

Cyclic DNA has been found in or associated with which of the following organelles?

Back 17

mitochondria

Front 18

Bifid tongue is a result of lack of fusion of the

Back 18

lateral swellings

Front 19

Schwann's cells arise from

Back 19

neural crest cells

Front 20

Inorganic crystals in enamel have their long axes parallel to the rods in the

Back 20

bodies of the rods and deviating increasingly in the tails.

Front 21

The spheno-occipital synchondrosis in the midline of the cranial base of a newborn consists of

Back 21

hyaline cartilage

Front 22

The papillary layer of the dermis differs from the reticular layer in that the papillary layer

Back 22

is more finely constructed, whereas the reticular layer contains coarser collagenous fibers as a component

Front 23

The oral mucosa of the cheek differs from the skin covering the outer surface of the lip by possessing

Back 23

a stratified, squamous, nonkeratinized. epithelium with a thinner lamina propria

Front 24

Long bones of the skeleton increase in length because of

Back 24

interstitial growth in the cartilaginous epiphyseal plate.

Front 25

Polymerization of amino acids to form procollagen filaments occurs

Back 25

in the golgi apparatus

Front 26

In salivary glands, folds of the basal portion of the cell membrane containing mitochondria are characteristic of the

Back 26

cells of the striated ducts

Front 27

During growth of the mandible, resting lines are seen in the cortical bone. This phenomenon is a result of

Back 27

bone apposition

Front 28

Multiple root formation in a tooth follows unequal proliferation of the

Back 28

epithelial diaphragm

Front 29

In which of the following glands is the blood supply most isolated from the parenchyma?

Back 29

Thymus

Front 30

A lymph node is characterized by

Back 30

containing medullary cords

Front 31

The component of bone tissue that gives bone tensile strength is the

Back 31

collagenous fibrils of matrix

Front 32

Articular surfaces of most diarthrodial joints are covered by

Back 32

hyaline cartilage

Front 33

Blood vessels in interdental papillae anastomose freely with

Back 33

both periodontal and intraalveolar vessels.

Front 34

Maxillary teeth are developed from which of the following embryonic structures

Back 34

Arch I, Globular process

Front 35

The fate of the epithelial rests of Malassez is that they may

Back 35

undergo calcification; (b) form into cementicles

Front 36

All of the following structures are concerned with development of the tongue

Back 36

copula.tuberculum impar.
second branchial arch.
third branchial arch.

Front 37

The artery most commonly involved in stroke is the

Back 37

lenticulostriate

Front 38

Which of the following structures may be found within the posterior mediastinum

Back 38

Thoracic duct

Front 39

The arterial supply of the submandibular gland is from which branch of the external carotid artery?

Back 39

Facial

Front 40

Which of the following structures crosses the masseter muscle and pierces the buccinator muscle?

Back 40

Parotid duct

Front 41

Which of the following arteries is most concerned with the blood supply to the upper lip?

Back 41

facial

Front 42

The middle cranial fossa is separated from the posterior cranial fossa primarily by the

Back 42

petrous part of the temporal bone

Front 43

The middle cerebral artery is distributed on the

Back 43

lateral surface of the cerebral hemisphere

Front 44

The sphenomandibular ligament is attached to the

Back 44

spine of the sphenoid bone and lingula of the mandible

Front 45

After exertion, an athlete is puffing. Which of the following paired muscles helps maintain a wide airway through the larynx?

Back 45

Posterior cricoarytenoid

Front 46

The greater peritoneal sac communicates with the lesser peritoneal sac by means of the

Back 46

epiploic foramen

Front 47

The circulatory system of a near-term fetus differs from that of an adult in that, in the fetus, the

Back 47

foramen ovale allows blood to pass primarily from the right atrium to the left atrium.

Front 48

In an adult, cerebrospinal fluid can be aspirated most safely by inserting the needle between third and fourth lumbar vertebrae because

Back 48

the spinal cord does not extend below lumbar 2.

Front 49

The upper five or six anterior intercostal arteries are branches of the

Back 49

internal thoracic arteries

Front 50

Infections or neoplasms that spread by lymphatics from the skin of the angle of the mouth pass to the

Back 50

submandibular nodes

Front 51

To expose the submandibular duct by an intraoral approach, one must cut through

Back 51

mucous membrane only.

Front 52

The pterygoid plexus and its tributaries are the venous parallel of the

Back 52

maxillary artery.

Front 53

Which of the following is found in the curve of the duodenum?

Back 53

Head of the pancreas

Front 54

Which of the following articulate directly with the body of the sternum

Back 54

Manubrium, Xiphoid process

Front 55

Ligamentous remnants of the fetal circulatory system persisting in the adult include

Back 55

ligamentum venosum, ligamentum arteriosum, ligamentum teres of the liver

Front 56

Which of the following structures of the infratemporal fossa is found between medial and lateral pterygoid muscles

Back 56

Lingual nerve
inferior alveolar nerve
Inferior alveolar artery

Front 57

Which of the following structures of the infratemporal fossa is NOT found between medial and lateral pterygoid muscles

Back 57

Nerve to the masseter muscle

Front 58

All of the following structures lie superficial to the hyoglossus muscle EXCEPT the

Back 58

lingual artery

Front 59

All of the following structures lie superficial to the hyoglossus muscle

Back 59

lingual nerve,hypoglossal nerve.
submandibular duct

Front 60

The km value of an enzyme is numerically equal to

Back 60

substrate concentration in moles/liter necessary to achieve half the maximum velocity of a reaction

Front 61

The ketone body acetoacetate is synthesized inside mitochondria of hepatocytes by

Back 61

cleavage of B-hydroxy-B-methylglutaryl CoA.

Front 62

Human parotid saliva is believed to be hyposmolar because

Back 62

reabsorption of water by striated duct cells is less than reabsorption of sodium.

Front 63

Two atoms are considered isotopic if

Back 63

their atomic numbers are the same, but their mass numbers differ.

Front 64

A deficiency of vitamin A in a developing tooth most likely affects the

Back 64

enamel.

Front 65

With glutamic acid as an amino group donor, alanine can be synthesized directly from which of the following acids

Back 65

Pyruvic acid

Front 66

The most abundant form of iron in human blood plasma is found

Back 66

associated with transferrin.

Front 67

DNA damage by ultraviolet light is due to

Back 67

induction of dimerization by way of covalent bonds between adjacent thymine groups.

Front 68

Sucrose is a glycoside of which of the following structures?

Back 68

a-D-glucopyranosido-B-D-fructofuranoside

Front 69

Which of the following is a function of vitamin B6 (pyridoxal phosphate)?

Back 69

Acts as coenzyme in transamination reactions

Front 70

The two chains of double stranded DNA are so arranged that

Back 70

hydrophobic aromatic nitrogen bases are held close to each other.

Front 71

Which of the following enzymes catalyzes the formation of uric acid from purines

Back 71

Xanthine oxidase

Front 72

Carbon dioxide or bicarbonate is required in the biosynthesis of fatty acids because

Back 72

carbon dioxide is incorporated into acetyl coenzyme A forming malonyl coenzyme A, an intermediate in the synthetic process.

Front 73

Which of the following statements is true concerning fatty acid synthesis and fatty acid breakdown?

Back 73

Both require phosphopantothenic acid.

Front 74

Which of the following is true of the Tm (melting temperature) of a given DNA double helix?

Back 74

Is a function of the base composition

Front 75

Which of the following tissues is primarily responsible for formation of urea?

Back 75

Liver

Front 76

Hydroxylation of proline and lysine during collagen biosynthesis occurs

Back 76

after translation

Front 77

Which of the following is most likely to promote depolymerization of the ground substance?

Back 77

Hyaluronidase

Front 78

Prostaglandins are made within cells

Back 78

from polyunsaturated fatty acids

Front 79

Some amino acids need not be present in the diet of an animal because of the animal's ability to synthesize the acids at an adequate rate. A principal source of carbon for these amino acids is

Back 79

metabolism of carbohydrates

Front 80

Muscle glycogen phosphorylase is activated by

Back 80

epinephrine

Front 81

The amino acid composition of mammalian collagen (Type 1) is characterized by the presence of

Back 81

hydroxyproline and hydroxylysine; (c) no sulfur-containing amino acids; (d) glycine, as nearly one-third the total number of amino acid residues

Front 82

Which of the following molecules is NOT part of the mammalian cell membrane

Back 82

Endotoxin

Front 83

Which of the following hormones does NOT induce activation of adenylate cyclase?

Back 83

Insulin

Front 84

Which of the following is least soluble in solutions with low pH?

Back 84

Fluorapatite

Front 85

Which of the following compounds does contain a high-energy bond

Back 85

ATP
Acetyl CoA
UDP-glucose Phosphoenolypyruvate

Front 86

Which of the following compounds does NOT contain a high-energy bond?

Back 86

Glucose-6-phosphate

Front 87

Glutamate dehydrogenase can catalyze the formation of glutamate from ammonia and alpha-ketoglutarate using NADPH as a cofactor.

Back 87

NH+, is formed from glutamine in the kidney.

Front 88

Which of the following statements is NOT true concerning fluoride?

Back 88

It occurs only in the ionic form in plasma.

Front 89

Which of the following statements true concerning fluoride?

Back 89

It is excreted rapidly by the kidney.
It is deposited in calcified tissuesIt passes the placental barrier relatively slowly.
At 1 ppm. in water, it is tasteless, odorless and colorless.

Front 90

An impulse can travel from one nerve to another in only one direction because the

Back 90

synapse limits the direction of travel

Front 91

Which of the following is the major contributor to colloid osmotic pressure

Back 91

albumin

Front 92

The dominant factor controlling absorption of iron from the gastrointestinal tract is

Back 92

saturation of mucosal cells with iron.

Front 93

Where is norepinephrine stored

Back 93

At postganglionic sympathetic nerve endings

Front 94

The main control over body temperature, located in a portion of the central nervous system, is the

Back 94

hypothalamus.

Front 95

The second heart sound is related to

Back 95

closure of aortic valves

Front 96

The major center in the brain for autonomic nervous system regulation is the

Back 96

hypothalamus.

Front 97

In the absence of compensatory changes, a drop in blood pressure results from

Back 97

decreased venous return

Front 98

The most likely cause of an increase in filtration fraction is

Back 98

efferent arteriolar constriction

Front 99

A deficiency of rhodopsin is most likely caused by decreased dietary intake of

Back 99

vitamin A.

Front 100

rho·dop·sin

Back 100

important in vision in dim light

Front 101

The primary effect of calcitonin is to

Back 101

inhibit bone resorption

Front 102

The belief that the secretion of saliva is an active process is supported by the observation that

Back 102

secretion continues even when the pressure within the salivary duct is higher than the blood pressure

Front 103

The process by which extensor muscles acting at a particular joint are inhibited by stretch of the flexor muscle acting at the same joint is

Back 103

reciprocal inhibition

Front 104

Any substance that is filtered by glomeruli and secreted, but not reabsorbed, by renal tubules will have a renal clearance that is

Back 104

greater than the clearance of inulin (a diagnostic agent in a test for kidney function)

Front 105

geniohyoid muscle on top of

Back 105

mylohyoid ms

Front 106

sublingual gland on top of

Back 106

mylohyoid and geniohyoid ms

Front 107

majority of submandibular gland beneath

Back 107

mylohyoid ms

Front 108

hyoglossus on top of

Back 108

mylohyoid ms