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396 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Where are the landing, runway turnoff, and taxi light switches?
Lower edge of forward overhead panel, Captain's side
Where are the position, anti-collision, wing, wheel well light switches?
Forward Overhead panel, lower edge, F/O side
Where is the dome light switch?
Aft overhead panel
Turning the EMER EXIT LIGHTS switch to OFF does what?
Prevents emergency lights system operation if airplane electrical power fails or is turned off
Turning the EMER EXIT LIGHTS switch to ARMED does what?
All emergency lights illuminate automatically if: Airplane electrical power fails, or AC Power is turned off
Turning the EMER EXIT LIGHTS switch to ON does what?
All emergency lights illuminate
The emergency exit lights may be illuminated by a switch on the [xxxxx], which will [xxxxx] the flight deck control.
Aft attendant's panel, override
How many emergency exits are there and where?
10 (Two passenger entry doors, two service doors, two flight deck windows, four overwing exits)
Which exit cannot be opened from outside?
Captain's window
Where are the indicators for open entry, service, equip, overwing, and cargo doors?
Forward overhead panel
If a door is unlocked or opened, what are the indications?
Associated indicator light, Doors annunciator light, and MASTER CAUTION
What is the minimum recommended pavement width for a 180 degree turn (737-800)?
79 feet
What does the overwing exit flight lock system do?
Ensures that flight locks will automatically lock during takeoff, inflight, and landing and unlock on the ground
How many life vests on the flight deck?
3
How many oxygen masks on the flight deck?
3
Name the type and quantity of emergency equipment on the flight deck:
3 life vests, 1 fire extinguisher, 1 PBE, 1 ELT, 1 crash axe, 3 O2 masks
Where are the PASS OXYGEN system controls?
Aft Overhead Panel (center)
What does placing the PASS OXYGEN switch in NORMAL do?
Masks drop and system activates automatically if cabin altitude >14k'
What does placing the PASS OXYGEN switch in ON do?
Activates system and drops mask
What are indications that PASS OXYGEN system is activated?
PASS OXY ON light, OVERHEAD annunciator, MASTER CAUTION
How long does PASS OXYGEN system flow?
Approximately 12 minutes, cannot be shut off, individual systems at each station
What does the BLEED TRIP OFF light indicate?
Excessive engine bleed air temperature or pressure. Related engine bleed air valve closes automatically and must be reset to function.
How do you regulate cabin temperature?
Putting selector in AUTO provides automatic temperature control for the associated zone, while rotating toward C (cool) or W (warm) manually sets the desired temperature.
If you rotate the cabin temperature selector to OFF, what happens?
Associated trim modulating valve closes.
Placing the ISOLATION VALVE switch to CLOSE does what?
Closes isolation valve.
What will be the position of the Isolation valve if the ISOLATION VALVE switch is placed in AUTO and either engine BLEED air, or AC PACK switch is positioned to OFF?
OPEN
What will be the position of the Isolation valve if the ISOLATION VALVE switch is placed in AUTO, both engine BLEED air switches are ON, and both PACK switches are AUTO or HIGH?
CLOSED
What will be the position of the Isolation valve if the ISOLATION VALVE switch is placed in AUTO, engine 1 BLEED air switch is in ON, engine 2 BLEED air switch is OFF, and both PACK switches are AUTO?
OPEN
What is the position of the isolation valve if any of the four “corner switches” are off, and the ISOLATION VALVE is in AUTO?
OPEN
What does pushing the TRIP RESET switch do?
If fault correction is corrected: 1) Resets BLEED TRIP OFF, PACK, and ZONE TEMP lights, 2) Opens related bleed valve or pack valve, 3) lights remain illuminated until reset
How is an alert provided if an overtemperature occurs in the E&E bay?
Crew call horn in nose wheel well
How is pressurization system controlled with Pressurization mode swith in AUTO?
Automatically
How is pressurization system controlled with Pressurization mode swith in ALTN?
Using the ALTN controller
How is pressurization system controlled with Pressurization mode swith in MAN?
Manually by outflow valve switch – both auto controllers are bypassed
Putting the pressurization system in ______ bypasses both automatic controllers.
MAN
At what altitude will the cabin altitude warning horn sound?
10,000 feet
How do you silence the cabin altitude warning sound?
Push the ALT HORN CUTOUT switch
What does an illuminated left WING-BODY OVERHEAT light indicate?
Overheat from bleed air duct leak in left engine strut, left inboard wing leading edge, left air conditioning bay, keel beam, or APU bleed air duct.
What does an illuminated right WING-BODY OVERHEAT light indicate?
Overheat from bleed air duct leak in right engine strut, right inboard wing leading edge, or right air conditioning bay.
An overheat in the keel beam or APU bleed air duct will illuminate what light?
Left WING-BODY OVERHEAT
Selecting SUPPLY DUCT on the AIR TEMP Source Selector will do what?
Selects and displays appropriate zone supply duct temperature
Selecting PASS CAB on the AIR TEMP Source Selector will do what?
Selects and displays forward or aft passenger cabin temperature
Selecting PACK on the AIR TEMP Source Selector will do what?
Selects and displays left or right Pack temperatures
What has happened if the left or right PACK light illuminates?
Pack trip off or failure of both primary and standby pack controls for the associated pack.
During MASTER CAUTION recall, illumination of the left PACK light indicates what?
Failure of either the primary or standby pack control. Light will extinguish when MASTER CAUTION is reset.
The CONT CAB light illuminates to indicate what?
Duct temperature overheat or failure of the flight deck primary and standby temperature control.
The FWD CAB or AFT CAB light illuminates to indicate:
Duct temperature overheat
During MASTER CAUTION recall, CONT CAB indicates:
Failure of the flight deck primary or standby temperature control
How can you check if only the primary or the standby temperature control in the flight deck have failed?
Perform a MASTER CAUTION reset. If CONT CAB illuminates, one of the controls has failed.
Explain the meaning of an illuminated OFF SCHED DESCENT light:
The airplane has descended before reaching the planned cruise altitude set in the FLT ALT indicator.
If you descend before reaching the planned cruise altitude set in the FLT ALT indicator, what will happen?
OFF SCHED DESCENT light will illuminate.
If a flight is aborted in climb and returns to the takeoff airport, will the OFF SCHED DESCENT light illuminate?
No, unless the FLT ALT indicator is changed.
Turning the TRIM AIR switch to OFF or ON regulates which control?
The trim air pressure regulating and shutoff valve
What does the RECIRC FAN do?
Reduces air conditioning system pack load and engine bleed air demand.
The RECIRC FAN draws air from the[xxxxx] and [xxxxx] to the [xxxxx], where it is filtered and re-circulated to the [xxxxx].
Passenger cabin, electrical equipment bay, forward cargo bay, Mix manifold
An illuminated Equipment Cooling Supply (Exhaust) light indicates:
No airflow from selected cooling supply (exhaust) fan.
What indicates that you have configured the air panel in a way that it would be possible to back pressure the APU?
DUAL BLEED Light
The DUAL BLEED light observes the APU Bleed [xxxxx] and the Engine Bleed Air [xxxxx].
Valve, Switches
Turning the engine and/or APU BLEED Air switches ON will open the associated bleed air valves if [xxxxx].
The associated engine/APU is operating
To command maximum flow rate to the pack on the ground, you must:
Turn PACK and APU BLEED switch ON.
Placing the WINDOW HEAT Test switch to OVHT does what?
Simulates an overheat condition.
Placing the WINDOW HEAT Test switch in PWR TEST does what?
Provides confidence test to verify operation of system.
To provide a confidence test to verify operation of the window heat system, place the WINDOW HEAT switch in:
PWR TEST
Which equipment is electrically heated with the PROBE HEAT switches ON?
Pitot probes, TAT probe, Alpha vanes
Which equipment is NOT heated on the ground unless the TAT Test switch is pushed?
TAT probe
Which pitot-static items are NOT heated?
Static ports
A bright wing or engine anti-ice light indicates what?
Related valve in transit, or valve position disagrees with switch
A dim wing or engine anti-ice light indicates what?
Related valve is open
Under which two conditions will the OVERHEAT light on the window heat panel illuminate?
1) overheat, 2) electrical power to window(s) interrupted
The PROBE HEAT light indicates [xxxxx]
The related probe is NOT heated.
If operating on standby power, probe heat lights...
...do not indicate system status
Illumination of the COWL ANTI-ICE light indicates...
...overpressure condition in duct downstream of cowl anti-ice valve
Does COWL ANTI-ICE light indicate an overheat?
No
Engine anti-ice heats what portion of the engine?
Engine cowl lip
What indications do you have that engine anti-ice is in use?
Green “TAI” is displayed above N1 digital display
What does an amber “TAI” indication above the N1 display indicate?
Cowl anti-ice valve is not in commanded position
What happens during takeoff if wing anti-ice is in use?
Control valves close if either engine thrust is above takeoff warning setting, or thermal switch is activated in either duct. Switch remains on. At liftoff, switch trips to OFF.
If both A/Ps are engaged, which FCC is the master?
The first in CMD, regardless of which F/D is turned on first.
Which FCC is the master with neither A/P on?
The first F/D turned on.
If both Flight Directors have the MA light on, what does this mean?
Independent F/D operation
Which roll modes are affected by bank angle selector?
HDG SEL, VOR
Moving the Autothrottle (A/T) ARM switch to ARM arms the A/T for engagement in which modes?
N1, LVL CHG, VNAV, V/S, ALT HLD, and TO/GA
How do you disengage A/T?
Move A/T ARM switch to OFF, or push either A/T Disngage Switch
How may A/T automatically disengage?
1) 2 sec after landing, 2) 10 degree thrust lever separation (except during t/o), 3) significant thrust difference accompanied by control wheel roll input of 10 degrees or more
What does a green indication in the FMA represent?
Engaged or Captured mode
What does a green box in the FMA indicate?
Mode change. Lasts for 10 seconds after mode engagement
What does white text in the FMA indicate?
Armed modes for each axis.
What does CMD displayed above the attitude indicator mean?
One or both autopilots engaged
What does FD displayed above the attitude indicator mean?
Flight Director is ON, and autopilot either OFF or engaged in CWS
What does CWS P displayed above the attitude indicator mean?
Pitch mode engaged in CWS
What does CWS R displayed above the attitude indicator mean?
Roll mode engaged in CWS
What does SINGLE CH (Amber) displayed above the attitude indicator mean during a single AP ILS approach?
Turns on after localizer capture throughout approach
What does SINGLE CH (Amber) displayed above the attitude indicator mean during a dual AP ILS approach? Illuminates after localizer capture and extinguishes after pitch monitor confidence test is successfully completed (then goes to CMD)
Illuminates after localizer capture and extinguishes after pitch monitor confidence test is successfully completed (then goes to CMD)
When is SINGLE CH (Green) displayed above the attitude indicator?
During IAN approach after FAC capture until AP disengaged or 100' RA
If AUTOPILOT flashes in amber above the attitude indicator, what has happened?
A/P is still engaged below 100' RA for an IAN approach
What conditions must be met for a second autopilot to be engaged?
1) Both NAV receivers tuned to ILS, 2) APP Mode Selected, 3) 2nd AP engaged in CMD prior to 800' RA
Pulling down the A/P DISENGAGE bar does what three things?
1) Exposes yellow background, 2) Disengages both autopilots, 3) Prevents A/P engagement
Lifting up the A/P DISENGAGE bar does what two things?
1) Conceals yellow background, 2) Enables A/P engagement
What does an amber flashing A/P DISENGAGE light on the forward panel indicate?
A/P reverted to CWS pitch or roll while in CMD
What does a red flashing A/P DISENGAGE light on the forward panel indicate?
A/P disengaged
What does a red steady A/P DISENGAGE light on the forward panel indicate?
1) Stab out of trim below 800' RA on dual A/P approach, or 2) ALT ACQ mode inhibited during A/P go-around if stab not trimmed for single A/P ops, or 3) automatic ground system tests fail
What are the indications of a disengaged Autothrottle?
Flashing red A/T P/RST light on the forward panel
What does an amber STAB OUT OF TRIM light on the left forward panel indicate?
Autopilot not trimming stab properly
If you select TO/GA below 2000' RA with a single A/P engaged, what will happen?
A/P disconnects. Requires manual F/D go-around.
If you select TO/GA below 2000' RA with both A/Ps engaged, what will happen?
A/P go-around mode is activated. A/Ps remain engaged.
Pushing TO/GA once during a go-around activates a reduced N1 setting to produce a [xxxxx] fpm rate of climb.
1000-2000
Pushing TO/GA twice during a go-around does what?
Advances A/T to full go-around N1 limit
What are the three flight mode annunciations above the attitude indicator, from left to right?
A/T, Roll, Pitch
N1 in the A/T FMA annunciators means what?
A/T maintains thrust at selected N1 limit displayed on thrust mode display
GA in the A/T FMA annunciators means what?
Reduced go-around setting (one push)
RETARD in the A/T FMA annunciators means what?
A/T moving thrust levers to aft stop
FMC SPD in the A/T FMA annunciators means what?
A/T maintains speed commanded by FMC
MCP SPD in the A/T FMA annunciators means what?
A/T maintains speed set in MCP IAS/MACH display
THR HOLD in the A/T FMA annunciators means what?
Thrust lever A/T servoss inhibited. Pilot can set thrust manually
ARM in the A/T FMA annunciators means what?
No A/T mode engaged.
If ARM is displayed in the A/T FMA annunciator, is A/T protection is provided?
Yes (minimum speed protection)
TO/GA displayed during T/O in the FMA indicates what?
TO/GA thrust set
How do you select TO/GA thrust on the A/T during Takeoff?
Turn both F/D switches on and push either TO/GA switch
Selecting TO/GA on the A/T in flight requires what conditions above 2000' Radio Altitude?
Not in T/O mode, flaps not up or G/S captured
VNAV SPD in the FMA indicates what?
AFDS maintains FMC speed displayed in airspeed indicator and/or CDU CLIMB or DESCENT pages
VNAV PATH in the FMA indicates what?
AFDS maintains FMC altitude or descent path with pitch commands
V/S (engaged) in the FMA indicates what?
Commands pitch to hold selected vertical speed
How do you engage V/S?
Move Vertical Speed thumbwheel
ALT ACQ in the FMA indicates what?
Transition maneuver entered automatically during climb to selected MCP altitude
ALT HOLD in the FMA indicates what?
Commands pitch to hold MCP selected altitude, or uncorrected baro altitude at which ALT HOLD switch was pressed.
MCP SPD in the FMA indicates what?
Pitch commands to maintain IAS/MACH window airspeed/mach
G/S in the FMA indicates what?
AFDS follows ILS glideslope
FLARE (armed) in the FMA indicates what during a dual A/P ILS approach?
Below 1,500' RA after LOC and G/S Capture. Second A/P couples with flight controls and A/P go-around mode arms
FLARE (engaged) in the FMA indicates what?
During a dual-A/P ILS approach, flare engages at 50' RA and accomplishes autoland flare maneuver
G/P in the FMA indicates what?
AFDS follows IAN glidepath
LNAV in the FMA indicates what?
AFDS intercepts and tracks active FMC route
HDG SEL in the FMA indicates what?
AFDS turns to and maintains MCP-selected heading
VOR/LOC in the FMA indicates what?
AFDS intercepts and captures selected VOR/LOC course
FAC in the FMA indicates what?
AFDS captures/maintains IAN final approach course
B/CRS in the FMA indicates what?
AFDS captures/maintains localizer back-course course
How do you arm/engage the Integrated Approach Navigation (IAN) modes?
Select APP button on MCP
What FMA roll and pitch indications are present during an ILS approach?
VOR/LOC and G/S
What FMA roll and pitch indications are present during an FMC IAN approach?
FAC and G/P
What FMA roll and pitch indications are present during an ILS without G/S or a LOC approach?
VOR/LOC and G/P
What FMA roll and pitch indications are present during an ILS BC approach?
B/CRS and G/P
When will LNAV engage during a go-around from autoland with FLARE arm or engage displayed?
400' AGL
During a go-around from autoland with FLARE displayed, what will be the initial roll mode?
Track Hold
During a go-around from an approach, without FLARE displayed/armed, and TO/GA pressed, when will LNAV engage?
50' AGL
Pushing the SPEED switch on the MCP will do what?
1) Engage A/T in SPEED mode if compatible with engaged AFDS modes, 2) Illuminate SPEED switch light, and 3) Maintain MCP selected speed
Pushing the SPEED switch on the MCP with the light already illuminated will do what?
Deselect SPEED mode, extinguish light, engage A/T in ARM mode
Pushing the SPD INTV switch on the MCP cycles between which two displays and modes?
1) IAS/MACH display unblanked – AFDS maintains selected speed (FMC target speed still displayed). 2) IAS/MACH display blanked – AFDS maintains FMC computed target speed.
What happens when you push the VNAV switch on the MCP?
1) VNAV switch light illuminates, 2) pitch modes annunciates VNAV SPD, VNAV PTCH, 3) A/T mode annunciates FMC SPD, N1, RETARD, or ARM; 4) IAS/MACH display blanks and airspeed cursors positioned to FMC commanded airspeed
What does pushing the LVL CHG switch on the MCP do?
1) LVL CHG switch light illuminates; 2) Pitch mode annunciates MCP SPD for climb or descent; 3) A/T mode N1 for climb or RETARD followed by ARM for descent; 4) IAS/MACH display and airspeed cursors display target speed.
What does pushing the ALT HLD switch on the MCP do?
1) engages ALT HOLD mode; 2) commands pitch to hold uncorrected baro altitude at which switch was pressed; 3) annunciates ALT HOLD and illuminates ALT HLD switch light
What does pushing and turning the V/S Switch on the MCP do?
1) arms/engages V/S command mode; 2) commands pitch to hold vertical speed; 3) engages A/T in speed mode to hold selected airspeed; annunciates V/S in FMA and illuminates V/S switch light
Pushing the ALT INTV switch during a VNAV climb does what?
1) Deletes lowest FMC altitude constraint below selected MCP altitude; 2) if aircraft is currently at FMC altitude constraints, resumes climb if MCP altitude is above current altitude; 3) each press deletes one constraint; if MCP altitude is set above current FMC altitude, FMC altitude resets to MCP altitude.
How do you decrease the FMC altitude using the ALT INTV switch?
You cannot do so.
If in VNAV cruise with MCP altitude set above FMC cruise altitude, what will pushing ALT INTV do?
FMC altitude resets to MCP altitude and aircraft initiates a cruise climb
If in VNAV cruise with MCP altitude set below FMC cruise altitude, what will pushing ALT INTV do?
Initiates early descent
If in VNAV descent, what does pushing ALT INTV do?
Deletes highest FMC altitude constraint above MCP altitude
If all FMC altitude constraints are deleted during VNAV path descent, what does pushing ALT INTV do?
Automatic transition to VNAV speed descent
What does pushing the LNAV switch on the MCP do?
Commands AFDS roll to intercept and track active FMC route, annunciates LNAV, and illuminates LNAV switch light
What does pushing the VOR LOC switch on MCP do?
Commands AFDS roll to capture and track selected VOR or LOC course, annunciates VOR/LOC, and illuminates VOR LOC switch light
What does pushing HDG SEL switch on MCP do?
Engages HDG SEL command mode, commands roll to follow selected heading, annunciates HDG SEL and illuminates HDG SEL switch light
What does pushing CMD ENGAGE A or B switch do?
Engages respective A/P; enables all Command modes; displays CMD
If not in approach mode and CMD A is selected, what happens if you push CMD B?
A/P B is engaged, A/P A is disengaged
What does pushing CWS A or CWS B switch do?
Engages A/P; engages pitch and roll modes in CWS (Control Wheel Steering); displays CWS P and CWS R in FMA
While in ALT HOLD, you rotate Altitude SEL switch. What happens?
Altitude selected in 100' increments; V/S mode is ARMED
A flashing “A” on the MCP speed display indicates what?
Underspeed limiting – commanded speed cannot be reached
A flashing “8” on the MCP speed display indicates what?
Overspeed limiting – commanded speed is above Vmo, Mmo, Landing gear limit, or flap limit
What does pushing the Changeover (C/O) switch on MCP do?
Changes between IAS/MACH
If you don't push the C/O switch, when does automatic changeover occur?
Approximately FL260
Pushing the N1 switch on the MCP does what?
Engages or disengages N1 mode (if compatible with other AFDS modes engaged); illuminates or extinguishes N1 switch; ARMs A/Ts (if N1 deselected)
What are the cockpit indications of an incoming cabin or ground call?
CALL light illuminated with single high tone chime
What does an illuminated Offside Tuning Light on the RTP indicate?
Radio normally associated with this panel is being tuned by another panel, OR, the radio tuning panel is being used to tune a radio not normally associated with this radio tuning panel.
How do you activate the Oxygen Mask microphone?
Opening the O2 mask panel door, or depressing the reset/test switch with the panel door closed.
The service interphone system provides intercommunication between whom?
Flight deck, flight attendants, ground personnel
How many MIC SELECTOR switches may be selected on any ACP at one time?
One
If the MIC SELECTOR for a system is selected but the Receiver Switch is off, will you hear Transmissions?
Yes
With the RCP ALT-NORM switch in NORM, the ACP operates [xxxxxx]
Normally
With the RCP ALT-NORM switch in ALT, on which radio will the F/O communicate?
VHF2
With the RCP ALT-NORM switch in ALT, on which radio will the Capt communicate?
VHF1
With the RCP ALT-NORM switch in ALT, on which radio will the Observer communicate?
VHF1
Which microphone is not usable in the RCP ALT mode?
Handheld microphone
How can you use the PA system while your RCP is in ALT mode?
You cannot
What does turning the SERVICE INTERPHONE switch to OFF do?
Deactivates external jacks
Switching the GROUND SERVICE switch on the Fwd Attendant's panel ON does what?
Connects external power to ground service bus
What does the blue GRD POWER AVAILABLE light indicate?
Ground power connected and meets airplane power quality standards
What does the blue APU GEN OFF BUS light indicate?
APU is running and not powering a bus
What does a blue GEN OFF BUS light indicate?
Associated IDG is not supplying power to the related transfer bus
Where can you read voltage, frequency, and current (amps)?
AC and DC Metering panel (Forward Overhead Panel)
What does the amber DRIVE light indicate?
IDG under-frequency or low oil pressure
What does the amber TRANSFER BUS OFF light indicate?
Related transfer bus not powered
What does the amber SOURCE OFF light indicate?
No source has been manually selected to power the transfer bus, or the manually selected source has been disconnected
What does the amber BAT DISCHARGE light indicate?
With BAT switch ON, excessive battery discharge is detected
What does the amber TR UNIT light indicate?
TR Failure
What does the amber ELEC light indicate?
Fault in DC or standby power system (ONLY ON GROUND)
What does the amber STANDBY PWR OFF light indicate?
One or more of the following busses are unpowered: AC standby, DC standby, Battery
With fully charged batteries, standby power is available for [xxxxxxxx]
60 minutes
The GRD PWR switch is spring-loaded to
Neutral
Moving the GRD PWR switch to OFF does what?
Disconnects ground power from AC transfer busses
Moving the GRD PWR switch to ON does what?
Removes previously-connected power from AC busses and connects ground power to AC busses (if ground power is available and correct)
Using APU power and GRD power simultaneously [xxxxxxxxx]
Is not possible (selecting one will disconnect the other)
If neither transfer bus is powered by an IDG, moving an APU GEN switch to ON will...
...power both AC transfer busses from the APU generator and disconnect external power, if connected
If both AC transfer busses are powered by an IDG, moving an APU GEN switch to ON will...
...power the related AC transfer bus from the APU generator, while the other transfer bus will continue to be powered by the IDG
Which components are powered by the ground service bus?
Utility outlets, cabin lighting, and battery chargers
Where is the GROUND SERVICE switch?
Forward Attendant's panel
What happens when you turn a GEN switch OFF?
Disconnects IDG from related AC transfer bus by opening generator circuit breaker
What happens when you turn a GEN switch ON?
Disconnects other power source to related AC transfer bus and connects bus to IDG by closing generator circuit breaker
If the BUS TRANSFER switch is in AUTO, bus tie breakers...
...Operate automatically to maintain power to AC transfer busses from any operating generator or external power
How do you isolate AC transfer bus 1 from AC transfer bus 2?
Move BUS TRANSFER switch to OFF
Activating the Generator Drive DISCONNECT switch will
Disconnect IDG if electrical power is avilable and engine start lever is in IDLE
What two things does turning battery switch to ON perform?
Provides battery power and provides automatic switching of standby electrical system to battery with loss of normal power.
What does an amber “REV” indication above the N1 indicator mean?
Thrust reverser moved from stowed position
What does a green “REV” indication above the N1 indicator mean?
Thrust reverser is deployed
If the EEC detects a rapid rise in EGT or EGT approaches the Start limit, what is happening, what will your indications be, and what action is required?
Impending hot start. White box surrounding EGT digital readout flashes. EEC automatically turns off ignition and shuts off fuel.
During a start, the EGT display box and dial turn red. What has happened and what will EEC do?
EGT exceeded start limit. EEC will turn off ignition and shut off fuel.
What is a wet start?
EGT does not rise after start lever is moved to IDLE. EEC will turn off ignition and shut off fuel to engine 15 seconds after start lever moved to IDLE.
What does the amber REVERSER light on the aft overhead panel indicate?
Reverser is commanded to stow. Will extinguish approximately 10 seconds later when isolation valve closes.
If the REVERSER light illuminates for more than 12 seconds, what has happened?
Malfunction has occurred. MASTER CAUTION and ENG system annunciator light will illuminate
What does the amber PU LOW OIL PRESSURE light indicate?
Oil pressure is low causing an automatic shutdown (after start cycle is complete)
What does the blue APU MAINT light indicate?
APU maintenance problem exists.
What does the amber APU FAULT light indicate and what will happen?
A malfunction exists causing APU to initiate automatic shutdown.
What does the amber APU OVERSPEED light indicate?
APU RPM limit has been exceeded resulting in an automatic shutdown.
Of the four APU malfunction lights, which will NOT cause an automatic shutdown?
APU MAINT (Blue – other three are amber: LOW OIL PRESSURE, FAULT, OVERSPEED)
What does the Electronic Engine Control (EEC) switch indicate if the ON (white) light is displayed?
Normal control mode is selected.
What does the Electronic Engine Control (EEC) switch indicate if the ALTN (amber) light is displayed?
EEC has been automatically or manually switched to alternate control mode.
Both ON (white) and ALTN (amber) lights are on in the EEC switch, what does this indicate?
EEC has automatically switched to “soft” alternate mode.
An amber ENG FAIL alert in the EGT indicator means what?
Engine operating below sustainable idle (less than 50% N2) with Engine Start lever in IDLE position.
After shutting down the engines, you notice a red container aroud the N1, N2, or EGT indicators. What does this mean?
An exceedance has occurred.
When do you place the Engine Start Lever to IDLE during a normal engine start?
Once N2 RPM reaches maximum motoring (25% minimum) and N1 rotation observed.
During a normal engine start, when does the ENGINE START switch automatically move to OFF?
56% N2
Which conditions will cause automatic APU shutdown?
Fire, Low Oil Press, Overspeed, Fault
What are the indications that you may select APU GEN and/or APU BLEED?
APU GEN OFF BUS light illuminates. Note: to extend service life, operate APU for one full minute before using as bleed air source.
What does setting the N1 SET outer knob to AUTO do?
Allows FMC to set both reference N1 bugs, based on N1 limit page and takeoff reference page. Displays reference N1 bugs as active limit for A/T.
What does setting the N1 SET outer knob to BOTH do?
Allows you to set both N1 reference bugs and readouts manually with the inner knob.
How does positioning the N1 SET outer knob to BOTH, 1, or 2 influence A/T operation?
No effect
Setting the N1 SET outer knob to 1 or 2 does what?
Allows the respective N1 reference bug and readout to be set manually using the inner knob.
What are the indications of Engine Overheat?
1) ENG OVERHEAT light; 2) OVHT/DET system annunciator; 3) MASTER CAUTION lights
What are indications of ENGINE FIRE?
1) Associated Engine Fire Warning switch illuminates red; 2) switch unlocks; 3) Master FIRE WARN lights; 4) Fire Warning bell; 5) All related engine OVERHEAT alerts (MASTER CAUTION; OVHT/DET lights)
Moving the Engine Fire Warning switch to UP does what?
1) Arms one discharge squib on each fire extinguisher; 2) Allows engine fire warning switch to rotate
Rotating the Engine Fire Warning switch does what?
Discharges related fire bottle
What are the indications of an APU fire warning?
1) APU Fire Warning switch illuminates red; 2) Switch unlocks; 3) Master FIRE WARN lights; 4) Fire Warning Bell; 5) Wheel well APU fire warning horn and fire warning light (ground only); 6) APU automatic shutdown; 7) All related APU FAULT light indications (MASTER CAUTION; APU system; APU FAULT lights)
Moving the APU Fire Warning switch to UP does what?
1) Arms APU extinguisher circuit; 2) Allows switch to rotate
How do you discharge the APU fire bottle?
Rotate APU Fire Warning Switch in either direction (after raising it)
You observe a FAULT light on the Overheat/Fire Protection panel. What does this indicate?
1) With OVHT DET switch in normal: Both detector loops have failed; 2) With OVHT DET switch in A or B: The selected loop has failed
What indications do you have if the overheat detect loops have failed?
Single failure: None unless OVHT DET switch is in A or B; Dual loop failure: FAULT light. No MASTER CAUTION or OVHT/DET system annunciator
The APU detector loop has failed. What are your cockpit indicators?
1) MASTER CAUTION; 2) OVHT/DET system annunciator; 3) APU DET INOP light
The DETECTOR FAULT light illuminates on the Cargo Fire Panel. What does this indicate?
BOTH loops in one or both cargo compartments has failed.
During a cargo fire test, the DETECTOR FAULT light illuminates. What does this indicate?
ONE or MORE detector loops has failed.
What does moving the DET SELECT switch on the Cargo Fire panel to NORM do?
Both detection loops are active.
What does moving the DET SELECT switch on the Cargo Fire panel to A or B do?
Selected detection loop is active.
Normally [xxxxx] detector loops in the forward and aft cargo compartments must be active to provide an alert for smoke.
Both
Under what conditions will the cargo compartment smoke/fire detector systems automatically convert to single-loop detection?
Power failure in one loop.
What are the indications of a Cargo Fire Warning?
1) FWD/AFT Cargo Fire Warning light; 2) Master FIRE WARN light; 3) Fire Warning Bell
How many fire extinguisher bottles are available for the engine?
2 (total)
How many fire extinguisher bottles are available for the APU?
1
How many fire extinguisher bottles are available for the Cargo Compartments?
1 (total)
When does the Speed Trim System operate most frequently?
Takeoffs, climbs, and go-arounds.
When does the SPEED BRAKES EXTENDED light illuminate in flight?
SPEED BRAKE lever beyond ARMED position, AND EITHER: Trailing Edge flaps extended more than flaps 10 OR Radio Altitude less than 800'
When does the SPEED BRAKES EXTENDED light illuminate on the ground?
SPEED BRAKE lever in DOWN detent; Ground Spoilers are not Stowed
When will the LE FLAPS TRANSIT light illuminate?
1) Any LE device in transit; 2) any LE device not in programmed position in respect to TE flaps; 3) LE slat skew; 4) during alternate flap extension until LE devices fully extended and TE flaps reach flaps 10. Note: inhibited during autoslat operation in flight.
What does an illuminated Flight Control LOW PRESSURE light indicate?
Low hydraulic system (A or B) pressure to ailerons, elevator, and rudder
What does the FEEL DIFF PRESS light indicate?
Excessive differential pressure in the elevator feel computer
What does the SPEED TRIM FAIL or MACH TRIM FAIL light indicate?
1) Failure of the associated trim system; 2) During MASTER CAUTION recall, failure of single FCC channel
What does the AUTO SLAT FAIL light indicate?
1) Failure of the auto slat system; 2) During MASTER CAUTION recall, failure of the auto slat function in one of the SMYD computers
What does the YAW DAMPER light indicate?
1) Yaw damper NOT engaged
What does the SPEED BRAKE DO NOT ARM light indicate?
Abnormal condition or test inputs to automatic speed brake system.
How do you extinguish the SPEED BRAKE DO NOT ARM light?
Place SPEED BRAKE lever in DOWN position.
What do the Control Column Stabilizer cutout switches do?
Stops operation of main electric and autopilot trim when control column movement opposes trim direction.
How does the Flap Load Relief system operate with flaps at 40?
TE flaps retract to 30 if airspeed for flaps 40 is exceeded and re-extend when airspeed is reduced below flaps 40 speed.
How does the Flap Load Relief system operate with flaps at 30?
TE flaps retract to 25 if airspeed for flaps 30 is exceeded and re-extend when airspeed is reduced below flaps 30 speed.
You are flying with Flaps at 30 and exceed the maximum flaps 30 airspeed. What happens?
TE flaps retract to 25 until airspeed reduced below flaps 30 speed.
What powers the primary flight controls?
Redundant hydraulic systems (A and B), each of which can operate all primary flight controls.
In the case of total hydraulic failure, what primary flight controls are available?
Ailerons and elevators may be operated manually.
How is the rudder operated if both hydraulic systems A and B fail?
Standby hydraulic system
Which flight controls provide roll axis?
Ailerons, assisted by flight spoilers when control wheel is displaced more than approximately 10 degrees.
Placing the ALTERNATE FLAPS Master Switch to ARM does what?
Closes TE flap bypass valve, activates standby pump, and arms the ALTERNATE FLAPS Position switch
Placing the SPEED BRAKE lever in the DOWN detent...
selects all flight and ground spolier panels to faired (streamlined) position.
Placing the SPEED BRAKE lever in the ARMED position...
arms automatic speed brake system (illuminating SPEEDBRAKE ARMED light); upon touchdown, speedbrake lever moves to UP and all flight and ground spoilers extend.
Placing the SPEED BRAKE lever in the FLIGHT DETENT position...
places all flight spoilers in their maximum extended position
Placing the SPEED BRAKE lever in the UP position...
extends all flight and ground spoilers to their maximum position for ground use
If the SPEED BRAKE lever is past the 50% position and the speedbrake load alleviation feature activates...
...the lever will move to the 50% position and flight spoilers will retract to 50%
What is the speedbrake load alleviation feature?
Limits deployment of speedbrakes under certain high gross weight/airspeed combinations
Can you select more than 50% speedbrake if the load alleviation feature is activated?
Yes, but it will take increased force to move the lever and once lever is released it will return to the 50% position.
When will the ground spoilers deploy during landing?
If: 1) SPEED BRAKE lever ARMED; 2) SPEED BRAKE ARMED light illuminated; 3) Landing gear strut compressed; 4) Both thrust levers in IDLE; 5) Main wheel spinup
When will ground spoilers deploy during landing or RTO with SPEED BRAKE lever in DOWN position?
1) Main wheel spinup; 2) Both thrust levers retarded to IDLE; 3) Reverse thrust levers positioned for reverse thrust. In this case, lever will automatically move to UP position and spoilers will deploy.
During a RTO or landing, when will the spoilers retract?
When selected, or automatically if either thrust lever is advanced.
With the DISPLAYS SOURCE selector in AUTO, which DEUs control which displays?
DEU1: Capt's displays and upper display; DEU2: F/O displays and lower display
With the DISPLAYS SOURCE selector in AUTO, if DEU 1 fails, which DEU controls the Capt's displays?
DEU2
With the DISPLAYS CONTROL PANEL in “BOTH ON 1,” how do you control the F/O's displays?
With the Capt's EFIS control panel
With the DISPLAYS SOURCE selector in AUTO, if DEU 2 fails, what are your indications and what happens?
“DISPLY SOURCE” (amber) is present on the lower left corner of the F/O PFD; the remaining DEU will automatically provide data to all six displays using independent sources.
The PLI is an amber symbol displayed on the pitch scale of the ADI, what does it indicate?
Pitch limit/stick shaker limit for existing flight conditions
What color are the MCP command markers on the PFD?
Magenta
What is the meaning of the red and black bars on the airspeed tape?
Max Speed Bar: max speed (Vmo/Mmo, Ldg Gr, Flap); Min Speed Bar: Stick Shaker
What does the speed trend vector indicate?
Predicted speed in 10 seconds.
What do the amber limit bars on the airspeed indicator mean?
Max Mnvr Speed (flaps NOT up): flap limit speed for next normal flap setting: 1, 5, 15, 30; Max Mnvr Speed (flaps up): 0.3g maneuver margin to high speed buffet; Min Mnvr Speed Bar
During approach, when is the Max Mnvr Speed bar removed?
Flap lever moved to landing flap selected on APPROACH REF page or flap lever moved to 30 or 40
What speed does the single white bug displayed during takeoff indicate, and why?
V2+15; speed provides margin to stick shaker for inadvertant 15 degree overshoot beyond normal 25 degree angle of bank
When is the single white bug displayed during approach, and what does it indicate?
After selection of VREF in the FMC; VREF +20 – target airspeed in event an engine is lost during approach.
When and how does the PFD Radio Altitude display?
Below 2500' AGL; highighted white container for 10 seconds during descent through 2500' AGL; amber when below RA minimums
What does an amber PFD Radio Altitude indication mean?
Below RA minimums
The crosshatched indication on the bottom of the altitude tape indicates what?
FMC landing altitude for destination runway or; altitude of departure runway or airport
When is the vertical speed tape displayed in red?
During TCAS Resolution advisory
When does the slip/skid indicator fill in?
Full-scale deflection
When does the slip/skid indicator turn amber?
Bank angle 35 degrees or more
Where is the actual aircraft heading displayed on the PFD and ND?
Under the white inverted triangle
Where are the ground speed, true airspeed, wind direction, and wind speed displayed?
Top left of ND
What does a RED SQUARE indicate on the ND?
TCAS RA
What does an Amber Circle on the ND indicate?
TCAS TA
What does a white diamond in the ND indicate?
TCAS Proximate Traffic
What does the Altitude Range Arc on the ND indicate?
Approximate map position where MCP altitude will be reached
How do you set approach minimums on the EFIS Control Panel?
MINS Reference Selector (outer knob) selects RADIO or BARO; MINS selector (inner knob) rotates to select altitude; MINS RST (push) resets alert mins anunciation and blanks display if alert is not active.
(NO FLASHCARD FOR THIS – KNOW EFIS Mode Selections and MAP switches)
KNOW THEM
What happens when you push the BARO selector knob on the EFIS control panel?
Selects STD altimeter setting
What is the orientation of the PLAN mode in the ND?
North Up
What advisory message is annunciated if in EFIS APP mode with a VOR tuned?
EFIS MODE/NAV FREQ DISAGREE
If you select EFIS APP mode with a VOR tuned, what will happen?
Advisory message: EFIS MODE/NAV FREQ DISAGREE
What does a boxed amber alert mean if it replaces a flight instrument?
Instrument has failed.
You are flying an ILS with the a/p engaged. The glideslope scale turns amber and the pointer flashes. What does this mean?
Excessive deviation at low radio altitudes.
The Actual Navigation Performance (ANP) bars originate from the outer scale and expand inward to show what?
Increasing ANP relative to RNP (Required Navigation Performance)
If the ANP bars touch at center of scale, what does this mean?
ANP=RNP
When will the NPS pointer flash?
For 10 seconds if deviation is within ANP limits for 10 continuous seconds
When will ANP bars turn amber?
When current deviation is within ANP bar limits for 10 continuous seconds.
How do you select the VSD (Vertical Situation Display)?
Press EFIS Control Panel CTR switch twice.
With the FMC Source Select Switch in NORMAL, which FMC controls the CDUs?
Left
With the FMC Source Select Switch in NORMAL, where do the maps displays get their data?
Composite information from both FMCs
What does the FMC P/RST light on the forward panel indicate?
An alert message exists for both CDUs
If the right FMC fails, what will the indications be?
FMC alert light and FMC message light will illuminate. The message “SINGLE FMC OPERATION” will be displayed in both scratchpads.
If the left FMC fails, what will the indications be?
FMC alert light illuminates, and MENU page will appear on both CDUs.
You see the FMC P/RST light on the forward panel, and “SINGLE FMC OPERATION” is in both scratchpads. What has happened?
Failure of right FMC
You see the FMC P/RST light on the forward panel, and both CDUs revert to the MENU page. What has happened?
Failure of left FMC
Both scratchpads display “UNABLE REQD NAV PERF-RNP.” What is happening and what other indications will you have?
ANP exceeds RNP; ANP and RNP indications on MAP display will turn amber. If in approach environment, UNABLE REQD NAV PERF-RNP will also display in amber on the MAP.
How do you enter an “at or above” airspeed restriction in the FMS?
Suffix letter A (ex: 250A/)
How do you enter an “at or below” airspeed restriction in the FMS?
Suffix letter B (ex: 250B/)
How do you enter an exact airspeed restriction in the FMS?
No suffix (ex: 250/)
How do you enter an “at or above” altitude restriction in the FMS?
Suffix letter A (ex: 250A)
How do you enter an “at or below” altitude restriction in the FMS?
Suffix letter B (ex: 250B)
How do you enter an exact airspeed restriction in the FMS?
No suffix (ex: 250)
How do you enter a bracketed altitude restriction in the FMS?
Lower limit, A, Higher limit, B (example: 220A240B)
When does the CDU display DRAG REQUIRED?
Airspeed 10Kts or more above FMC target speed
When does CDU display DES PATH UNACHIEVABLE?
FMC determines planned descent profile cannot be accomplished
VNAV is armed during takeoff. When does VNAV engage?
400'
VNAV is armed during takeoff. Describe the commanded acceleration profile (both engines operational).
Speed commanded to: Last MCP speed (V2) + 20 knots until acceleration height; flap placard minus 5 knots; 250 knots with flaps retracted; active target speed; waypoint speed constraints or restriction associated with origin airport, whichever is more restrictive.
VNAV is armed during takeoff. In case of engine failure, what is the commanded target speed?
Target speed will be last MCP speed (V2) + 20 knots if at that airspeed or greater, or existing speed if aircraft is between V2 and V2+20 knots.
What is the meaning of an illuminated GPS light on the IRS Mode Selector Unit (ISDU)?
Failure of both GPS units (will illuminate during MASTER CAUTION recall for single failure)
What does a flashing ALIGN light on the IRS Mode Selector Unit (ISDU) indicate?
No Present Position entry or Unreasonable present position.
What does an illuminated Main Tank Fuel Pump LOW PRESSURE light indicate?
Fuel pump output pressureis low or FUEL PUMP switch is OFF.
If two LOW PRESSURE lights illuminate on the same tank, what else will happen?
MASTER CAUTION and FUEL system annunciator
What is the difference between a bright and dim crossfeed VALVE OPEN light?
Bright: valve in transit or disagrees with selector; Dim: Valve is open
What could a Bright ENGINE VALVE CLOSED or SPAR VALVE closed light indicate?
Valve in transit or Valve position and engine start lever or engine fire warning switch in disagreement
What does a FILTER BYPASS light indicate?
Impending fuel filter bypass due to contaminated filter
When will the fuel quantity LOW alert appear?
Less than 2000lbs in related main tank
When will the fuel CONFIG alert appear?
Either engine running, center fuel tank >1600lbs, both center fuel tank pumps low or no pressure
When will the fuel IMBAL alert appear?
Main tank difference >1k lbs (in flight), inhibited by LOW indication if both conditions exist.
When will the fuel IMBAL alert disappear?
Imbalance reduced to 200 lbs
How do you shut off the Spar and Engine fuel shutoff valves?
Place engine start lever to CUTOFF, or, Pull the engine fire warning switch
How is fuel supplied to engines with all pumps operating?
Center pumps produce higher pressure than main tank pumps, so engines feed from center pumps first; then each engine fed from respective main wing tank.
If main tank pressure is low, how can engine get fuel?
Suction feed that bypasses pumps.
What cools the hydraulic pumps?
Hydraulic fluid
How do you display hydraulic fuel quantity?
Press MFD System Switch to display quantities for A and B system on the lower DU.
What does a white “RF” beside the hydraulic quantity indicate?
Refill.
What does selecting ON on an ENGINE HYDRAULIC PUMP Switch do?
De-energizes blocking valve in pump to allow pump pressure to enter system.
Normally, the ENGINE HYDRAULIC PUMP switch should remain in [xxxxx] to prolong solenoid life.
ON
Selecting ON on an ELECTRIC HYDRAULIC PUMP switch does what?
Provides power to associated electric motor-driven pump
How do you verify landing gear is down and locked?
Illumination of one landing gear indicator light for each gear (center panel or overhead panel).
Why would the amber AUTO BRAKE DISARM light illuminate?
Autobrakes disarmed, OR, turn-on self-test is not successful.
What does ANTISKID INOP light indicate?
System fault is detected by antiskid monitoring system.
What does the Landing Gear Override Trigger do?
Allows landing gear lever to be raised, bypassing the landing gear lever lock.
Is antiskid available with the alternate brake system?
Yes
If both Normal and Alternate brake system pressure is lost, is antiskid available?
Yes, using brake Accumulator
Which hydraulic system powers the normal brake system?
System B
Which hydraulic system(s) is/are needed for autobrake?
System B
Which hydraulic system powers the alternate brake system?
System A
Are antiskid and autobrake available with alternate brake system?
Anti-skid: yes; autobrake: no
Which system pressurizes the Brake Accumulator?
System B
Which system(s) power the parking brake?
A or B
If normal hydraulic power is not available, will the parking brake work?
Yes, using accumulator pressure if available
How can autobrakes be disarmed?
Advancing thrust lever(s) >3 seconds after touchdown; moving SPEEDBRAKE lever to DOWN; applying manual brakes; moving selector to OFF
What conditions will cause the Intermittent Takeoff Configuration Warning?
TE flaps not in takeoff range, LE devices not configured for takeoff, SPEEDBRAKE lever not in DOWN, parking brake set, OR stabilizer trim not set in takeoff range (NOTE: MEMORY ITEM APPLIES)
When does Stall Warning System/”Stick Shaker” activate?
In flight before stall develops or on ground if test switches are activated.
How is a TCAS TA differentiated from an RA?
TA: Amber Circle; RA: Red Square
What will cause a GPWS alert?
Excessive descent rate; excessive terrain closure rate; altitude loss during takeoff or go-around; unsafe terrain clearance when not in landing configuration; excessive deviation below ILS glide slope; excessive deviation below a glidepath
When are Predictive Windshear (PWS) alerts automatically available?
Thrust levers set for takeoff (several second delay) or inflight below 1200' RA
How can you enable PWS alerts manually?
Push EFIS control panel WXR switch
How is terrain below the aircraft's current altitude displayed?
Dotted Green
How is terrain conflict displayed?
Dotted red or amber
What does dotted magenta on the TERR display indicate?
No terrain data available
What does solid amber on the TERR display indicate?
Look-ahead terrain caution
What does solid red on the TERR display indicate?
Look-ahead terrain warning
What are the indications of a Windshear Warning?
Two-tone siren; “Windshear” aural alert; Red “WINDSHEAR” on both Attitude Indicators
On takeoff, what are indications of a PWS Warning alert?
Aural: “WINDSHEAR AHEAD”; Red WINDSHEAR on both attitude indicators; Red windshear symbol on ND; Red WINDSHEAR on ND
On approach, what are indications of a PWS Warning alert?
Aural “GO AROUND, WINDSHEAR AHEAD”; Red WINDSHEAR on both ADIs; Red windshear symbol and WINDSHEAR message on ND
On takeoff or approach, what are PWS Caution alerts and what do they indicate?
Windshear within 3NM ahead; Aural “MONITOR RADAR DISPLAY”; Red windshear symbol and amber WINDSHEAR message on ND
How can the Mach/Airspeed clackers be silenced?
By reducing airspeed below Vmo/Mmo
What does a red landing gear light indicate?
Landing gear in disagreement with lever, or not down and locked
When will the landing gear warning horn sound?
Steady horn when landing attempted and any gear not down and locked
What are the indications when approaching MCP selected altitude?
750' prior, white container around selected altitude display, while container around current altitude becomes bold. At 200' prior, selected altitude container no longer shows.
If you deviate from MCP selected altitude, what happens?
More than 200' deviation: momentary tone and current altitude container turns amber and flashes
What is the difference between a look-ahead Terrain or Obstacle caution or warning?
Annunciation for warning is Red, caution is Amber
What does a PSEU light indicate?
Fault in the PSEU, or overwing exit flight lock fails to disengage when commanded.