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150 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Q:
802.11 |
A:
Family of IEEE specifications ofr wireless networking |
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Q:
802.11a |
A:
IEEE spec for 54MBs 5GHz WLAN |
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Q:
802.11b |
A:
IEEE spec for 11/5/1MBs 2.4GHz WLAN |
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Q:
802.11g - (compatible with what?) |
A:
IEEE spec for 54MBs 2.4GHz WLAN - Compatible with 802.11b |
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Q:
ACE |
A:
Access Control Entry Def: An entry in an ACL (Access Control List) |
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Q:
ACL |
A:
Access Control List Def: A set of user and group access permissions for a resource |
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Q:
Access Token |
A:
A collection of SIDs (Security Identifiers) representing a user and group memberships. Compared to ACL. |
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Q:
Account Lockout |
A:
Disabling of an account login based on a specified number of failed logins |
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Q:
AD |
A:
Active Directory Def: Collection of Directory functions that integrate DNS LDAP and Kerberos |
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Q:
Active-Integrated zone |
A:
A DNS zone stored in AD so it has AD security and can be used for multimaster replication |
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Q:
ADSU |
A: Active directory Service Interface
Def: A program interface that provides access to AD |
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Q:
ActiveX |
A:
A set of technologies that allsow software to interact with each other in a network |
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Q:
ARP |
A: Address resolution Protocol
Def: TCP/IP protocol that povides IP to MAC address resolution |
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Q:
ACPI |
A: Advanced Configuration Power Interface Def: An industry spec defining power mgmt
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Q:
Allocation Unit |
A:
Smallest section of a HDD, also called a cluster |
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Q: anonymous FTP
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A: A way to copy files onto a computer when you don't have an account.
Username: anonymous Password: <email address> |
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Q: Appletalk
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A: Mac protocol that can be used in Windows 2003 with the use of 'Appletalk network integration'
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Q: Archive (A) Attribute
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A: A file attribute that is set to True when it's modified and needs to be backed up.
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Q: Associate
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A: To connect a particular file extension to a specific program
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Q: ATM
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A: Asynchronous Transfer mode
Def: A network transmission technology based on fixed sized cells or packets |
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Q: audit policy
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A: Defines the type of security events to be audited
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Q: authoritative restore
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A: Specifies a type of recovery of the AD
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Q: ASR
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A: Automated System Recovery
Def: A WS2003 feature that allows you to restore a faild server efficiently. |
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Q: BITS
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A: Background Intelligent Transfer Service
A service used to transfer files between a client and HTTP server. |
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Q: BDC
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A: Backup Domain Controller
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Q: Backup media pool
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A: Logical set of backup storage media
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Q: bandwidth
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A: Transmission capacity on a network
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Q: basic disk
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A: A partitioned disk compatible with previous versions of Windows
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Q: BOOTP
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A: Boot Protocol
Def: A protocol used on TCP/IP networks to connect a diskless workstation to the network. |
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Q: broadcast
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A: To send a message to all computers on the network simultaneously
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Q: Browser service
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A: The service that maintains a current list of resources on the network
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Q: Caching
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A: A process used to enhance performance by retaining previously accessed info.
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Q: catalog
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A: An index of files in a backup set
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Q: certificate
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A: A credential used to prove the origin, autority and purpos of a public key to the entity that holds the corresponding private key
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Q: CA
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A: Certificate Authority
Def: The service that manages certificate registration and fulfillment & revocation requests |
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Q: CRL
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A: Certificat Revocation List
Def: A digitally signed list, published by a CA, of certificates that are no longer valid |
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Q: child domain
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A: a subdomain that is located directly under a parent domain: child.parent.com
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Q: child object
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A: an object inside another object
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Q: CAL
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A: Client Access License
Def: The legal right to connect to a service or application |
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Q: cluster
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A: a set of computers joined together to behave as a single system
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Q: Cluster service
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A: The collection of softer on each node that manages cluster specific activity
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Q: codec
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A: s/w and h/w technology that compresses/decompresses data like audio and video.
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Q: CN
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A: Common Name - Primary name of an object in a LDAP directory. Must be unique
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Q: console tree
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A: the left pane in a MMC
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Q: container
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A: An AD object that contains other objects.
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Q: delegate
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A: Assign admin rights over a portion of the namespace to another user or group
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Q: Device Driver
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A: A program that enables a specific device to communicate with the OS.
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Q: Device Manager
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A: An admin tool that is used to administerdvices on your computer
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Q: digital signature
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A: An attribute of a drive, application or document that identifies the creator of the file.
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Q: directory service
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A: A means of storing directory data and making it avaliable to network users
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Q: disk quota
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A: A set limitation on the amount of disk space available to the user
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Q: DN
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A: Distinguished Name - the fully qualified name of an object in an LDAP directory
object.container.ou.domain |
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Q: DFS
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A: Distributed File System - A file mgmt system that allows files to be stored on seperate computers with one directory tree
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Q: DNS name servers
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A: Servers that contain part of the DNS database for name resolution queries
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Q: domain
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A: A group of computers that share a security polisy and user account db.
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Q: DC
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A: Domain Controller - A server that accepts account logons and iniciates their authentication
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Q: domain functional level
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A: The at a domain operates; 4 levels: Windows 2000 mixed, Windows 2000 native, Windows 2003 interim and Windows 2003
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Q: DNS
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A: Domain Name System - A service on TCP/IP networks that translates domain and host names into IP addresses
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Q: domain naming master
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A: The one DC assigned to handle the addition/removal of
domains in a forest |
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Q: DWORD
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A: A data type consisting of 4 bytes in hexadecimal
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Q: DDE
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A: Dynamic Data Exchange - Communication between processes implemented in the Windows family of OS'
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Q: dynamic disk
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A: A disk that is configured using volumes stored in the LDM. Only in Win 2000, XP and Windows Server 2003
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Q: LDM
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A: Logical Disk Manager - Dynamic disk mgmt db.
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Q: DHCP
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A: Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol - Protocol that automatically assigns IP addresses
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Q: DLL
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A: Dynamic Link Library - A program module that contains executable code that can be used by multple apps.
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Q: effective permissions
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A: Actual permissions after the evaluation of all permissions allowed and denied
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Q: enterprise
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A: A business' entire operation, including all offices and branches
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Q: extended partition
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A: A nonbootable partition of a hard disk that can be subdivided in to several logical disks. 1 per drive
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Q: EAP
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A: Extensible Authentication Protocol - An extension to the PPP protocol for validating PPP connections
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Q: XML
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A: Extensible Markup Language - ML for flexible user defined document types of text and data
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Q: external trust
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A: a 1 or 2 way trust providing access to a NT4 domain or domain from another forest w/ no forest trust
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Q: failover
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A: automatic switching from a primary to a secondary system
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Q: folder redirecton
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A: A Group Policy option to place a user's special folders on a network server
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Q: forest
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A: a group of 1 or more AD trees that trust each other through 2 way transitive trusts. Common schema, config and Global Catalog
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Q: forest trust
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A: A 1 or 2 way trust used to share resources between forests
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Q: FQDN
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A: Fully Qualified Domain - A domain name that includes all the domains leading back to the root. eng.rd.company.com
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Q: GC
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A: Global Catalog - A full replica of all AD objects in the domain and info about all objects in forest
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Q: global group
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A: A group that can be used in multiple domains, but contain groups and users from it's domain only
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Q: GUID
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A: Globally Unique IDentifier
- A unique identifier that always stays with an object |
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Q: GPT
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A: GUID Partition Table - The storage location for disk config info in 64bit Windows
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Q: Group Policy
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A: Rules for computers and users in Windows 2000/2003 Server
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Q: GPO
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A: Group Policy Object - A collection of policies stored in GP Container and GP Template
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Q: identity store
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A: A db of security identities/principles. AD is an identity store
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Q: inheritance
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A: The process by wich permissions are transferred from parent object to child object
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Q: instance
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A: the most granular level of performance counter
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Q: IntelliMirror
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A: A suite of technologies that allows a complete operating env. to follow a user to other computers
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Q: IAS
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A: Internet Authentication Service - MS's implementation of RADIUS (Remote Auth. Dial-In User Service)
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Q: ICMP
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A: Internet Control Message Protocol - data delivery reporting protocol
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Q: IPP
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A: Internet Printing Protocol - HTTP incapsulated protocol for printing over the internet
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Q: IPSec
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A: Internet Protocol Security
- Standard that provides authentication and encryption over the internet |
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Q: Kerberos
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A: An identity based security system by MIT that authenticates users at logon. Windows 2000/2003 Server
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Q: L2TP
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A: Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol
- PPP + IPSec used for VPN |
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Q: LDIF
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A: Light Weight Directory Information Format - ASCII file format for LDAP trnsfers
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Q: LDM
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A: Logical Disk Manager
- Dynamic disk management service |
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Q: MBR
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A: Master Boot Record - First sector on the hdd that has startup information
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Q: MFT
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A: Master File Table - NTFS allocation file
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Q: Member Server
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A: A server that is part of the domain but is not a domain controller
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Q: MMC
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A: Micorosoft Management Console
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Q: Multicasting
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A: Simultaneously sending a message to selected recipients on a network
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Q: Native Mode
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A: Where Windows 2000 or Windows 2003 are no longer backwards compatible to allow full functionality
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Q: non-authorative restore
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A: A DC restore where standard AD replication updates it
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Q: OID
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A: Object Identifier - The GUID
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Q: Operations Master
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A: A DC that has been assigned AD operations that can only occur at one place on the network at a time
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Q: OU
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A: Organizational Unit - Smallest entity thatt a GP an be linked. Smallest scope for administrative authority
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Q: PDC Emulator master
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A: DC that services non AD client software pc's
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Q: PDC
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Q: NT4 Primary Domain Controller - NT4 Domain or W2k/W2k3 mixed mode
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Q: Queue Length
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A: Performance Counter that measures # of waiting instructions for an object
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Q: realm trust
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A: Connections between a non-Windows Kerberos realm and a WS2003 domain. Can be transitive or non, 1way or 2.
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Q: Recovery Console
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A: A command-line interface that provides limited access to the system for troubleshooting purposes
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Q: RAID
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A: Redundant Array of Independant Disks
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Q: RADIUS
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A: REmote Authentication Dial-In User Service
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Q: RID
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A: Relative IDentifier - Portion of the distinguished name used by AD
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Q: RAS
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A: Remote Access Service
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Q: RIS
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A: Remote Installation Service - Network OS installation
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Q: RSM
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A: Removable Storage Management - Media library and robotic changer interface for WS2003
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Q: RFCs
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A: Request For Comments
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Q: roaming user profile
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A: A profile stored on the network
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Q: schema
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A: A set of definitions of the object classes and attributes stored in the AD
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Q: schema master
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A: The DC assigned to track all updates to a schema within a forest
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Q: scope
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A: DHCP - address list.
AD - defines where a group can be assigned network permissions |
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Q: SAM
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A: Security Accounts Manager - A service used to manage account info
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Q: security descriptor
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A: Attribute of an object that has ownership and access info
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Q: SID
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A: Security Identifier - A unique number assigned to every computer, user and group. Never reused.
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Q: security principal (4)
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A: An object that can be given permission to a resource - 4: users, groups, computers, InetOrgPerson
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Q: SRV
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A: Service Locator Resource Record - DNS records for services
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Q: Shortcut Trust
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A: A trust used to reduce logons between 2 domains in a forest
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Q: SOAP
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A: Simple Object Access Protocol - platform independant application communication protocol
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Q: Site
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A: An area of well-connected subnets
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Q: SUS
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A: Software Update Service - Server-based client security updates
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Q: superscope
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A: Logical subnet division
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Q: SYSVOL
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A: The folder on a DC that has logon scripts and group policies
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Q: transitive trust
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A: Standard, two way, trust between domains in a forest.
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Q: tree
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A: An AD domain hierarchy of objects similar to a directory tree
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Q: URL
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A: Uniform Resource Locator - Internet addressing standard
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Q: universal group
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A: A group that can be used anywhere in the domain tree or forest
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Q: UNC
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A: Universal Naming Convention - A resource naming standard for devices on the network
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Q: UPnP
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A: Universal Plug n Play - A standard for devices and peripherals to auto-connect to the network and announce their presence
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Q: UPN
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A: User Principal Name - A unique user name in a forest: user@domain.com
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Q: VPN
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A: Virtual Private Network
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Q: VoIP
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A: Voice over IP
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Q: VSS
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A: Volume Shadow Copy Service - A file snapshot service that allows backups while the file locked
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Q: WBEM
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A: Web-Based Enterprise Managment - Standard to unify enterprise mgmt. Example: WMI
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Q: well-connected
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A: Being fast and reliable for AD site communication
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Q: WAN
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A: Wide Area Network
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Q: WINS
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A: Windows Internet Naming Service
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Q: WMI
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A: Windows Management Instrumentation - Windows implementation of WBEM enterprise management standard
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Q: Winsock
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A: Windows Sockets - Windows protocol used with SLIP to connect to the internet
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Q: X.500
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A: A directory service standard that uses 'entries' in object classes
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Q: zone
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A: A part of the DNS name space with a single domain and possible subdomains. Managed as a seperate entity
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Q:
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A:
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