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78 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Which system is used to report contract actions?
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c. Federal Procurement Data System-Next Generation (FPDS-NG).
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Which has responsibility for the accuracy and the submission of individual contract action reports?
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b. Contracting officer.
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Which contract action is not reportable
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c. Purchases made at AbilityOne service stores
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After execution by all parties, copies of contracts or modifications must be distributed within
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c. 10 days.
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In-process inspection of commercial items by the governement
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c. must be conducted in a manner consistent with commercial practice.
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Acceptance may not take place
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d. after payment is made.
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Acceptance of noncomplex commercial items is prescribed in
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c. 52.212–4, Contract Terms and Conditions—Commercial Items.
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Ordinarily, what option is given to the contractor because of a notice of rejection for nonconformance?
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d. Correct or replace any nonconforming supplies at no additional cost to the government.
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When delivery is late on a commodities contract, the government may take any of the actions except
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d. terminate the contract for default in accordance with Part 12 of the FAR.
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Which Web-based system provides for electronic invoicing, recept, and acceptance?
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c. Wide Area Workflow (WAWF).
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To adhere to prompt parment guidelines, payment is due within how many days after government acceptance of supplies?
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30 days.
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Records of contractor performance are managed in the
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c. Contractor Performance Assessment Reporting System (CPARS).
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Which types of copies of contractual instruments can become part of the official contract file?
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a. Original, authenticated copies, or conformed copies.
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Which action must be taken prior to providing a contractor with preliminary notice of the government's intent to exercise an option?
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a. Validate the requirement.
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Unless otherwise specified, the government typically must provide how many days notice
of its intent to exercise an option period? |
d. 60.
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What option does the government have if it fails to provide the necessary notifications
required by the contract and still desires to exercise an option period? |
Issue a bilateral modification and obtain contractor concurrence
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Which is not required to be accomplished by the contracting officer (CO) to exercise an
option? |
d. Obtain Representations and Certifications.
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18. (604) The authority to make changes to an existing contract is not extended to
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c. qualified contracting officer representatives to make constructive changes to contracts.
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A modification in which all adjustments regarding cost, time, scope, and other consideration
have been decided and required no further modification to complete contract change is known as |
d. a definitized modification.
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What modification authority must be cited when making administrative changes to a
contract using the SF 30? |
d. No further authority must be cited.
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21. (604) What modification authority must be used when no specific clause can be cited?
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c. Mutual Agreement of the Parties.
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22. (604) Unilateral modifications may be used for all except
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d. make changes authorized by the Changes clause.
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When you are processing administrative changes, all may be processed as administrative
changes except |
c. correcting errors in unit price.
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When you are processing an administrative change, which is required?
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c. Check block 13B of the SF 30.
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25. (604) A change order
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a. may be issued unilaterally.
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26. (604) Changes authorized in fixed-price contracts for supplies include all except
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d. directed acceleration in performance of work.
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27. (605) The contracting officer has grounds to terminate a contractor for default when
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b. there is an actual failure or fails to progress to perform contractual obligations.
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28. (605) The contracting officer shall issue a no-cost settlement instead of a termination notice when
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d. it is known that the contractor will accept one.
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A notice for termination can be rescinded if it is determined that the items had been
completed or shipped before the contractor’s receipt of notice by |
b. amendment of the notice.
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30. (605) How can a termination for convenience of a fixed-price contract be settled?
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a. Inventory basis or total-cost basis.
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If a contractor’s failure to perform is due to actions of a subcontractor, will the contractor
remain liable for excess costs of repurchase? |
d. Yes, if supplies or services were available from other sources and sufficient time remained for
the contractor to meet the required delivery schedule. |
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Which termination consideration is not considered when determining whether to terminate a
contract for default? |
a. Value of contractor assets.
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A cure notice is issued when
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a specific condition exists that endangers contract performance
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What amount of time is the contractor normally given to correct a failure?
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Ten days from the receipt of the cure notice
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What actions will the contracting officer take if the contractor fails to respond to a show
cause notice? |
Proceed under the premise that no valid explanation exists.
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The show cause notice
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is used to notify the contractor of the possibility of termination
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When is the contractor’s right to proceed further under the contract terminated?
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Upon receipt of the notice of termination.
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When supplies or services are still required after termination for default, the contracting
officer should |
d. repurchase the same or similar supplies or services against the contractor’s account as soon as
possible. |
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The contracting officer should exercise the government’s right to terminate a contract for
commercial items only when such a termination |
d. would be in the best interest of the government.
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When termination is for the government’s convenience, what may a contractor use to
demonstrate charges resulting from the termination for which the contractor is entitled to be paid? |
c. Records from the contractor’s standard record keeping system.
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Under the Contract Terms and Conditions–Commercial Items clause, the contractor is
required to notify the contracting officer of an excusable delay |
d. as soon as possible after commencement of an excusable delay.
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A contractor has notified the contracting officer of the intent not to accept a unilateral
purchase order. In this situation, the contracting officer must |
proceed with cancellation of the order
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Contract files using simplified acquisition procedures are considered closed when the
contracting officer receives |
evidence of receipt of property and final payment.
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The DD Form 1597, Contract Closeout Checklist, is used when closing out
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contracts valued above the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT).
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Who needs to be notified when a contract containing classified material is complete and
ready to be closed? |
a. Defense Security Service.
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How would you close a contract if the contractor becomes bankrupt?
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b. Coordinate with the Office of General Counsel.
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Data transfer, storage, and retrieval procedures must record and reproduce the original
document completely, accurately, and clearly. In addition, the procedures must |
protect the original data from alteration
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The retention period for contracts at or below the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT) is
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three years after final payment
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Follow-up in simplified acquisitions is
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a. done by exception.
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When delivery is late on a commodities contract, the government may take any actions
except |
d. terminate the contract for default in accordance with Part 12 of the FAR.
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Unless otherwise specified in the contract, Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) clause
52.212–4, Contract Terms and Conditions—Commercial Items, states that risk of loss or damage |
delivered to a carrier, if transportation is free of board (FOB).
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In a commodity contract that has a Variations in Quantity clause, the variations that are
allowed by the government are those. |
caused by loading, shipping, packing, or allowances within manufacturing processes
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What document is used to guide discussions during a contract post-award conference?
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DD Form 1484, Post-Award Conference Record.
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A contracting officer (CO) might use a post-award letter in lieu of a conference when
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an incumbent contractor is awarded a new contract and the terms have not changed.
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A new wage determination must be incorporated into service contracts
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when extending the contract pursuant to an option clause
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Which statement regarding wage determinations is correct?
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Wage determinations must be incorporated at the time of award or by modification
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Items that must be addressed in a preconstruction conference include all except
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termination procedures.
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When the government takes possession prior to completion of construction, and without
final acceptance, the one-year warranty period begins |
at the time the government takes possession
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When bonds are required on a construction contract, the contractor’s notice to proceed is
issued after the |
contracting officer has received all executed bonds.
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What requires that all work under a construction contract be performed in a skillful manner?
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Material and Workmanship clause
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All are corrective actions that may be taken by the contracting officer (CO) if a contractor
falls behind the approved schedule except |
retain a maximum of 20 percent of the amount of a progress payment
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Which labor standards provisions require all laborers and mechanics employed or working
upon the site of construction to be paid unconditionally and not less often than once a week? |
Davis-Bacon Act.
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What type of labor interview is used after detecting errors in labor checks or receipt of a
complaint alleging violations? |
Special compliance check.
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Which labor standards provisions require the contractor to submit weekly copies of all
payrolls to the contracting officer and maintain payroll and basic records for a period of three years? |
Payrolls and Basic Records
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Blanket purchase agreement ordering officer responsibilities include all except
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delegating authority to authorized users within their unit.
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What term is defined in the Air Force Federal Acquisition Regulation Supplement
(AFFARS) as an emergency involving military forces caused by natural disasters, terrorists, subversives, or required military operations? |
a. Contingency.
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What determines the appropriate certification level and training that contracting personnel
should have prior to selection as a contingency contracting officer (CCO)? |
The particular tasking.
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What type of organizational structure requires contingency contracting officers (CCOs)
augmenting the organization to follow another service’s Defense Federal Acquisition Regulation Supplement (DFAS) when acquiring goods and services? |
Lead Service Theater Contracting Organization.
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A declared contingency may be designated by the
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secretary of Defense.
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Responsiveness to basic life support requirements (i.e. food services, potable water, etc.) is
the main focus of what deployment phase? |
Initial deployment
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Which task is not considered a key task in setting up a work center?
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Establishing a cutoff date for end-of-year purchases.
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All are examples of existing authorities that may be used to provide flexibility in expediting
requirements for contingency except |
using written solicitations for Requests for Proposal (RFP).
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Who determines the priority of purchase requests in a contingency?
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Deployed commander.
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What document is typically used to initially fund a contingency operation?
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AF IMT 616, Fund Cite Authorization.
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Which member of a US Embassy essentially operates a contracting office in the host nation
and can provide information on local purchasing conditions? |
Government Services Officer.
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What action must a contingency contracting officer (CCO) take to ensure the necessary
resources are made available and appropriate policies are established to carry out contracting support at a deployed location? |
Brief deployed commander on support requirements and contract capabilities.
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When connectivity issues prevent the reporting of contract actions during a contingency,
what action must a contingency contracting officer (CCO) take? |
Report the actions upon redeployment
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Which individual has overall responsibility for overseeing the management of decentralized
blanket purchase agreements (BPA)? |
b. Contracting officer.
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