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42 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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1) Which of the following is a malignant bone disease?
a. Paget's disease b. Ewing's sarcoma c. osteomyelitis d. osteoid osteoma |
b
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2) A three phase bone scan is often done to differentiate:
a. osteoporosis vs. cellulitis b. osteomyelitis vs. diskitis c. osteomyelitis vs. cellulitis d. osteoporosis vs. septic arthritis |
c
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3) The presence of gastric and thyroid activity on a bone scan signals the presence of:
a. metastatic disease b. free pertechnetate c. radionuclide impurity d. reducing agent |
b
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4) What is the purpose of a reducing agent in 99mTc diphosphonate kit?
a. to oxidize technetium b. to lower the valence state of technetium c. to improve the tag efficiency d. both b and c e. a, b and c . |
d
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5) What is the dose of 99mTc MDP most often prescribed for a planar bone scan?
a. 1-3 mCi b. 5-10 mCi c. 10-20 mCi d. 25-30 mCi |
c
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6) Which of the following is least likely to cause an artifact on a bone scan?
a. snap on trousers b. colostomy bag c. skin contaminated by urine d. injection site |
b
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7) What is not an indication for a bone scan?
a. metastatic disease b. osteoporosis c. cellulitis d. avascular necrosis |
b
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8) The presence of free pertechnetate on a bone scan may be the result of:
a. using a radiopharmaceutical which was prepared too long ago b. introduction of air into the kit vial while adding technetium c. increased blood flow to bones d. both a and b e. a, b and c |
d
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9) What is the purpose of hydration and voiding after an injection for a bone scan?
a. to block the uptake of unlabelled technetium by the stomach b. to reduce the possibility of urine contamination c. to obtain a superscan d. to reduce the radiation dose to the bladder |
d
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10) What could be the cause of generalized, diffuse activity in the abdomen on a bone scan?
a. free pertechnetate b. malignant ascites c. pacemaker d. bone cyst |
b
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11) What timing protocol best describes a 4 phase bone scan?
a. during injection, immediately following injection, 2-4 hours and 18-24 hours b. during injection, 2-4 hours, 24 hours, and 48 hours c. during injection, immediately following injection, 2-4 hours, and 6 hours d. none of the above |
a
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12) A focal hot spot near the left femur shows up on a bone scan. What is/are the best way/ways to proceed?
a. change to pinhole collimator and image b. perform SPECT imaging c. have patient remove clothing from that area d. ask patient to wash the skin in that area with soap and water e. c and d |
e
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13) A bone scan showing relatively uniformly increased skeletal uptake of radiopharmaceutical with almost absent renal and bladder activity is usually referred to as a:
a. flare phenomenon b. superscan c. renal failure d. suprascan |
b
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14) The glove phenomenon is usually the result of:
a. reactive arthritis b. intravenous injection c. antecubital injection d. arterial injection e. subcutaneous injection |
d
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15) What are common sites of bony metastasis?
a. pelvis b. spine c. ribs d. phalanges e. all of the above f. a, b, and c |
f
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16) What is the purpose of a stannous ion in a diphosphonate kit?
a. act as a reducing agent b. act as and oxidizing agent c. provide a stabilizing force d. maintain particle size |
a
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17) The appendicular skeleton includes the following bones, except:
a. the femurs b. the skull c. the phalanges d. the radius |
b
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18) The axial skeleton contains:
a. the ribs b. the skull c. the vertebral column d. the ilium e. all of the above f. a, b, and c only |
f
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19) By what mechanism do diphosphonates localize in the bone?
a. capillary blockade b. active transport c. ion exchange d. phagocytosis |
c
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20) Which of the following describe a pediatric bone scan?
a. increased uptake in long bones b. decreased uptake along epiphyseal plates c. increased uptake along epiphyseal plates d. overall decreased uptake in bone |
c
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21) The first phase of a three phase bone scan is best performed by:
a. bolus injection, followed by dynamic 2 second images for 60 seconds b. bolus injection followed by dynamic 20 second images for 3 minutes c. bolus injection followed by a static 500-600 K count image d. bolus injection followed by dynamic 1 second images for 30 seconds |
a
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22) What pharmaceuticals may be used for bone marrow imaging:
a. 99mTc albumin colloid b. 99mTc sulfur colloid c. 99mTc PYP d. a and b e. all of the above |
d
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23) What is often used in imaging suspected avascular necrosis of the hip?
a. SPECT imaging b. PET imaging c. pinhole collimation d. diverging collimation |
c
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24) Splenic uptake on a bone scan is often associated with:
a. liver failure b. sickle cell disease c. splenic abscess d. Paget's disease |
b
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25) Bone is made of-
a. hydrogen peroxide b. hydroxyapatite mineral c. collagen d. a and b only e. b and c only . |
e
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26) Osteoblastic activity refers to:
a. bone marrow biopsy b. destruction and reabsorption of bone c. bone compression d. new bone formation |
d
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27) Osteoclastic activity refers to:
a. bone marrow biopsy b. destruction and reabsorption of bone c. bone compression d. new bone formation |
b
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28) The function of the skeleton is:
a. to provide support b. to protect organs c. production of red blood cells d. all of the above e. a and b only |
d
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29) Which group shows the highest rate of primary bone tumors?
a. the elderly b. children c. males d. females |
b
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30) The radiation dose from a bone scan is highest to the:
a. bone marrow b. chest c. bladder d. brain |
c
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31) When performing a bolus injection for a 3-phase bone scan, why would the tourniquet be released and injection delayed for one minute?
a. to minimize pain during injection b. to reduce transient hyperemia resulting from vasodialation c. to double check the dynamic sequence settings d. to obtain a better bolus |
b
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32) What is the advantage of spot planar imaging over whole body imaging for a bone scan?
a. speed b. decreased patient to detector distance c. less film is used d. no need for COR correction |
b
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33) Which of the following would be a reason not to inject in the right antecubital fossa?
a. the patient has had blood drawn from the back of the right hand that same day b. the patient was injected on the right for a previous bone scan c. there is a suspicion of osseous abnormality in the right distal humerus d. the patient is left handed |
c
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34) Which of the following is not in the pelvis?
a. the ileum b. the ischium c. the iridium d. none of the above |
c
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35) The preparation for a bone scan is:
a. NPO from midnight b. cleasing enema c. patient must be off thyroid medication for 4 weeks d. none of the above e. a and b only f. all of the above |
d
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36) Metastases usually affect the axial skeleton before the appendicular skeleton.
a. true b. false |
a
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37) The advantage of bone scanning over plain radiography is/are:
a. bone must lose only a minimum of calcium content before lesions are visible on bone scintigraphy b. time c. efficient for multifocal trauma such as child abuse d. all of the above e. a and c only |
e
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38) The mechanism of localization for bone marrow scanning is:
a. active transport b. ion exchange c. phagocytosis d. capillary blockade |
c
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39) A large amount of diffuse soft tissue activity present on a bone scan at 4 hours frequently represents:
a. increased cardiac output b. renal insufficiency c. metastatic disease d. infection |
b
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40) What imaging agent can be used to image the skeleton as well as the myocardial infarction?
a. 99mTc MDP b. 99mTc HDP c. 99mTc PYP d. 201Tl chloride |
c
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41) Rib fractures often show up as:
a. multiple, focal hot spots located in consecutive ribs b. a linear distribution along the long axis of the rib c. diffuse activity in the chest cavity d. cold spots |
a
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42) The cold defect in the left proximal humerus on figure 6.1 is most likely the result of:
a. shielding b. pacemaker c. a bandage around the left upper arm d. surgically implanted metal e. motion |
d
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