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203 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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what is chemotaxis?
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chemical attraction of phagocytes to site of imflammation
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what do interfurons do?
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interfere with viral replication in cells
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what do activated macrophages do?
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preform phagocytosis
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do vaccines give active or passive immunity?
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active
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hypoventillation causes ____
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respiratory acidosis
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increased levels of the hormone cholecystokinin cause ____
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contraction of gallbladder
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what structure secretes the enzyme that breaks down starch to smaller carbohydrates?
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pancreatic exocrine cells
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Normally, the hydrostatic pressure difference between capillary fluid and interstitial fluid favors movement of fluid ________ a tissue capillary. The protein osmotic pressure difference between capillary fluid and interstitial fluid normally favors movement of fluid __________ a tissue capillary.
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out of
into |
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what does active hyperemia depend on?
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metabolic activity of organ
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increased metabolic activity leads to ____ which causes ___ of arterioles
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increased interstitial fluid metabolites
dilation |
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what lasts longer: diastole or systole?
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diastole
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how does glucose enter cells?
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facilitated diffusion
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defficiency of B12 can lead to ____
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percanticuous anemia
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products of fat digestion first go to ___ then to ____
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lymphatic system
veins leading to heart |
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what makes bile?
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liver
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what is the pacemaker of the heart?
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SA node
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short-loop negative feedback occurs when hormones from the ______ inhibit hormone secretion by the _____
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anterior pituitary
hypothalmus |
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Binding of ATP to myosin permits cross-bridge ____ between actin and myosin in skeletal muscle cells.
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detachment
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cells that secrete steroid hormones have lots of ____ and ____
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mitochondria and smooth ER
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in diabetes mellitus, why does glucose appear in urine?
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The filtered load of glucose becomes greater than the tubular maximum for its reabsorption
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what do stretch reflexes inhibit?
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antagonistic muscles
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what hormone directly stimulates calcium reabsorption by kidneys?
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parathyroid hormone
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what are the three types of blood cells?
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RBC, WBC, and platlets
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what do plasma cells do?
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secrete antibodies
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what are the three types of leukocytes?
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polymorphonuclear granulocytes, monocytes, and lymphocytes
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what are the three types of polymorphonuclear granulocytes?
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neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils
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what are the two types of leukocytes?
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granular and agranular
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describe granulocytes
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lots of small, encolsed granules
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describe monocytes
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named for their single, non lobulated nucleus
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what are the two types of a granulocytes?
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monocytes and lymphocytes
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what do neutrophils do?
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phagototic numbers increase during infections
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what do eosinophils do?
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Defend against parasitic worms; engulf pollen and animal dander.
Granules contain toxic molecules that attack parasites |
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what do basophils do?
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Non-phagocytic
Contribute to allergic reactions Granules contain Histamine |
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what do monocytes do?
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Phagocytic
Migrate to tissues and become macrophages |
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what are the two types of lymphocytes?
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B cells and T cells
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what do cytokines do?
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allows cells of immune system to talk to other cells of body
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what are examples of nonspecific defenses?
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physical barriers
inflamation inturfurons natural killer cells complement system |
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describe events in localized innate inflammatory response of bacteria
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1) bacteria enters,
2) vasodilation of effected area, increased blood flow 3) increase in protien permeability of capillaries and venues (diffusion of protien and filtration of fluid into interstitial space) 4) chemotaxis (movement of leukocytes from venules into interstitial fluid of infected area) 5) bacteria destroyed through phagocytosis or other means 6) Tissue repair |
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neutrophils can be either ___ or ____
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circulating or marginating
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how do marginating neutrophils detect invaders?
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chemotaxis with vessle walls
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what happens when neutrophils detect invaders?
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they adhere, then move between vessel cells via diapedesis into the interstitial space..
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what happens when a patient takes steroids?
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WBC tend to demarginate and circulate
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what is very important in phagocytosis?
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lysosomes!
: Nitric Oxide, Hydrogen Peroxide |
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describe the process of phagocytosis
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-invader enters and is endocytosed
-phagosome forms then binds with lysosome -phagocytosis occurs and then releases contenets either inside of or outside of cell |
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describe Opsonization.
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Opsonins attach through a thickened cell wall or a mucous covering on a bacterium.
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what are two things that can happen when phagocytes make contact with microbes?
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phagocytosis or secretion of chemicals by phagocytes
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what happens in septic shock?
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vasodilation all over body
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what are the four things that can happen when phagocytes secrete chemicals?
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1) regulation of inflammatory process
2) extracellular killing of microbes 3) activation of clotting and anticlotting pathways 4) hormonal regulation of overall body response |
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what do monocytes get converted to?
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macrophages
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what happens in brain when there is an increase of plasma IL and TNF?
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fever
decreased appetite decreased eating sleepiness fatigue |
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what happens in liver when there is an increase of plasma IL and TNF?
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retains iron and zinc
secretes acute phase proteins |
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what happens in bone marrow when there is an increase of plasma IL and TNF?
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increased production and release of leukocytes
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what happens in adipose tissue when there is an increase of plasma IL and TNF?
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increased lipolysis so increased plasma free fatty acids
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what happens in muscle when there is an increase of plasma IL and TNF?
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increased protein breakdown and increased amino acid release
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what happens in hypothalmus and anterior pituitary when there is an increase of plasma IL and TNF?
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increased ACTH secretion so increased cortical secretion from adrenal cortex
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describe a histimine response.
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mast cells are activated by immune mediator
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what is the complement system composed of?
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plasma proteins that lyse foreign cells (especially bacteria)
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how many proteins participate in MAC?
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about 30
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what does MAC do? where?
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surface of bacteria
ruptures the bacterial membrane causing lysis of the bacteria and death of the organism. |
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is the complement cascade activated by specific or immune response?
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both
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what can activated complement proteins do?
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1) direct destruction of microbes by MAC
2) vasodilation and increased permeability of cappilaries and venules to proteins 3) chemotaxis 4) enhancements of phagocytosis (opsonization) |
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describe a C reactive protien
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opsonin
Made in the liver. elevated in inflammation and heart disease |
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what are the phases of inflammation?
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1) bleeding
2) inflammation 3) proliferation 4) remodeling |
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describe proliferation
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-new cells come in while damaged/dead cells are “recycled”
-angiogenesis brings new vascular supply in -firoblasts multiply rapidly and release collagen to create “scaffolding” for the replacement tissue. |
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why do some people scar more than others?
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fibroblast issue
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what do interferons do?
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nonspecific immunity against viruses
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what happens when a cell gets infected with a virus?
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- it makes interferons
-interferons attach to all "self" cells they can find -those cells now make loads of antivirals -now viruses can get in but they can't replicate |
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what does adaptive immunity utilize?
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lymphocytes that recognize specific foreign molecules as antigens
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what are the three steps of an adaptive immune response?
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1) encounter
2) activate 3) attack |
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what are primary lymphoid organs?
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bone marrow
thymus |
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what are secondary lymphoid organs?
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Spleen
Lymph nodes Tonsils Adenoids Appendix Peyer’s patches |
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what is each lymph node filled with?
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lymphatic nodules
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what happens in lymph node?
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Lymph flows into one side and “percolates” through the nodules to the other side.
Lymphocytes that are exposed to “non-self” are activated. |
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describe lymphocyte flow
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from lymph nodes to spleen to bloodstream back to lymph nodes
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lymphatic channels return fluid to ____
how do they return a large amount of fluid? |
viens
thoracic duct |
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how do B and T cells origionate from pluripotent stem cell?
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cells differentiate into myeloid and lymphoid cells
lymphoid cells develop into B or T cells |
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where do immature T cells go?
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thymus
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where do mature B cells go?
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secondary lymphatic organs
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when lymphcytes are at "school" in thymus and bloodstream, what do they create?
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special set of binding proteins that are unique to that cell alone and display those proteins on their surface.
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Apoptosis of all B and T cells that might be “anti-self” happens during ___
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embryonic development
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Immune tolerance develops during fetal and early postnatal life due to ___
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clonal deletion or clonal activation
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what is hodgekins disease?
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cancer of lymphatic system
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what is effected in AIDS?
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helper T cells
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in B cells, specific proteins on surface are ____ but when secreted are ____
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surface receptors
antibodies |
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receptors of T cell only bind to ___
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an antigen+ MHC combo
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which takes more to activate: B cell or T cell?
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T cell
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what are T cells divided into
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helper T's and cytotoxic T's
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what do helper T cells do?
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amplify both the B cell and T cell process
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what do T cells do?
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directly effect antigen bearing cells
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what do B cells do?
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produce antibodies
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what are lymphocyte receptors
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antibodies
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what are the parts of antibodies?
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light chain and heavy chain
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which is variable in antibodies: light or heavy chain?
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light chain
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how many antigen binding sites are on each antibody?
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2
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what do antibodies do?
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bind to specific antigen so antigen is inactivated and destroyed
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what are the functions of antibodies?
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-Neutralization
-Agglutination -Opsonization -Complement Activation -Enhanced Natural Killer Cell Activity |
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what do T cells work in conjunction with?
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MHC molecules
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what are the two types of MHC molecules? describe.
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class 1= expressed on the surface of all nucleated cells.
class 2= expressed only on the surface of macrophages, activated B cells, activated T cells, and thymus cells. |
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what is responsible for tissue or organ rejection? why?
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MHC since they stimulate the host’s immune response to the donor’s foreign tissue.
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what is the risk of immunosupprecents?
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more risk of infection and more risk of cancers later
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what are Cells that present foreign molecules attached to their MHC called?
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antigen presenting cells
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what can activate helper T cells?
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class 2 MHCs
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to get activated, the helper T must ___
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1) Bind an Class II-MHC-epitope complex;
2) Also bind adjoining proteins; 3) Be stimulated by IL-1 and TNF from the presenting cell (paracrine activity). |
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The little piece of antigen that’s presented with the MHC is called ___
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epitope
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why is it so difficult to increase helper T cell function?
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they are powerful and turn up all immune function
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what can activate cytotoxic t cells?
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Class I & Class II MHC’s
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what is the job of cytotoxic t cells? how?
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-kill any cell that’s infected/cancerous
-they destroy cells by secreting digestive enzymes into them |
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cytotoxic t cells are particularly helpful with ____ and _____
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tumor cells or lysogenic viruses
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what are NK cells?
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class of lymphocytes similar to cytotoxic T cells, whose major targets are virus-infected cells and cancer cells; however, they are not antigen-specific.
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why are NK cells specific?
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Though these are non-specific cells, like the ones of innate immunity, they are activated by exposure to helper T cells-- so considered part of specific immunity.
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what happens when an antigen gets in?
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-antigen gets into lymphatics
-B’s and Macrophages get exposed to antigen in the spleen or lymphnode -Macrophages eat the invaders and: present them to T cells using the MHC -Macrophages also Release cytokines like IL-1 and TNF. -Helper T’s are now activated and make IL-2. they make a giant colony of helper-T cells against this one invader. -Helper T’s now go to the B cell area and releast B-Cell-Activating cytokines. -. B’s PROLIFERATE LIKE CRAZY and become either: plasma cells, making loads of antibodies, or memory B cells– a “queen bee” colony of B cells against tis particular antigen which can be awakened quickly. |
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what normally protects adjacent normal structures from the toxic effects of the chemicals employed by the killing mechanisms?
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linkage to specific antibodies
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what type of connective tissue is facia?
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dense
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what type of connective tissue is adipose?
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loose
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blast=
clasts= cytes |
blasts= build
clasts= break down cytes= maintain |
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grooves and ridges on bones are almost always ___
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tunles and attachments
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all bones come from ___ cells
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mesenchymal
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In long bones, mesenchymal cells differentiate into ___ which ____
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chondroblasts which lay down a cartilage precursor for bone
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where does bone initially clafify?
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midshaft
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This initial bone growth is the _____; this first site of bone growth is the ____.
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periosteal bud
primary ossification center. |
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The ends of the bone will later develop secondary ossification centers via _____
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ingrowth if epiphyseal arteries
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how does epithelial tissue get nutrients?
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interstitial fluid diffusion
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describe superficial fascia
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subcutaneous tissue– the stuff that holds skin in place
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describe deep fascia
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a dense, organized connective tissue layer covering most of the body parallel to the skin.
serves as muscle attachment |
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list functions of skin
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contains
protects detects regulates body temp |
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how is heat generated in skin?
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erector muscle of hair
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when arector pili contract, they ____
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secrete oils
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describe the roles of the sub Q
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structural layer- holds skin in place but allows for flexibility, insulates, protects, capilary bed location, and metabolic storage
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describe cleavage lines
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-lines of natural tension within skin
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what is a motor unit?
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all the muscle fibers innervated by a single motor neuron.
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which is located closest to nerve surface: pia, arachnoid, or dura?
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pia
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what houses cerebrospinal fluid?
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arachnoid
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where are miningies located?
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dura
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A Nerve ROOT carries either:
___ or ____ |
-efferent fibers from ventral root to effector organ
-afferent fibers from sensory organ to dorsal root |
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a root ramus carries either ___ or ___
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-Sensory and motor for the spine and parts of the back
-Sensory and motor for all the rest of the body |
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what is a dermatome?
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region innervated by the sensory fibers of one spinal nerve.
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what is the monomer unit of DNA and RNA?
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neuclotide
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how is sugar phosphate backbone formed?
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covalent bonding between the phosphate of one nucleotide and the sugar of the next nucleotide
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how is DNA diff from RNA?
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1) RNA is single stranded
2) DNA uses T, RNA uses U 3) DNA exists in nucleus and mitochondria but RNA is made in nucleus and travels to cytoplasm 4) DNA= deoxyribose, RNA= ribose |
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why is DNA replication semiconservative?
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Each strand is used as a pattern to produce a complementary strand
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what are the two protiens involved in DNA replication?
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DNA polymerase and DNA ligase
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DNA polymerase can only add on ___ end
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3'
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what does DNA ligase do?
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joins small fragments of DNA to form a continuous chain
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DNA proceeds in ___ direction from orgin of replication
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both
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what are the two functions of DNA polymerase?
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DNA replication and DNA proofreading
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which viruses mutate faster: DNA or RNA? why?
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RNA because RNA polymerase does not proofread
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each amino acid is specified by a ___
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codon (3 neucleotides)
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what initiates transcription?
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RNA polymerase binds to a promoter region of the double helix, where the helix unwinds and transcription starts
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how is transcription stopped?
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RNA polymerase reaches a terminator sequence and detaches from the template
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where does transcription occur?
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nucleus
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which is worse: error in DNA or error in RNA?
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DNA
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what does mRNA contain?
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codons for protein sequences
-mRNA has interrupting sequences called introns, separating the coding regions called exons |
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what is trimmed out: introns or exons?
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introns
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after splicing, mRNA has ___ or it can't leave neuclus
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has a cap and tail added
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what is a mutation?
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change in the nucleotide sequence of DNA
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what is a base substitution?
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replacement of one nucleotide with another
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what is a deletion or insertion?
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Alter the reading frame of the mRNA, so that nucleotides are into different codons
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what is gene expression?
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the overall process of information flow from genes to proteins
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where is gene expression controlled?
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transcriptional level
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how is differentiaton controlled?
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turning specific sets of genes on or off in response to cellular signals.
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what is DNA packing?
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Chromosomes undergo multiple levels of folding and coiling. DNA is wrapped around histones. can prevent transcription
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___ chromosomes represent the highest level of packing
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metaphase
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in women, one x chromosome is ___
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inactive in every somatic cell
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what is inactivated X chromosome called?
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barr body
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genes are usually ____ and require ____ to be turned on
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turned off
activators (usually regulator proteins) |
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what do transcription factors do?
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help RNA polymerase bind to the promoter
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what do activator protiens do?
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bind to DNA enhancer regions to promote transcription
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what do silencers do?
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Silencers attach to DNA and inhibit transcription
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what are four ways to control gene expression?
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Breakdown of mRNA
Initiation of translation Protein activation Protein breakdown |
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would a gene’s expression be increased or decreased by each of these?
A piece of mRNA fails to receive a poly-A tail during processing in the nucleus |
decreased
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would a gene’s expression be increased or decreased by each of these?
The mRNA becomes more stable and lasts twice as long in the cell cytoplasm |
increased
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would a gene’s expression be increased or decreased by each of these?
The region of the chromatin containing the gene becomes tightly compacted |
decreased
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would a gene’s expression be increased or decreased by each of these?
An enzyme that is needed to cleave and activate the protein product is missing |
decreased
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why can a cloned cat have a different coat than her mother?
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Different X-Inactivation when her Barr Bodies were formed.
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what is an allele?
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alternate version of a gene
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describe mendel's law of segregation
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Allele pairs separate (segregate) from each other during the production of gametes so that a sperm or egg carries only one allele for each gene
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what does crosssing over do? when does it happen?
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creates diversity
meiosis |
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what is the exception to the law of independent assortment?
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linked traits
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what is incomplete dominance?
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neither allele is dominant over the other. Expression of both alleles is observed as an intermediate phenotype in the heterozygous individual.
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what is polygenic inheritance?
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many genes influence one trait
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what is pleitrophy?
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A single gene may affect many phenotypic characteristics
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what is evolutionary fitness?
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ability to survive long enough to pass your genes on to the next generation of your species.
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what needs to happen in order for genetic disease to decrease in population?
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Genetic Diseases must affect reproductive fitnes
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what is genomic imprinting?
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For most genes, we inherit two working copies -- one from mom and one from dad. But with imprinted genes, we inherit only one working copy.
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how is a gene silenced in genetic imprinting?
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addition of methyl groups during egg or sperm formation.
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what causes prader willi syndrome?
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deletion from paternal allele
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what causes angleman syndrome?
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deletion from maternal allele
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what are characteristiscs of prader willi syndrome?
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mental retardation,
obesity extreme food seeking hypogonadism |
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what are characteristisc of anglemans syndrome?
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mental retardation,
smiling face seizures, feeding problems, jerky movements hyperactivity, speech problems |
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what is genetic anticipation?
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increase in severity of phenotype in successive generations due to instability in parts of genome
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what causes fragile X?
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unstable CGG
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what cells are involved in innate immunity?
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macrophages and neutrophils
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are NK cells specific or innnate?
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both
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what do macrophages send out?
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cytokines
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what are cells involved in specific immunity?
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B cells and T cells
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what are the two types of B cells?
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plasma and memory
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what are the two types of T cells?
|
helper and cytotoxic`
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which is innate which is specific: cytokines and compliment?
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both are innate but complement is triggered by specific things
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all cells that are disrupted by inflamation release ____ which activate ____
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cytokines
innate cells |
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what are the three things involved in the complement system?
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MAC, opsinozation, chemotaxins
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what is last big step of clotting cascade?
|
prothrombin to thrombin then fibriginogen to fibren
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what are the important clotting factors?
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5 and 8
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what are the two parts of clotting cascade?
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extrensic and intrensic
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