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288 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
What is an organism that causes infection and disease
Pathogen
which classification of organisms is responsible for the disease malaria
Sporozoa
Which stage of infection is the period of time between the invasion of the infectious agent into the body and the onset of symptoms of the particular disease
incubation
The mucous membrane filters and traps foreign bodies through
cilia
which of the following is not a type of transmission based precaution
enteric
which transmission based precaution must have monitored, negative air pressure
Airborne
What is the most serious type of meningitis
bacterial
One of the most common and serious complications a female may develop from gonorrhea is
PID pelvic inflammatory disease
Which medical term refers to practices designed to eliminate all micro-organisms
Surgical asepsis
which substance is used to inhibit the growth and development of microorganisms on living tissues
Antisceptic
what type of isolation are patients highly susceptible to infection placed in
Reverse
What procedures are followed when transporting an infectious patient to the radiology department
give the patient a gown, mask and gloves to wear before transport
An acceptable alternative to an anteroom for an isolation unit is
an isolation cart
when using a mask in an isolation unit put the mask on...
before entering, and take it off before leaving
what is the first step in preparing objects for sterilization
cleaning
how long is and item immersed in the sterilant during the sterilization cycle of a peracetic acid sterilization
12 minutes
which is not a commonly used disinfecting agent
hydrochloric acid
how often do you clean and inspect steam sterilizers
daily and weekly
diagnostic tests should be run on a peracetic acid sterilizer every
24 hours
how often should biological testing be conducted and documented for hydrogen peroxide plasma sterilizers
at least once per day
which basic human need category is rest included in
physiological
which vitamins are necessary for the production of red blood cells
B-complex vitamins
what substance is necessary for hemoglobin synthesis
Iron
Plasma lipids include what three substances
Triglycerides, phospholipids, and cholesterol
what two actions are included in the physiological need of rest
pain free and rest
what reflex is displayed when an infant reacts to sudden noise or movement by extending and retracting the arms and legs
Moro
A toddler is expected to weigh four times the birth weight are age
24 months
Which of the following is most likely to be a part of a work site wellness program
blood pressure screenings
what substance does the body need in order to absorb vitamin B12
Intrinsic factor
B12 deficiency are first noted by
Pernicious anemia
Vitamin B6 concentration in food sources is lost through
freezing
large doses of vitamin C cause all of the following except
constipation
a primary sign of a vitamin E overdose is readily seen through the disease process of
prolonged clotting time
Vitamin K is not used to treat which of the following ailments
heparin overdose/ulcerative colitis ???
which of the following vitamins is not fat-soluble
vitamin C
vitamin D interacts with all of the following except
calcium
signs of sodium chloride deficiency can be seen
through an excessive amount of fluid loss
Half-Normal saline solution is represented by
0.45%
Potassium helps to maintain
heartbeat regulation
caution must be taken when administering potassium to individuals with all of the following except
diabetes
Oral iron supplements should not be taken with
tea, milk or coffee
which route is injectable iron administered
z-track
when larger molecules are constructed from smaller molecules this is known as
anabolism
cellular metabolism is controlled by a specific kind of
enzyme
electrolytes that release hydrogen ions in water are called
acids
when an excessive amount of fats are metabolized, it can be noted by
acetone in the breath and urine
which of the following is an accurate definition of leukocytes
protect against disease at the cellular level
the two main categories of leukocytes are
granulocytes and agranulocytes
Neutrophils are also known as
polymorphonuclear leukocytes
the life span of lymphocytes is
years
what cells do lymph nodes contain in large number to fight invading microorganisms
lymphocyte and macrophages
when a child scrapes his or her hands and infection results, which lymph nodes will become enlarged
supratrochlear
children who receive routine childhood immunizations are protected by
artificially acquired active immunity
The body's first step in the healing process is
inflammation
During which stage of healing are immature fiber cells and capillaries formed
inflammation
The fibrous structural protein collagen is found in all connective tissue during which stage of healing
reconstruction
Full maturation of a wound is evident when
the scaring is white and glossy
for many parients who suffer from severe injuries or medical conditions their first psychological reaction is
shock and disorientation
what electrolyte deficit or excess can cause dysrythmias, leading to cardiac or respiratory arrest
hyperkalemia
what acid-base imbalance is likely to occur when a patient has excessive vomiting, excessive suctioning or ingested too many antacids
metabolic alkalosis
which acid base imbalance is caused by hyperventilating
respiratory alkadosis
deficiency is respirations such as slow or irregular shallow respriations can lead to an excessive accumulation of carbon dioxide in the blood which results in a condition called
respiratory acidosis
to avoid infections, you should change a patients hyperalimentation solution bag and tubing daily and now allow the container to hang longer than
8 hours
when selection and intravenous (IV) solution, what size IV bags in cubic centimeters would you possibly be able to select from?
100-2000cc
Normally, how high above patients should you hang an IV bag
24-36 inches
If a patient exhibits a mild allergic response to an IV solution, what should you do?
Slow the infusion
How much fecal material should you collect to send to the lab for a stool specimen
2 tablespoons
After obtaining a blood sample, instruct the patient to maintain pressure over the venipunture site for
2-3 minutes
during a skin puncture, why is the first drop wiped away>
it contains epithelial cells which may interfere with the test results
what step should you take before operating a glucose meter
read the operating instructions
The normal fasting blood glucose level in milligrams/deciliter is
70-115
In the subjective information section of the paperwork, it is important to identify the patients
complaint of a headache
a protoscopy is an inspection of the
rectum
what position would you normally place a patient in for a sigmoidoscopy
sims
when educating the patient with psuedofolliculitis barbae on the proper shaving method, you should instruct the patient to avoid all the following except shaving
with the direction of hair growth
how do you measure the visual field
Determine degrees away from fixation
when asking the patient if he or she wears glasses, contact lenses or if he or she has ever had eye problems prior to conducting an Optec 2300 Vision Tester exam, the patients responses will determine
sequence of test performance
how many test slides are included in the standard test category of the optec 2300 Vision Tester
Seven
how many inches from the test plate must the examinee be sitting for the PIP test
30
when performing a pulmonary function test on a patient, accourding to air force standards, abnormal functions are present if the predicted force expiratory volume at 1 second ( FEV1) or forced vital capacity (FVC) percentage is less than?
80
During pulmonary function testing, the minimum number of practice attempts and acceptable tracings an examinee must perform are
2; 3
Where does the electrical stimulation of the heart muscle initiate
sinoatrial mode
Where is the Purkinje fiber network the most elaborate
Left ventricle
Any artificial products or features which appear on an electrocardiogram tracing are called:
artifacts
If you are performing an electrocardiogram on someone who is rated, a copy of that electrocardiogram must be sent to the:
US Air Force Central Electrocardiogram Library
For orthostatic vital sign measurements, what is the correct sequence to take the blood pressure and pulse; and what is the correct time interval between readings:
Lying, sitting, standing; 3 minutes
Notify the nurse or physician immediately if the patient's oxygen saturation ( SaO2) falls below:
97 percent
When checking the eyes during a neurological exam, the pupils should:
constrict quickly and simultaneously
When can the minor surgery procedure begin:
After the consent form is signed
When cleaning a two inch laceration on a healthy active duty male's right forearm, you notice some foreign material in the wound, what would be the next step
Flush the wound
After you have applied a topical anesthetic to a wound that requires treatment, what should you do next?
Begin suturing the wound
In the Air Force, how often should you check emergency equipment and supplies in the crash ambulance:
daily
How much vacuum must suction units provide when the tube is clamped:
300 mm Hg
Which emergency response refers to an emergency, responding with lights and sirens on ?
Code 3, hot
When transmitting information about a patient over the radio, what info should you not broadcast
name
In the AF, you can use lights and sirens on an ambulance call only
when local protocol authorizes it
The action of assessing the scene of an accident to provide valuable info to the emergency medical technician (EMT) is called
scene sizeup
If the patient is not alert and his or her breathing is slower than eight breaths per minute provide
ventilations with a bag-valve-mask (BVM) and high-flow oxygen
A rapid trauma assessment is performed on a patient with
a significant mechanism of injury, and focuses on the area of the body where the greatest threats to the patient are.
When you ask a medical patient what may have triggered his or her pain, you are questioning about
Provocation
While gathering a history of illness, when you ask a medical patient if the pain is constant or intermittent, what are you trying to determine?
time
When preparing to unload a patient from an ambulance, what should you do first:
Ensure all straps are secured on the patient
if you see clear fluid running out of the ears, you should
not block the fluid from draining
WHile examining a patient that fell from a ladder, you notice a bruise behind the ear, what injury should you suspect:
Basal Skull Fracture
WHich Acronym is used by EMT in the field to describe a possible fracture:
painful, swollen deformity (PSD)
while working in the ER, a patient comes in and states that he has splashed a chemical in his eye, what should you determine first?
If the patient is wearing contact lenses and which type
in what anatomical location is the pacemaker lead inserted when using a temp external pulse generator system:
right atrium
When setting up a cardiac monitor, the legal document you should pay attention to and fix if it is not correct is the:
electrocardiogram tracing date and time
which statement would be the responsibility of the medical technician during a routine patient admission to a nursing unit
obtain patients vital signs, height and weight
what considerations determine the steps in the routine admission process
patients condition and the facility policy
While admitting a patient, you notice that the patient seems dizzy and unstable, what should you do
inform the nurse that the patient is at risk for falling
who authorizes transfer of patient care for an interservice transfer
both service chief
during the transfer of a psychiatric patient requiring sedation, how are the patients valuables safeguarded
designated custodian signs for the property, and forwards the items by registered mail
which statement allows a patient to depart from the medical facility for a short period of time usually between 24 and 48 hours
pass
Verbal orders must be countersigned by the physician within
24 hours
the most common forms that a medical technician will be responsible for completing are the
Intake and Output flow sheet and the vital signs record
what is the proper method of annotating shift change totals on the DD form 792 I &O sheet
circle the last accumulated total
if an inpatient chart with doctor's orders for vital signs every 4 hours was blank for the day you would assume the
vital signs were not completed
which nursing activity is the main aspect of resolving nursing diagnoses:
Planning
Relative to the nursing process, what is a client goal:
a realistic and measurable statement of the expected change in patient behavior
Which action is performed to help the patient reach his or her goals most effectively:
Nursing interventions
what is a way to help relieve most of the patient's concerns prior to surgery:
Preoperative teaching
what has a significant impact on the patient's perceived quality of care and treatment:
Professionalism and caring attitude
the surgery patient is given a preoperative med to
dry mucous membranes
what surgical case would likely be performed in a SAME DAY surgery clinic
Odonectomy
WIthout provider approval, what are the maximum minutes antiembolism stockings may be
30
what precaution is take for a postoperative patient who received a radioisotope implant:
Isolation is necessary
When performing a neurological check on a patient, which exam would indicate an appropriate response to light being flashed on the patient's eye
Pupils Equal, round, Reactive to Lights and Accommodations ( PERRLA)
WIth regard to blood transfusions, one of your responsibilities is to document a patient's transfusion on
Standard Form 518
What component of blood is involved in the clotting process
Platelets
How is whole blood normally supplied:
450 cc units
What is the guideline for the max minutes of time from pick up to transfusion start of blood products:
30
If a patient you are monitoring is receiving a blood transfusion and you notice distended neck veins and dyspnea. What should you do first:
Stop the Transfusion
A post-operative patient who is agitated, trashing violently or crying incessantly is most likely experiencing:
emergence delirium
Ideally, in what position is a patient placed before performing oropharyngeal suctioning:
Semisitting
a fracture that results from disease, such as metastatic cancer of the bone, is called :
pathologic
Orthopaedic deformities such as a clubfoot or wryneck are categorized as
congenital
Military personnel are commonly treated or hospitalized for what orthopedic problems:
traumatic injuries
the semi-recumbent position should be avoided over long periods of time in patients with orthopedic disorders bc it:
promotes flexion deformities of the hip
what orthopedic problem would you suspect if your patient complains of soreness or aching :
Muscular pain
which is not a determining factor for the healing time of a bone fracture:
Gender
The cramping, burning, or crushing pain complained about by amputees in their missing limb is referred to as a :
phantom limb pain
What equipment is essential to have at the postoperative bedside after surgical amputation:
Tourniquet
Rehab for a patient with a spinal cord injury is normally
A life long process
Turning a patient on a STRYKER frame quickly after a spinal cord injury can cause
Cardiac Arrest
During the acute stage of the stroke, the primary goal is to:
sustain life
During which child developmental stage is separation anxiety the most stressful:
Preschool
Which statement provides a hospitalized child with a sense of control:
Established daily rituals and routines
The normal adaptive mechanism used by children when they loose their sense of control is
regression
when caring a child with nausea and vomiting, a primary concern would be
Dehydration
which reason is not appropriate for restraining a child:
You have other tasks to do, and no time to sit with the child
The amount of sleep required at night by elderly patients is generally:
less because of frequent daytime naps
How would you help stimulate the appetite of an elderly patient:
Cater to the patient's customs
The first stage of dying is
denial
What serious side effect is the result of leakage of chemotherapy from the vein into the surrounding tissue
Extravasation
All that a person is, feels, and does is generally termed:
Personality
What affects an individuals feelings about themselves?
Self Perception
WHich psychiatric term defines an irresisitible urge to perform apparently meaningless actions:
Compulsions
WHich psychiatric term defines a functional disorder where there is not gross disorganization of personality or a loss of contact with reality:
Neuroses
A patient who feels unloved, unneeded, inferior, and hurt displays a behavior of:
withdrawal
How are behavior disorders and syndromes grouped into categories:
Shared characteristics or established criteria
when does the rehab process begin with a mentally ill patient:
as soon as the patient is admitted
What major problem affects mental health treatment:
Attitude of society
When observing and reporting on mentally ill patients, the most important factor to consider is
behavior
If you see a mentally ill patient sneak out of the nursing unit, take all of the following actions EXCEPT
leave the other patients to follow the escaping patient
who is at fault for the sexual abuse of a child:
Abuser
What action, if any, should you take if you notice a child you are taking care of shows signs of abuse such as burns or bruises?
Report the suspected abuse
What occurs in the third phase of spousal abuse:
Spouses states it will never happen again (honeymoon phase/love phase)
If a patient is being restrained, what position should her or she be in if the patient is recovering from alcohol intoxication and is extremely agitated:
Prone Position
For patients who suffers from pain, the best way to ensure a successful exercise activity program is to
begin the program early in the patient's hospital stay.
WHen planning activities for patients with psychological problems, you primary goal should be to:
develop a good rapport
what should you do to help patients who become angry and hostile:
allow them to channel their hostility through verbal expression
To aid in preventing decubitus ulcers, patients positioning should be changed every
2 hours
Why should your feet be parallel when you are standing:
Maintain balance and prevent back, hip and leg strain
Your stability increases as your center of gravity moves closer to your:
base of support
which technique for moving the patient up in bed is not used for a patient who has back or chest injuries:
shoulder-lift
When turning a patient, what is the most important precaution to take whether you are pushing or pulling the patient:
Raise the fair side rail
When transferring patients, you can reduce the change of injury to yourself by
using good teamwork and proper body mechanics
a patient's feet must be placed on the floor or a footstool during "dangling" to prevent
Pressure on the back of the legs
which devices can be used to slide a patient from the bed to a stretcher:
drawsheet and roller board
WHen helping a patient to ambulate, who should you stand and where should you place your hands:
Beside and a little behind the patient with one hand on the patient's waist and one hand under the patient's near arm.
Which is a safe, stable gait that can be used by patient's who can bear some weight on both legs:
Four-point (4)
Which gait is used by patients who can bear full body weight on one foot and partial or no weight on the other
Three-point (3)
Isometric exercises are activities that involve
Muscle contraction without body movement
Care must be take to ensure patients DO NOT hold their breath while performing isometric exercises as they may cause
heart attack
What diet is usually ordered for patients who have difficulty chewing or swallowing, or need to alter the amount of residue in the digestive tract:
Liquid
The diet that is inadequate in all nutrients and should NOT be given for more than 3 days is
clear liquid
what should the solution temperature be during gastric gavage:
Room Temperature
To prevent rapid decompression of the urinary bladder, the max amount of urine to remove during catherization is between
750 to 1000 cc.
During catherization of a female patient, how many inches (how far) is the catheter inserted for placement in the urinary bladder:
2 to 3 inches
The urinary catheter is pinched prior to removal from the bladder to
Prevent air from entering into the bladder
For what length of time in minutes should the patient retain the solution of a cleansing enema:
5 MINUTES
The patient's colostomy bag should be changed when it is
one-third full (1/3)
what is the normal arterial oxygen saturation range
95% to 98%
For patients using a non-breathing mask, the inspired oxygen concentration is
60% to 90%
Which mask is suggested for patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
Venturi
Before performing tracheostomy care, you would firs:
asses the stoma for patency
This is usually described by the patient as a jumping , pounding, or stopping of the heart within the chest
Palpitation
When preparing a patient for insertion of a central venous pressure line, what maneuver is taught to the patient to decrease the chance of an air embolism:
Valsalva
For insertion of a central venous pressure line into a neck vein, in what position should the patient be placed:
TRENDELENBURG
How many minutes should you irrigate a chemical burn to the eyes:
20 minutes
There is a high rate of success for tooth replacement if a dentist carries out the procedure within how many minutes of the accident:
30 Minutes
how are corneal abrasions detected:
Fluorescein stain
Damage to the epidermis with possible damage to the dermis and its appendages is classified as what type of burn:
Partial thickness
When caring for a patient with electrical burns at a facility, you first priority is
management of the patient's airway
How would you apply a dressing with the intention of debriding a wound:
Wet to Dry
what reflex action would be caused if you leave a heat treatment in place for a prolonged period of time:
Reflex Vasoconstriction
When applying a cold treatment, how long should you leave it in place:
20-30 MINUTES
A specialist who can guide a provider in prescribing drugs i best defined as a:
clinical pharmacist
Out of the several names given each medication, which of these drug names is given by the manufacturer
Trade name
which statement is TRUE regarding the role of a medical service tech in medication admin:
Techs are permitted to administer meds under the supervision of a nurse or physician
Which statement is NOT considered one of the patient's legal and ethical rights:
Choose the method of administration
Which one of these is NOT included in the "FIVE RIGHTS" of medication administration:
Right Documentation
What type of medication order states that a medication is to be administered immediately and only once:
Stat.
A provider can initiate a drug order in how many ways:
TWO (2)
Drug Admin is controlled primarily by:
Federal Law
What classification of drugs is NOT acceptable for medical use
Schedule I (one)
Narcotics, such as codeine, cocaine, and amphetamines, that have a high potential for abuse but have acceptable medical uses are classified as
Schedule II (two)
What law requires a periodic inventory of all controlled substances:
Controlled Substances Act
Penicillin administered to treat an infection is an example of what category of drugs:
Curative
The purpose of most drug therapy is to
Maintain a constant level of the drug in the body
why are oral meds that are taken before meals generally faster acting:
Lower digestive system content
which statement is TRUE regarding how ambient temperature can affect drug action?
Warmer temperatures increase circulation and cause rapid drug action
which of these is a common reference source for drugs:
Physician Desk Reference
What publication contains a list of meds available from the MTF's pharmacy, recommended dispensing instructions, and admin guidelines:
Local facility formulatory
an oily liquid used on the skin describes a type of med prep called a
liniment
what type of med is used to prevent or correct irregular heart action:
Antiarrhythmics
what type of med has a cleansing action that produces watery evac of instestinal content:
Cathartics
which of these elements is NOT required on a med order
patient's age
Before administering any medication, you are responsible for all of the following EXCEPT
for ensuring A1C Jones is available for work the next day
how many pounds are equal to 65kg:
143 lbs
Dr Young has ordered Mrs. Green to receive 5mg/kg of Ancef twice a day. Mrs. Green weighs 65 kg. The med Ancef is supplied in vitals 50mg/mL. How many milligrams of med will be given twice a day:
325 milligrams
Dr Young has ordered Mrs. Green to receive 5mg/kg of Ancef twice a day. Mrs. Green weighs 65 kg. The med Ancef is supplied in vitals 50mg/mL. How many mL's of the Ancef will be given for each dose:
6.5 mL
LtCol McNamara ordered a single dose Phenergan 12.5 mg, to be administered intramuscular to A1C Jones for Nausea and Vomiting. The Phenergan is supplied in 50mg/2mL pre-filled syringes. How many mL's would you administer:
0.50 mL
which one of these statements is TRUE regarding subcutaneous injections:
Only small amounts of a drug may be administered
The method of parenteral med administration that involves injecting a drug into a muscle is:
(IM) Intramuscular
Where are sub-cutaneous injections commonly administered:
Upper Arms
What method of administration delivers meds directly into a patient's digestive system:
Oral
TO prevent contamination and accidental spills, liquid meds being administered to inpatients are usually poured at what location:
At the patient's bedside
Which one of these statements is a disadvantage of inhalation medication:
Monitoring the precise amount of drug admin is DIFFICULT
Which statement is PROPER procedure for administering inhalations into the respiratory tract of a patient:
Assess patient's vital signs before, during, and after therapy
Into what body cavity are otic meds administered:
External Auditory Canal
To administer ear drops in a patient under 3 years of age, you gently pull the earlobe:
down to straighten the canal
When administering a vaginal douche, how high above the patient's vagina do you hang the bag:
12 to 18 inches
which of the following meds primary action is pain relief:
Analgesics, sedatives, hypnotics
Opioids are contraindicated with:
head injury treatment
Anti-inflammatory actions are associated with
preventing the formation of prostaglandins
which of the following meds are used primarily for analgesics actions in the treatment of arthritis:
Acetaminophen
which statement is NOT true of the non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs:
Raises prostaglandin levels
Contraindications of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs include all of the following EXCEPT:
when take with DAIRY
which of the following central nervous system stimulants obtained over the counter, is frequently take in prolonged high doses producing habituation and psychological dependence:
Caffeine
All of the following are contraindications of central nervous system stimulants EXCEPT:
Irritability
Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors (SSRIs) selectively block the reabsorption of which chemical neurotransmitter:
Serotonin
Side effects of tricyclics include all of the following EXCEPT
pupil constrictions
Anti-anxiety meds are prescribed for
the threat of insomnia
Anti-psychotic meds are categorized as
MAJOR tranquilizers
Which med potentiates the effects of analgesics when combined with anti-psychotics:
Phenergan
The effects of cardiac glycosides is to:
strengthen the heartbeat
Before the administration of digitalis, which of the following pulse points is it important to check:
Apical
Toxic side effects of digitalis include the following EXCEPT:
tachycardia
Adrenergic blockers are used in low doses for patients with:
lung conditions that cause bronchospasm
Calcium channel blockers suppress the action of calcium during contraction of the heart by
reducing the cardiac excitability and dilation of the main coronary arteries
Contraindications for procainamide include persons with known
Congestive heart failure
Quinidine is used primarily as prophylactic therapy o
maintain normal rhythm after cardioversion
the MOST common side effect of anti-hypertensives is
postural hypotension
Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors lower blood pressure by
decreasing vasoconstriction
When Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are taken in conjunction with diuretics or vasodilators, what affect is produced:
Potentiate Hypotension
Central-acting alpha-adrenergic inhibitors are combined with:
Diuretics
The antidote for bleeding complications while under coumarin (Coumadin) therapy is to administer:
vitamin K
Mr Johnson has undergone a hip replacement and is receiving heparin treatment post surgically to prevent:
deep vein thrombosis
The most serious complication of thrombolytic therapy is
bleeding
Antacids containing aluminum or calcium carbonate have the common side effects of which of the following:
Constipation
Which of the following meds is a laxative:
Mineral oil
What type of laxative is sorbitol:
Hyperosmotic
Among the endocrine meds, what drug action category do adrenal coricosteriods fall within:
Supportive
Acute adrenal insufficiency, shock, and possibly death can result from:
an abrupt withdrawal of adrenal cortisteroids therapy
Which endocrine therapy drugs are used to prevent organ transplant rejection:
Cortisteroids
Insulin may potentiate a hypoglycemic effect when take concomitantly with
Alcohol or salicylates
some of the symptoms associated with type II (2) diabetes are all of the following EXCEPT:
excessive weight loss
Which of the following meds can interact with quinolones to potentiate cardiac arrest:
Theophyline
The influenza vaccine is manufactured
with an inactive virus
which of the following vaccines should not be administered to indiv allergic to eggs or egg products:
Influenza
Hepatitis A is contracted through the transmission of
contaminated food or water
How many doses are given in a series of Hepatitis B vaccine regiment:
3 doses
which vaccine do all recruits receive a booster for upon entering the Air Force:
Tetanus
Which viral disease do mosquitos transmit:
Yellow Fever
What type of medication would you expect a patient with seasonal allergies to take on a regular basis:
Anti-histimines
When a patient has been prescribed Tessalon perles to help stop coughing, which patient-education would be appropriate:
DO NOT chew the capsule