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288 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
What is an organism that causes infection and disease
|
Pathogen
|
|
which classification of organisms is responsible for the disease malaria
|
Sporozoa
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Which stage of infection is the period of time between the invasion of the infectious agent into the body and the onset of symptoms of the particular disease
|
incubation
|
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The mucous membrane filters and traps foreign bodies through
|
cilia
|
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which of the following is not a type of transmission based precaution
|
enteric
|
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which transmission based precaution must have monitored, negative air pressure
|
Airborne
|
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What is the most serious type of meningitis
|
bacterial
|
|
One of the most common and serious complications a female may develop from gonorrhea is
|
PID pelvic inflammatory disease
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Which medical term refers to practices designed to eliminate all micro-organisms
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Surgical asepsis
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which substance is used to inhibit the growth and development of microorganisms on living tissues
|
Antisceptic
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what type of isolation are patients highly susceptible to infection placed in
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Reverse
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What procedures are followed when transporting an infectious patient to the radiology department
|
give the patient a gown, mask and gloves to wear before transport
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An acceptable alternative to an anteroom for an isolation unit is
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an isolation cart
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when using a mask in an isolation unit put the mask on...
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before entering, and take it off before leaving
|
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what is the first step in preparing objects for sterilization
|
cleaning
|
|
how long is and item immersed in the sterilant during the sterilization cycle of a peracetic acid sterilization
|
12 minutes
|
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which is not a commonly used disinfecting agent
|
hydrochloric acid
|
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how often do you clean and inspect steam sterilizers
|
daily and weekly
|
|
diagnostic tests should be run on a peracetic acid sterilizer every
|
24 hours
|
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how often should biological testing be conducted and documented for hydrogen peroxide plasma sterilizers
|
at least once per day
|
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which basic human need category is rest included in
|
physiological
|
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which vitamins are necessary for the production of red blood cells
|
B-complex vitamins
|
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what substance is necessary for hemoglobin synthesis
|
Iron
|
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Plasma lipids include what three substances
|
Triglycerides, phospholipids, and cholesterol
|
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what two actions are included in the physiological need of rest
|
pain free and rest
|
|
what reflex is displayed when an infant reacts to sudden noise or movement by extending and retracting the arms and legs
|
Moro
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A toddler is expected to weigh four times the birth weight are age
|
24 months
|
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Which of the following is most likely to be a part of a work site wellness program
|
blood pressure screenings
|
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what substance does the body need in order to absorb vitamin B12
|
Intrinsic factor
|
|
B12 deficiency are first noted by
|
Pernicious anemia
|
|
Vitamin B6 concentration in food sources is lost through
|
freezing
|
|
large doses of vitamin C cause all of the following except
|
constipation
|
|
a primary sign of a vitamin E overdose is readily seen through the disease process of
|
prolonged clotting time
|
|
Vitamin K is not used to treat which of the following ailments
|
heparin overdose/ulcerative colitis ???
|
|
which of the following vitamins is not fat-soluble
|
vitamin C
|
|
vitamin D interacts with all of the following except
|
calcium
|
|
signs of sodium chloride deficiency can be seen
|
through an excessive amount of fluid loss
|
|
Half-Normal saline solution is represented by
|
0.45%
|
|
Potassium helps to maintain
|
heartbeat regulation
|
|
caution must be taken when administering potassium to individuals with all of the following except
|
diabetes
|
|
Oral iron supplements should not be taken with
|
tea, milk or coffee
|
|
which route is injectable iron administered
|
z-track
|
|
when larger molecules are constructed from smaller molecules this is known as
|
anabolism
|
|
cellular metabolism is controlled by a specific kind of
|
enzyme
|
|
electrolytes that release hydrogen ions in water are called
|
acids
|
|
when an excessive amount of fats are metabolized, it can be noted by
|
acetone in the breath and urine
|
|
which of the following is an accurate definition of leukocytes
|
protect against disease at the cellular level
|
|
the two main categories of leukocytes are
|
granulocytes and agranulocytes
|
|
Neutrophils are also known as
|
polymorphonuclear leukocytes
|
|
the life span of lymphocytes is
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years
|
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what cells do lymph nodes contain in large number to fight invading microorganisms
|
lymphocyte and macrophages
|
|
when a child scrapes his or her hands and infection results, which lymph nodes will become enlarged
|
supratrochlear
|
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children who receive routine childhood immunizations are protected by
|
artificially acquired active immunity
|
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The body's first step in the healing process is
|
inflammation
|
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During which stage of healing are immature fiber cells and capillaries formed
|
inflammation
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The fibrous structural protein collagen is found in all connective tissue during which stage of healing
|
reconstruction
|
|
Full maturation of a wound is evident when
|
the scaring is white and glossy
|
|
for many parients who suffer from severe injuries or medical conditions their first psychological reaction is
|
shock and disorientation
|
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what electrolyte deficit or excess can cause dysrythmias, leading to cardiac or respiratory arrest
|
hyperkalemia
|
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what acid-base imbalance is likely to occur when a patient has excessive vomiting, excessive suctioning or ingested too many antacids
|
metabolic alkalosis
|
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which acid base imbalance is caused by hyperventilating
|
respiratory alkadosis
|
|
deficiency is respirations such as slow or irregular shallow respriations can lead to an excessive accumulation of carbon dioxide in the blood which results in a condition called
|
respiratory acidosis
|
|
to avoid infections, you should change a patients hyperalimentation solution bag and tubing daily and now allow the container to hang longer than
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8 hours
|
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when selection and intravenous (IV) solution, what size IV bags in cubic centimeters would you possibly be able to select from?
|
100-2000cc
|
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Normally, how high above patients should you hang an IV bag
|
24-36 inches
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If a patient exhibits a mild allergic response to an IV solution, what should you do?
|
Slow the infusion
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How much fecal material should you collect to send to the lab for a stool specimen
|
2 tablespoons
|
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After obtaining a blood sample, instruct the patient to maintain pressure over the venipunture site for
|
2-3 minutes
|
|
during a skin puncture, why is the first drop wiped away>
|
it contains epithelial cells which may interfere with the test results
|
|
what step should you take before operating a glucose meter
|
read the operating instructions
|
|
The normal fasting blood glucose level in milligrams/deciliter is
|
70-115
|
|
In the subjective information section of the paperwork, it is important to identify the patients
|
complaint of a headache
|
|
a protoscopy is an inspection of the
|
rectum
|
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what position would you normally place a patient in for a sigmoidoscopy
|
sims
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when educating the patient with psuedofolliculitis barbae on the proper shaving method, you should instruct the patient to avoid all the following except shaving
|
with the direction of hair growth
|
|
how do you measure the visual field
|
Determine degrees away from fixation
|
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when asking the patient if he or she wears glasses, contact lenses or if he or she has ever had eye problems prior to conducting an Optec 2300 Vision Tester exam, the patients responses will determine
|
sequence of test performance
|
|
how many test slides are included in the standard test category of the optec 2300 Vision Tester
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Seven
|
|
how many inches from the test plate must the examinee be sitting for the PIP test
|
30
|
|
when performing a pulmonary function test on a patient, accourding to air force standards, abnormal functions are present if the predicted force expiratory volume at 1 second ( FEV1) or forced vital capacity (FVC) percentage is less than?
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80
|
|
During pulmonary function testing, the minimum number of practice attempts and acceptable tracings an examinee must perform are
|
2; 3
|
|
Where does the electrical stimulation of the heart muscle initiate
|
sinoatrial mode
|
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Where is the Purkinje fiber network the most elaborate
|
Left ventricle
|
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Any artificial products or features which appear on an electrocardiogram tracing are called:
|
artifacts
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|
If you are performing an electrocardiogram on someone who is rated, a copy of that electrocardiogram must be sent to the:
|
US Air Force Central Electrocardiogram Library
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For orthostatic vital sign measurements, what is the correct sequence to take the blood pressure and pulse; and what is the correct time interval between readings:
|
Lying, sitting, standing; 3 minutes
|
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Notify the nurse or physician immediately if the patient's oxygen saturation ( SaO2) falls below:
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97 percent
|
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When checking the eyes during a neurological exam, the pupils should:
|
constrict quickly and simultaneously
|
|
When can the minor surgery procedure begin:
|
After the consent form is signed
|
|
When cleaning a two inch laceration on a healthy active duty male's right forearm, you notice some foreign material in the wound, what would be the next step
|
Flush the wound
|
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After you have applied a topical anesthetic to a wound that requires treatment, what should you do next?
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Begin suturing the wound
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In the Air Force, how often should you check emergency equipment and supplies in the crash ambulance:
|
daily
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How much vacuum must suction units provide when the tube is clamped:
|
300 mm Hg
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Which emergency response refers to an emergency, responding with lights and sirens on ?
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Code 3, hot
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When transmitting information about a patient over the radio, what info should you not broadcast
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name
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In the AF, you can use lights and sirens on an ambulance call only
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when local protocol authorizes it
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The action of assessing the scene of an accident to provide valuable info to the emergency medical technician (EMT) is called
|
scene sizeup
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If the patient is not alert and his or her breathing is slower than eight breaths per minute provide
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ventilations with a bag-valve-mask (BVM) and high-flow oxygen
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A rapid trauma assessment is performed on a patient with
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a significant mechanism of injury, and focuses on the area of the body where the greatest threats to the patient are.
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When you ask a medical patient what may have triggered his or her pain, you are questioning about
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Provocation
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While gathering a history of illness, when you ask a medical patient if the pain is constant or intermittent, what are you trying to determine?
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time
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When preparing to unload a patient from an ambulance, what should you do first:
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Ensure all straps are secured on the patient
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if you see clear fluid running out of the ears, you should
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not block the fluid from draining
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WHile examining a patient that fell from a ladder, you notice a bruise behind the ear, what injury should you suspect:
|
Basal Skull Fracture
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WHich Acronym is used by EMT in the field to describe a possible fracture:
|
painful, swollen deformity (PSD)
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while working in the ER, a patient comes in and states that he has splashed a chemical in his eye, what should you determine first?
|
If the patient is wearing contact lenses and which type
|
|
in what anatomical location is the pacemaker lead inserted when using a temp external pulse generator system:
|
right atrium
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When setting up a cardiac monitor, the legal document you should pay attention to and fix if it is not correct is the:
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electrocardiogram tracing date and time
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which statement would be the responsibility of the medical technician during a routine patient admission to a nursing unit
|
obtain patients vital signs, height and weight
|
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what considerations determine the steps in the routine admission process
|
patients condition and the facility policy
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While admitting a patient, you notice that the patient seems dizzy and unstable, what should you do
|
inform the nurse that the patient is at risk for falling
|
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who authorizes transfer of patient care for an interservice transfer
|
both service chief
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during the transfer of a psychiatric patient requiring sedation, how are the patients valuables safeguarded
|
designated custodian signs for the property, and forwards the items by registered mail
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which statement allows a patient to depart from the medical facility for a short period of time usually between 24 and 48 hours
|
pass
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|
Verbal orders must be countersigned by the physician within
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24 hours
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the most common forms that a medical technician will be responsible for completing are the
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Intake and Output flow sheet and the vital signs record
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what is the proper method of annotating shift change totals on the DD form 792 I &O sheet
|
circle the last accumulated total
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if an inpatient chart with doctor's orders for vital signs every 4 hours was blank for the day you would assume the
|
vital signs were not completed
|
|
which nursing activity is the main aspect of resolving nursing diagnoses:
|
Planning
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|
Relative to the nursing process, what is a client goal:
|
a realistic and measurable statement of the expected change in patient behavior
|
|
Which action is performed to help the patient reach his or her goals most effectively:
|
Nursing interventions
|
|
what is a way to help relieve most of the patient's concerns prior to surgery:
|
Preoperative teaching
|
|
what has a significant impact on the patient's perceived quality of care and treatment:
|
Professionalism and caring attitude
|
|
the surgery patient is given a preoperative med to
|
dry mucous membranes
|
|
what surgical case would likely be performed in a SAME DAY surgery clinic
|
Odonectomy
|
|
WIthout provider approval, what are the maximum minutes antiembolism stockings may be
|
30
|
|
what precaution is take for a postoperative patient who received a radioisotope implant:
|
Isolation is necessary
|
|
When performing a neurological check on a patient, which exam would indicate an appropriate response to light being flashed on the patient's eye
|
Pupils Equal, round, Reactive to Lights and Accommodations ( PERRLA)
|
|
WIth regard to blood transfusions, one of your responsibilities is to document a patient's transfusion on
|
Standard Form 518
|
|
What component of blood is involved in the clotting process
|
Platelets
|
|
How is whole blood normally supplied:
|
450 cc units
|
|
What is the guideline for the max minutes of time from pick up to transfusion start of blood products:
|
30
|
|
If a patient you are monitoring is receiving a blood transfusion and you notice distended neck veins and dyspnea. What should you do first:
|
Stop the Transfusion
|
|
A post-operative patient who is agitated, trashing violently or crying incessantly is most likely experiencing:
|
emergence delirium
|
|
Ideally, in what position is a patient placed before performing oropharyngeal suctioning:
|
Semisitting
|
|
a fracture that results from disease, such as metastatic cancer of the bone, is called :
|
pathologic
|
|
Orthopaedic deformities such as a clubfoot or wryneck are categorized as
|
congenital
|
|
Military personnel are commonly treated or hospitalized for what orthopedic problems:
|
traumatic injuries
|
|
the semi-recumbent position should be avoided over long periods of time in patients with orthopedic disorders bc it:
|
promotes flexion deformities of the hip
|
|
what orthopedic problem would you suspect if your patient complains of soreness or aching :
|
Muscular pain
|
|
which is not a determining factor for the healing time of a bone fracture:
|
Gender
|
|
The cramping, burning, or crushing pain complained about by amputees in their missing limb is referred to as a :
|
phantom limb pain
|
|
What equipment is essential to have at the postoperative bedside after surgical amputation:
|
Tourniquet
|
|
Rehab for a patient with a spinal cord injury is normally
|
A life long process
|
|
Turning a patient on a STRYKER frame quickly after a spinal cord injury can cause
|
Cardiac Arrest
|
|
During the acute stage of the stroke, the primary goal is to:
|
sustain life
|
|
During which child developmental stage is separation anxiety the most stressful:
|
Preschool
|
|
Which statement provides a hospitalized child with a sense of control:
|
Established daily rituals and routines
|
|
The normal adaptive mechanism used by children when they loose their sense of control is
|
regression
|
|
when caring a child with nausea and vomiting, a primary concern would be
|
Dehydration
|
|
which reason is not appropriate for restraining a child:
|
You have other tasks to do, and no time to sit with the child
|
|
The amount of sleep required at night by elderly patients is generally:
|
less because of frequent daytime naps
|
|
How would you help stimulate the appetite of an elderly patient:
|
Cater to the patient's customs
|
|
The first stage of dying is
|
denial
|
|
What serious side effect is the result of leakage of chemotherapy from the vein into the surrounding tissue
|
Extravasation
|
|
All that a person is, feels, and does is generally termed:
|
Personality
|
|
What affects an individuals feelings about themselves?
|
Self Perception
|
|
WHich psychiatric term defines an irresisitible urge to perform apparently meaningless actions:
|
Compulsions
|
|
WHich psychiatric term defines a functional disorder where there is not gross disorganization of personality or a loss of contact with reality:
|
Neuroses
|
|
A patient who feels unloved, unneeded, inferior, and hurt displays a behavior of:
|
withdrawal
|
|
How are behavior disorders and syndromes grouped into categories:
|
Shared characteristics or established criteria
|
|
when does the rehab process begin with a mentally ill patient:
|
as soon as the patient is admitted
|
|
What major problem affects mental health treatment:
|
Attitude of society
|
|
When observing and reporting on mentally ill patients, the most important factor to consider is
|
behavior
|
|
If you see a mentally ill patient sneak out of the nursing unit, take all of the following actions EXCEPT
|
leave the other patients to follow the escaping patient
|
|
who is at fault for the sexual abuse of a child:
|
Abuser
|
|
What action, if any, should you take if you notice a child you are taking care of shows signs of abuse such as burns or bruises?
|
Report the suspected abuse
|
|
What occurs in the third phase of spousal abuse:
|
Spouses states it will never happen again (honeymoon phase/love phase)
|
|
If a patient is being restrained, what position should her or she be in if the patient is recovering from alcohol intoxication and is extremely agitated:
|
Prone Position
|
|
For patients who suffers from pain, the best way to ensure a successful exercise activity program is to
|
begin the program early in the patient's hospital stay.
|
|
WHen planning activities for patients with psychological problems, you primary goal should be to:
|
develop a good rapport
|
|
what should you do to help patients who become angry and hostile:
|
allow them to channel their hostility through verbal expression
|
|
To aid in preventing decubitus ulcers, patients positioning should be changed every
|
2 hours
|
|
Why should your feet be parallel when you are standing:
|
Maintain balance and prevent back, hip and leg strain
|
|
Your stability increases as your center of gravity moves closer to your:
|
base of support
|
|
which technique for moving the patient up in bed is not used for a patient who has back or chest injuries:
|
shoulder-lift
|
|
When turning a patient, what is the most important precaution to take whether you are pushing or pulling the patient:
|
Raise the fair side rail
|
|
When transferring patients, you can reduce the change of injury to yourself by
|
using good teamwork and proper body mechanics
|
|
a patient's feet must be placed on the floor or a footstool during "dangling" to prevent
|
Pressure on the back of the legs
|
|
which devices can be used to slide a patient from the bed to a stretcher:
|
drawsheet and roller board
|
|
WHen helping a patient to ambulate, who should you stand and where should you place your hands:
|
Beside and a little behind the patient with one hand on the patient's waist and one hand under the patient's near arm.
|
|
Which is a safe, stable gait that can be used by patient's who can bear some weight on both legs:
|
Four-point (4)
|
|
Which gait is used by patients who can bear full body weight on one foot and partial or no weight on the other
|
Three-point (3)
|
|
Isometric exercises are activities that involve
|
Muscle contraction without body movement
|
|
Care must be take to ensure patients DO NOT hold their breath while performing isometric exercises as they may cause
|
heart attack
|
|
What diet is usually ordered for patients who have difficulty chewing or swallowing, or need to alter the amount of residue in the digestive tract:
|
Liquid
|
|
The diet that is inadequate in all nutrients and should NOT be given for more than 3 days is
|
clear liquid
|
|
what should the solution temperature be during gastric gavage:
|
Room Temperature
|
|
To prevent rapid decompression of the urinary bladder, the max amount of urine to remove during catherization is between
|
750 to 1000 cc.
|
|
During catherization of a female patient, how many inches (how far) is the catheter inserted for placement in the urinary bladder:
|
2 to 3 inches
|
|
The urinary catheter is pinched prior to removal from the bladder to
|
Prevent air from entering into the bladder
|
|
For what length of time in minutes should the patient retain the solution of a cleansing enema:
|
5 MINUTES
|
|
The patient's colostomy bag should be changed when it is
|
one-third full (1/3)
|
|
what is the normal arterial oxygen saturation range
|
95% to 98%
|
|
For patients using a non-breathing mask, the inspired oxygen concentration is
|
60% to 90%
|
|
Which mask is suggested for patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
|
Venturi
|
|
Before performing tracheostomy care, you would firs:
|
asses the stoma for patency
|
|
This is usually described by the patient as a jumping , pounding, or stopping of the heart within the chest
|
Palpitation
|
|
When preparing a patient for insertion of a central venous pressure line, what maneuver is taught to the patient to decrease the chance of an air embolism:
|
Valsalva
|
|
For insertion of a central venous pressure line into a neck vein, in what position should the patient be placed:
|
TRENDELENBURG
|
|
How many minutes should you irrigate a chemical burn to the eyes:
|
20 minutes
|
|
There is a high rate of success for tooth replacement if a dentist carries out the procedure within how many minutes of the accident:
|
30 Minutes
|
|
how are corneal abrasions detected:
|
Fluorescein stain
|
|
Damage to the epidermis with possible damage to the dermis and its appendages is classified as what type of burn:
|
Partial thickness
|
|
When caring for a patient with electrical burns at a facility, you first priority is
|
management of the patient's airway
|
|
How would you apply a dressing with the intention of debriding a wound:
|
Wet to Dry
|
|
what reflex action would be caused if you leave a heat treatment in place for a prolonged period of time:
|
Reflex Vasoconstriction
|
|
When applying a cold treatment, how long should you leave it in place:
|
20-30 MINUTES
|
|
A specialist who can guide a provider in prescribing drugs i best defined as a:
|
clinical pharmacist
|
|
Out of the several names given each medication, which of these drug names is given by the manufacturer
|
Trade name
|
|
which statement is TRUE regarding the role of a medical service tech in medication admin:
|
Techs are permitted to administer meds under the supervision of a nurse or physician
|
|
Which statement is NOT considered one of the patient's legal and ethical rights:
|
Choose the method of administration
|
|
Which one of these is NOT included in the "FIVE RIGHTS" of medication administration:
|
Right Documentation
|
|
What type of medication order states that a medication is to be administered immediately and only once:
|
Stat.
|
|
A provider can initiate a drug order in how many ways:
|
TWO (2)
|
|
Drug Admin is controlled primarily by:
|
Federal Law
|
|
What classification of drugs is NOT acceptable for medical use
|
Schedule I (one)
|
|
Narcotics, such as codeine, cocaine, and amphetamines, that have a high potential for abuse but have acceptable medical uses are classified as
|
Schedule II (two)
|
|
What law requires a periodic inventory of all controlled substances:
|
Controlled Substances Act
|
|
Penicillin administered to treat an infection is an example of what category of drugs:
|
Curative
|
|
The purpose of most drug therapy is to
|
Maintain a constant level of the drug in the body
|
|
why are oral meds that are taken before meals generally faster acting:
|
Lower digestive system content
|
|
which statement is TRUE regarding how ambient temperature can affect drug action?
|
Warmer temperatures increase circulation and cause rapid drug action
|
|
which of these is a common reference source for drugs:
|
Physician Desk Reference
|
|
What publication contains a list of meds available from the MTF's pharmacy, recommended dispensing instructions, and admin guidelines:
|
Local facility formulatory
|
|
an oily liquid used on the skin describes a type of med prep called a
|
liniment
|
|
what type of med is used to prevent or correct irregular heart action:
|
Antiarrhythmics
|
|
what type of med has a cleansing action that produces watery evac of instestinal content:
|
Cathartics
|
|
which of these elements is NOT required on a med order
|
patient's age
|
|
Before administering any medication, you are responsible for all of the following EXCEPT
|
for ensuring A1C Jones is available for work the next day
|
|
how many pounds are equal to 65kg:
|
143 lbs
|
|
Dr Young has ordered Mrs. Green to receive 5mg/kg of Ancef twice a day. Mrs. Green weighs 65 kg. The med Ancef is supplied in vitals 50mg/mL. How many milligrams of med will be given twice a day:
|
325 milligrams
|
|
Dr Young has ordered Mrs. Green to receive 5mg/kg of Ancef twice a day. Mrs. Green weighs 65 kg. The med Ancef is supplied in vitals 50mg/mL. How many mL's of the Ancef will be given for each dose:
|
6.5 mL
|
|
LtCol McNamara ordered a single dose Phenergan 12.5 mg, to be administered intramuscular to A1C Jones for Nausea and Vomiting. The Phenergan is supplied in 50mg/2mL pre-filled syringes. How many mL's would you administer:
|
0.50 mL
|
|
which one of these statements is TRUE regarding subcutaneous injections:
|
Only small amounts of a drug may be administered
|
|
The method of parenteral med administration that involves injecting a drug into a muscle is:
|
(IM) Intramuscular
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Where are sub-cutaneous injections commonly administered:
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Upper Arms
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What method of administration delivers meds directly into a patient's digestive system:
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Oral
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TO prevent contamination and accidental spills, liquid meds being administered to inpatients are usually poured at what location:
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At the patient's bedside
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Which one of these statements is a disadvantage of inhalation medication:
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Monitoring the precise amount of drug admin is DIFFICULT
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Which statement is PROPER procedure for administering inhalations into the respiratory tract of a patient:
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Assess patient's vital signs before, during, and after therapy
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Into what body cavity are otic meds administered:
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External Auditory Canal
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To administer ear drops in a patient under 3 years of age, you gently pull the earlobe:
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down to straighten the canal
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When administering a vaginal douche, how high above the patient's vagina do you hang the bag:
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12 to 18 inches
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which of the following meds primary action is pain relief:
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Analgesics, sedatives, hypnotics
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Opioids are contraindicated with:
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head injury treatment
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Anti-inflammatory actions are associated with
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preventing the formation of prostaglandins
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which of the following meds are used primarily for analgesics actions in the treatment of arthritis:
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Acetaminophen
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which statement is NOT true of the non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs:
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Raises prostaglandin levels
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Contraindications of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs include all of the following EXCEPT:
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when take with DAIRY
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which of the following central nervous system stimulants obtained over the counter, is frequently take in prolonged high doses producing habituation and psychological dependence:
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Caffeine
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All of the following are contraindications of central nervous system stimulants EXCEPT:
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Irritability
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Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors (SSRIs) selectively block the reabsorption of which chemical neurotransmitter:
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Serotonin
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Side effects of tricyclics include all of the following EXCEPT
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pupil constrictions
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Anti-anxiety meds are prescribed for
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the threat of insomnia
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Anti-psychotic meds are categorized as
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MAJOR tranquilizers
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Which med potentiates the effects of analgesics when combined with anti-psychotics:
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Phenergan
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The effects of cardiac glycosides is to:
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strengthen the heartbeat
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Before the administration of digitalis, which of the following pulse points is it important to check:
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Apical
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Toxic side effects of digitalis include the following EXCEPT:
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tachycardia
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Adrenergic blockers are used in low doses for patients with:
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lung conditions that cause bronchospasm
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Calcium channel blockers suppress the action of calcium during contraction of the heart by
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reducing the cardiac excitability and dilation of the main coronary arteries
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Contraindications for procainamide include persons with known
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Congestive heart failure
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Quinidine is used primarily as prophylactic therapy o
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maintain normal rhythm after cardioversion
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the MOST common side effect of anti-hypertensives is
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postural hypotension
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Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors lower blood pressure by
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decreasing vasoconstriction
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When Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are taken in conjunction with diuretics or vasodilators, what affect is produced:
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Potentiate Hypotension
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Central-acting alpha-adrenergic inhibitors are combined with:
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Diuretics
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The antidote for bleeding complications while under coumarin (Coumadin) therapy is to administer:
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vitamin K
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Mr Johnson has undergone a hip replacement and is receiving heparin treatment post surgically to prevent:
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deep vein thrombosis
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The most serious complication of thrombolytic therapy is
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bleeding
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Antacids containing aluminum or calcium carbonate have the common side effects of which of the following:
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Constipation
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Which of the following meds is a laxative:
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Mineral oil
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What type of laxative is sorbitol:
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Hyperosmotic
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Among the endocrine meds, what drug action category do adrenal coricosteriods fall within:
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Supportive
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Acute adrenal insufficiency, shock, and possibly death can result from:
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an abrupt withdrawal of adrenal cortisteroids therapy
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Which endocrine therapy drugs are used to prevent organ transplant rejection:
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Cortisteroids
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Insulin may potentiate a hypoglycemic effect when take concomitantly with
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Alcohol or salicylates
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some of the symptoms associated with type II (2) diabetes are all of the following EXCEPT:
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excessive weight loss
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Which of the following meds can interact with quinolones to potentiate cardiac arrest:
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Theophyline
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The influenza vaccine is manufactured
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with an inactive virus
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which of the following vaccines should not be administered to indiv allergic to eggs or egg products:
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Influenza
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Hepatitis A is contracted through the transmission of
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contaminated food or water
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How many doses are given in a series of Hepatitis B vaccine regiment:
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3 doses
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which vaccine do all recruits receive a booster for upon entering the Air Force:
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Tetanus
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Which viral disease do mosquitos transmit:
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Yellow Fever
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What type of medication would you expect a patient with seasonal allergies to take on a regular basis:
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Anti-histimines
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When a patient has been prescribed Tessalon perles to help stop coughing, which patient-education would be appropriate:
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DO NOT chew the capsule
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