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108 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
(001)
Which of the following most accurately describes an organism that causes infection and disease?
Pathogen
(001)
Which classification of organisms is responsible for the disease malaria?
Sporozoa
(002)
Which stage of infection is the period of time between the invasion of the infectious agent into the body and the onset of symptoms of the particular disease?
Incubation
(002)
The mucous membrane filters and traps foreign bodies through...
Cilia
(002)
Which of the following is not a type of transmission-based precaution?
Enteric
(002)
Which transmission-based precaution must have monitored, negative air pressure?
Airborne
(003)
What is the most serious type of meningitis?
Bacterial
(003)
One of the most common and serious complications a female may develop from gonorrhea is...
Pelvic inflammatory disease
(004)
Which medical term refers to practices designed to eliminate all mice-organisms?
Surgical asepsis
(004)
Which substance is used to inhibit the growth and development of microorganisms on living tissue?
Antiseptic
(005)
What type of isolation are patients highly susceptible to infection placed in?
Reverse
(005)
What procedures are followed when transporting an infectious patient to the radiology department?
Give the patient a gown, mask, and gloves to wear before transport
(005)
An acceptable alternative to an anteroom for an isolation unit is...
an isolation cart
(005)
When using a mask in an isolation unit, put the mask on...
before entering, and take it off before leaving
(006)
What is the first step in preparing objects for sterilization?
Cleaning
(006)
How long is an item immersed in the sterilant during the sterilization cycle of a peracetic acid sterilizer?
12 minutes
(006)
Which is not a commonly used disinfecting agent?
Hydrochloric acid
(006)
How often do you clean and inspect steam sterilizers?
Daily and weekly
(006)
Diagnostic tests should be run on a peracetic acid sterilizer every...
24 hours
(006)
How often should biological testing be conducted and documented for hydrogen peroxide plasma sterilizers?
At least once per day
(007)
Which basic human need category is rest included in?
Physiological
(007)
Which vitamins are necessary for the production of red blood cells?
B-complex vitamins
(007)
What substance is necessary for hemoglobin synthesis?
Iron
(007)
Plasma lipids include what three substances?
Triglycerides, phospholipids, and cholesterol
(007)
What two actions are included in the physiological need of rest?
Pain free and rest
(008)
What reflex is displayed when an infant reacts to sudden noise or movement by extending and retracting the arms and legs?
Moro
(008)
A toddler is expected to weigh four times the birth weight at age...
24 months
(009)
Which of the following is most likely to be a part of a work site wellness program?
Blood pressure screening
(010)
What substance does the body need in order to absorb vitamin B12?
Intrinsic factor
(010)
B12 deficiency are first noted by...
Pernicious anemia
(010)
Vitamin B6 concentration in food sources is lost through...
Freezing
(010)
Large doses of vitamin C cause all of the following except...
Constipation
(010)
Vitamin D interacts with all of the following except...
Calcium
(010)
A primary sign of a vitamin E overdose is readily seen through the disease process of...
Prolonged clotting times
(010)
Vitamin K is not used to treat which of the following ailments?
Heparin overdose
(010)
Which of the following vitamins is not fat-soluble?
Vitamin C
(010)
Signs of sodium chloride deficiency can be seen...
through an excessive amount of fluid loss
(010)
Half-normal saline solution is represented by...
0.45%
(010)
Potassium helps to maintain...
heartbeat regulation
(010)
Caution must be taken when administering potassium to individuals with all of the following except...
diabetes
(010)
Oral iron supplements should not be taken with...
tea, milk or coffee
(010)
Which route is injectable iron administered?
intra muscular
(010)
When larger molecules are constructed from smaller molecules, this is known as...
anabolism
(010)
Cellular metabolism is controlled by a specific kind of...
enzyme
(010)
Electrolytes that release hydrogen ions in water are called...
acids
(010)
When an excessive amount of fats are metabolized, it can be noted by...
acetone in the breath and urine
(011)
Which of the following is an accurate definition of leukocytes?
protect against disease at the cellular level
(011)
The two main categories of leukocytes are...
granulocytes and agranulocytes
(011)
Neutrophils are also known as...
polymorphonuclear leukocytes
(011)
The life span of lymphocytes is...
years
(011)
What cells do lymph nodes contain in large number to fight invading microorganisms?
lymphocytes and macrophages
(011)
When a child scrapes his or her hands and infection results, which lymph nodes will become enlarged?
Supratrochlear
(011)
Children who receive routine childhood immunizations are protected by
artificially acquired active immunity
(011)
The body's first step in the healing process is...
inflammation
(011)
During which stage of healing are immature fiber cells and capillaries formed?
Inflammation
(011)
The fibrous structural protein collagen is found in all connective tissue during which stage of healing?
Reconstruction
(011)
Full maturation of a wound is evident when...
the scaring is white and glossy
(012)
For many patients who suffer from severe injuries or medical conditions, their first psychological reaction is...
shock and disorientation
(013)
What electrolyte deficit or excess can cause dysrythmias, leading to cardiac or respiratory arrest?
hyperkalemia
(014)
What acid-base imbalance is likely to occur when a patient has excessive vomiting, excessive suctioning or ingested too many antacids?
metabolic alkalosis
(014)
Which acid-base imbalance is caused by hyperventilating?
Respiratory alkalosis
(014)
Deficiency is respirations such as slow or irregular shallow respirations can lead to an excessive accumulation of carbon dioxide in the blood which results in a condition called...
respiratory acidosis
(015)
To avoid infections, you should change a patient's hyperalimentation solution bag and tubing daily and not allow the container to hang longer than...
8 hours
(016)
When selecting an intravenous (IV) solution, what size IV bags in cubic centimeter (cc) would you possibly be able to select from?
100 to 2,000 cc
(016)
Normally, how high above patients should you hang an intravenous (IV) solution bag?
24 to 36 inches
(016)
If a patient exhibits a mild allergic response to an intravenous (IV) solution, what should you do?
slow the infusion
(017)
How much fecal material should you collect to send to the laboratory for a stool specimen?
2 tablespoons
(018)
After obtaining a blood sample, instruct the patient to maintain pressure over the venipuncture for...
2 to 3 minutes
(018)
During a skin puncture, why is the first drop of blood wiped away?
it contains epithelial cells, which may interfere with test results
(018)
What step should you take before operating a glucose meter?
read the operating instructions
(018)
The normal fasting blood glucose level in milligrams/deciliter (mg/dl) is...
70 to 115 mg/dl
(019)
In the subjective information section of the paperwork, it is important to identify the patient's...
complaint of a headache
(019)
A proctoscopy is an inspection of the...
Rectum
(019)
What position would you normally place a patient in for a sigmoidoscopy?
Sims
(019)
When educating the patient with psuedofolliculitis barbae (PFB) on proper shaving methods, you should instruct the patient to avoid all of the following except shaving...
in the direction of hair growth
(020)
How do you measure the visual field?
Determine degrees away from fixation
(021)
When asking the patient if he or she wears glasses, contact lenses, or if he or she has ever had eye problems prior to conducting an Optec 2300 Vision Tester exam, the patient's responses will determine...
sequence of test performance
(021)
How many test slides are included in the standard test category of the Optec 2300 Vision Tester (OVT)?
Seven
(021)
How many inches from the test plate must the examinee be sitting for the pseudoisochromatic plate set (PIP) test?
30
(022)
When performing a pulmonary function test on a patient, according to Air Force standards, abnormal functions are present if the predicted forced expiratory volume and 1 second (FEV1) or forced vital capacity (FVC) percentage is less than...
80
(022)
During pulmonary function testing, the minimum number of practice attempts and acceptable tracings an examinee must perform are...
2; 3
(023)
Where does the electrical stimulation of the heart muscle initiate?
sinoatrial node
(023)
Where is the Purkinje fiber network the most elaborate?
left ventricle
(023)
Any artificial products or features which appear on an electrocardiogram tracing are called...
artifacts
(023)
If you are performing an electrocardiogram on someone who is rated, a copy of that electrocardiogram must be sent to the...
US Air Force Central Electrocardiographic Library
(024)
For orthostatic vital sign measurements, what is the correct sequence to take the blood pressure and pulse; and what is the correct time interval between readings?
lying, sitting, standing; 3 minutes
(024)
Notify the nurse or physician immediately if the patient's oxygen saturation (SaO2) falls below...
97 percent
(024)
When checking the eyes during a neurological exam, the pupils should...
constrict quickly and simultaneously
(025)
When can the minor surgery procedure begin?
After the consent form is signed
(026)
When cleaning a two inch laceration on a healthy active duty male's right forearm, you notice some foreign material in the wound, what would be the next step?
flush the wound
(026)
After you have applied a topical anesthetic to a wound that requires treatment, what should you do next?
assess sensory awareness
(027)
In the Air Force, how often should you check emergency equipment and supplies in the crash ambulance?
Daily
(027)
How much vacuum must suction units provide when the tube is clamped?
300 mm Hg
(028)
Which emergency response refers to an emergency, responding with lights and sirens on?
Code 3; hot
(028)
When transmitting information about a patient over the radio, what information should not be broadcast?
Name
(028)
In the Air Force, you can use lights and sirens on an ambulance call only...
when local protocol authorizes it
(029)
The action of assessing the scene of an accident to provide valuable information to the emergency medical technician (EMT) is called...
scene sizeup
(030)
If the patient is not alert and his or her breathing is slower than eight breaths per minute, provide...
ventilations with a bag-valve-mask (BVM) and high-flow oxygen
(031)
A rapid trauma assessment is performed on a patient with...
a significant mechanism of injury, and focuses on the area of the body where the greatest threats to the patient are
(032)
When you ask a medical patient what may have triggered his or her pain, you are questioning about...
provocation
(032)
While gathering a history of illness, when you ask a medical patient if the pain is constant or intermittent, what are you trying to determine?
time
(033)
When preparing to unload a patient from an ambulance, what should you do first?
ensure all straps are secured on the patient
(034)
If you see clear fluid running out of the ears, you should...
not block the fluid from draining
(034)
While examining a patient that fell from a ladder, you notice a bruise behind the ear, what injury should you suspect?
Basal skull fracture
(035)
Which acronym is used by emergency medical technicians (EMT) in the field to describe a possible fracture?
Painful, swollen deformity (PSD)
(036)
While working in the emergency room, a patient comes in and states that he has splashed a chemical in his eye, what should you determine first?
if the patient is wearing contact lenses and which type
(036)
In what anatomical location is the pacemaker lead inserted when using a temporary external pulse generator system?
right atrium
(036)
When setting up a cardiac monitor, the legal document you should pay particular attention to and fix if it is not correct is the...
electrocardiogram tracing date and time