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75 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Reperfusion therapy for AMI and restoration of vessel patency has the following benefits {4}
1. Reduced infarct size
2. Preserves LV function
3. Reduces mortality
4. Prolongs survival
Regarding Primary PCI being superior to

thrombolytic therapy, which is incorrect?
1. Primary PCI has reduced short term mortality 5.3% vs 7.4%
2. Primary PCI has reduced non fatal reinfarction 2.5% vs 6.8%
3. Primary PCI has reduced stroke 2.3% vs 4.5 %
4. The survival benefit of Primary PCI vs thrombolytic therapy is


20 lives / 1000 treated.
5. Primary PCI has better outcomes in high-risk patients.

3. Primary PCI has reduced stroke compared with Thrombolysis : 1% vs 2%
Urgent PCI in STEMI can be considered in which patients { 6 answers}
1. PCI Centre of Excellence
2. Thrombolysis contraindication
3. High risk {but predicted small / moderate benefit from thrombolytic therapy} - Elderly / Diabetic
4. Cardiogenic shock {up to 12-36 hours after infarction}
5. Failed thrombolysis (Rescue PCI )
6. Previous CABG
Which medications are initiated < 24 hours of AMI {unless contraindicated} ? [4]
1. BBlockers
2. Heparin {LMW/UFH}
3. ACEI or ARB
4. HMG CoA reductase inhibitor {Statin}
Absolute contraindications to Thrombolysis in AMI (5).
1. Previous haemorrhagic stroke
2. CVA within 6 months
3. Intracranial neoplasm
4. Active internal bleeding < 2 weeks
5. Aortic dissection {known/suspected}
Relative contraindications for thrombolysis in AMI (10}
1. Severe UNCONTROLLED hypertension {>180/110}
2. INR > 2.5 {oral anticoagulation therapy}
3. Recent major Trauma - Surgery < 4 weeks { including head trauma}
4. Pregnancy
5. {TRAUMATIC} CPR
6. Active peptic ulcer disease
7. Previous allergic reaction thrombolytic drug used
8. Recent STK {use different drug}
9. History of prior CVA / intracerebral pathology
10. Chronic HTN
Which fact is incorrect regarding thrombolysis benefits versus placebo:
1. Within 6 hours = 30 lives saved per 1000
2. Within first hour = 40 lives saved per 1000
3. Within 7-12 hours = 20 lives saved per 1000
4. Largest benefits are in anterior infarction
5. Largest benefits are seen in inferior infarction.
5. Inferior - less benefits



{0.8% absolute mortality reduction}



Anterior STEMI : 3.7% absolute mortality


reduction.

Streptokinase facts
1. First generation FIBRINOLYTIC
2. "non specific"
3. Produces "systemic lytic state"
4. Associated with increased bleeding / ICH when given with heparin
5. ANTIGENIC
6. Hypotension + Bradycardia
t-PA facts
1. Non antigenic
2. More fibrin selective
3. Less systemic bleeding
4. Higher patency rates than STK
Third Generation Fibrinolytics Facts
1. Reteplase / tenecteplase
2. Bioengineered products of t-PA
3. Longer half-lives
4. Similar efficacy and side effect profiles to

Second generation fibrinolytics
5. Simpler to administer.

Which fact is incorrect regarding thrombolysis in AMI ?
1. GUSTO-1 showed a reduce mortality of t-PA vs STK 5.3 vs 7.3%
2. GUSTO-1 showed increased {small} in haemorrhagic stroke of t-PA vs STK
3. GUSTO-1 showed an extra 10 lives saved per 1000 patients treated
4. t-PA can result in 5 disabled stroke survivors per 1000 treated.
5. Risk of lethal and non lethal stroke is increased with Age / Recent stroke and Hypertension on arrival.
1. Gusto-1 : tPA vs. STK mortality = 6.3 vs 7.3%
Invasive Strategy-PCI --> {Consider transfer} for PCI if { 7 facts}
1. Door to balloon time < 90 minutes
2. High Risk STEMI
a. Age > 75
b. Extensive Anterior infarction { + late presentation }
c. High risk of bleeding
d. Previous MI/CABG

e. Killip Class > 3
3. Symptom onset > 3 hours
Thrombolysis preferred over PCI in the

following situations

1. Early presentation

[ < 3 hours from symptom onset and delay to invasive strategy]
2. Invasive strategy NOT AN OPTION:
a. Cath Lab occupied/ not available
b. Lack of access to skilled PCI Lab.
c. Vascular access difficulties
3. Delay to invasive strategy
a. Prolonged Transport
b. Door-to-Balloon >1 hr
c. Medical contact-to -Balloon > 90 minutes

ISIS-2 Study Facts
1. International Study of Infarct Survival
2. Aspirin reduced mortality by 23%
3. Aspirin gave 50% reduction in REINFARCTION and STROKE
4. Streptokinase reduced mortality by 25%
5. Aspirin and STK had an additive

effect-reducing mortality by 42%
6. treatment for mean 1 month
= 25 fewer deaths
= 10-15 fewer episodes of non-fatal reinfarction
= and non-fatal stroke per 1000 treated

Clopidogrel in STEMI
1. Confers significant additional benefit with

aspirin
2. With Thrombolysis : reduces risk of early


vessel reocclusion
WITHOUT RISE IN BLEEDING
3. PCI + Stent = benefit
[ benefit less evident with PCI minus stent ]

Antithrombin therapy in STEMI
1. UFH and LMWH
2. UFH = lives saved per 1000 treated
3. LMWH = 21 deaths / MI events prevented per 1000 treated
[ 4 major non fatal bleeds]
5 contraindications for commencing ORAL B Blockers within 24 hours in STEMI.
1. Pulmonary oedema
2. Hypotension
3. Bradycardia
4. Advanced AV block

5. Asthma
Which is incorrect regarding Complications of AMI?
1. Cardiac failure develops when >30% LV circumference is affected.
2. Cardiogenic shock or death occurs when > 40% of LV circumference is affected.
3. Reinfarction in the first 10 days post AMI occurs in < 3%
4. Transient Mitral valve dysfunction is common after AMI.
5. Severe Mitral regurgitation / papillary muscle rupture occurs in 4%

patients after AMI.

3. Reinfarction in the 10 days post AMI occurs in 5 -10%
Emergent PCI is demonstrated to offer Clinical benefit to patients with ACS/ NSTEMI, with 3 high risk features:
1. Elevated Troponins
2. Recurrent chest pain
3. Recurrent ECG changes
( ARC Guidelines) Which is correct regarding Acute Coronary Syndromes?
A. The benefits of fibrinolysis are greatest in an inferior STEMI.
B. PreHospital fibrinolysis does not have similar outcomes to PCI in

Anterior STEMI in age < 65 with chest pain onset < 1-2 hours.
C. PCI is contraindicated at 4 hours, in the presence of contraindications to fibrinolysis.
D. PCI ( +/- CAGS) is the preferred option in patients with STEMI and shock.

D.

A = Anterior STEMI
B = It does ( CLass B ; LOE II )
C = PCI should be pursued - rather than opting for a "no treatment "strategy".
(ARC Guidelines) Which of the following is

incorrect regarding ACS ?
A. In patients presenting within 12 hours of chest pain onset, perfusion via PCI or fibrinolysis, has been demonstrated to improve outcomes.
B. In patients presenting > 12 hours after the onset of of chest pain, with cardiogenic shock, PCI is still considered beneficial.
C. For PCI to remain superior to fibrinolysis, the PCI delay must not be greater than 45-120 minutes.
D. The maximum acceptable delay from PRESENTATION to balloon


inflation, is 90 minutes if presenting > 1 hour since symptoms onset.

C. PCI Superior to Thrombolysis with chest pain onset and treatment between 45-180

minutes. { up to 3 Hours }

(ARC Guidelines) Which of the following is an

absolute contraindication to Fibrinolysis?



A. Systolic BP > 180 mmHg
B. Ischaemic stroke within 6 months
C. Recent major Trauma / Surgery within 4 weeks
D. GI bleeding within 4 weeks.

B.



D. Active Internal Bleeding within 2 weeks


= Absolute contraindication.

(ARC Guidelines) Which of the following is not a Relative Contraindication to fibrinolysis?


A. Pregnancy - within 1 week post partum
B. CNS AVM / neoplasm
C. Traumatic resuscitation
D. Active Peptic ulcer disease

B. = Absolute
(ARC Guidelines ) Which of the following is

incorrect regarding treatment of STEMI?
A. Facilitated PCI is recommended in STEMI.


(routine use of fibrinolysis prior to PCI)
B. Rescue PCI is PCI performed after failed thrombolysis.
C. Rescue PCI has a Class A, LOE I for its use.
D. The transfer of STEMI patients from Community Hospitals to PCI


Centres is supported if they present between 3-12 hours, and the


transfer can be achieved within 2 hours.

A Facilitated PCI is not recommended


Class B ; LOE II.

(ARC Guidelines) True of False? :



Patients treated successfully with fibrinolysis, in a non-PCI capable Cantre, should be transferred for angiography / eventual PCI within 6-24 hours after fibrinolysis.

Yes


Class B LOE II

( Cameron) Which is incorrect regarding the

Likelihood ratios, and ruling in AMI ?
A. The highest likelihood ratio is for Right arm / shoulder radiation : 3.7
B. Diaphoresis association has a LR of 2
C. LR of approx. 2 for "Similar to previous AMI".
D. Radiation to left arm is less than radiation to right arm.

A. 4.7 (nearly 5 times increased likelihood)



"Burning" / Indigestion - like pain has LR 2.8 !

DDx for ST Elevation on the ECG ?
1. STEMI
2. Myopericarditis
3. LV aneurysm
4. Hypothermia
5. Hyperkalaemia ( Hypercalcaemia)
6. LVH
7. Brugada Syndrome (Type I > Type II, III)
8. BER
Which is incorrect regarding diagnosing AMI?


A. 20-50 % of ECG's are normal / non-specific in AMI
B. Troponin I does not definitively rise until 4-6 hours post AMI
C. Echocardiography is highly sensitive for AMI.
D. Negative echocardiography, in the setting of a typical history and


normal ECG does not rule out ACS.

C. The sensitivity is limited.


Regional wall motion can be evidence


supporting ischaemia, BUT it also may be old


infarcted tissue.

(Cameron) In regards to an alternative cause of chest pain +/- ST elevation : Thoracic dissection, which of the following is incorrect?
A. the CXR is 80% sensitive and specific for thoracic dissection.
B. The most common abnormal finding on CXR is superior mediastinal widening ( in 50-75% of cases)
C. The CXR is normal 20% of the time.
D. The Helical CT Angiogram of the thorax has a 95-100% sensitivity and specificity for thoracic dissection.
D. Sensitivity 83 -100%


Specificity 90-100%

Which is incorrect regarding AMI and

arrhythmias?
A. When Heart Block occurs with an Anterior AMI, a temporary pacer is usually required.
B. Accelerated idioventricular rhythm is not uncommon post reperfusion- and does not require active treatment


C. Higher grade arrhythmias can be treated with Lignocaine or


amiodarone.
D. Sustained VT lasting > 30 seconds is not uncommon in AMI.

D. Sustained VT is uncommon in AMI.
What is the mnemonic for the TIMI risk score for Unstable Angina / NSTEMI ?
"AMERICA"
Age > 65
Markers elevated ( Cardiac biomarkers)
ECG changes of > 0.5 mm on initial ECG
Risk Factors ( > 3 )
- HTN
- Smoking
- Hchol
- Diabetes
- FHx premature cardiac disease (PCD)
Increasing angina ( > 2 episodes in 24 hours)
Coronary artery disease (stenosis > 50%)
Aspirin use within 7 days
What are the % risks for TIMI scores?
0-1 = 5%
2 = 10%
3 = 15%
4 = 20%
5 = 25%
6 = 40%
= % risk at 14 days of all cause mortality / new AMI/ recurrent ischaemia requiring revascularisation.
These patients will benefit from more aggressive medical Mx ( early catheterisation)
(Cameron)

In which correct order is the likelihood ratios of Clinical features for diagnosing AMI - from


highest to lowest?
A. Diaphoresis, pressure , exertional
B. Burning-indigestion-like , Left arm radiation, diaphoresis
C. Nausea and vomiting, diaphoresis, Similar to previous AMI
D. Radiation to Left arm, radiation to Right arm, pressure.

B. LR : 2.8 , 2.3 , 2.0

Radiation to Right arm = 4.7


Burning-like / indigestion = 2.8


Exertional = 2.4


Left arm radiation = 2.3


Diaphoresis = 2.0


Nausea / vomiting = 1.9


Similar to previous AMI = 1.8


Pressure = 1.3



In regards to Sgarbossa's ECG criteria for AMI, which of the following is incorrect?
A. It is highly specific for AMI with LBBB.
B. A score of > 3 has a 90% specificity for AMI
C. There are 3 criteria
D. The highest criterium score is with

Concordant ST depression > 1mm in V1-V3

D. Scores 3

The highest is Concordant ST elevation > 1mm in leads with a + QRS.

Which of the following is incorrect regarding Sgarbossa's criteria for AMI in the setting of LBBB?
A. Concordant ST elevation > 1mm in leads with a QRS complex scores the highest ( 5)
B. Excessively discordant ST elevation > 5 mm, in leads with a negative QRS complex scores 3.
C. Concordant ST depression > 1mm in leads V1-V3 scores the second highest.
D. A total score > 3 is associated with a worse prognosis.
B. scores 2
What are the Sgarbossa Criteria?
1. Concordant ST elevation > 1mm in a + QRS complex = 5 points
2. Concordant ST depression > 1mm in V1-V3 = 3 points
3. Discordant ST elevation > 5mm with a

negative QRS complex = 2 points




2015 Modified Sgarbossa Criteria :


> 1 lead with Excessive discordant ST Elevation > 1mm


[ > 25% of preceding S wave ]

Which of the following is incorrect regarding the National heart Foundation of Australia

Reperfusion Strategies for STEMI ?
A. It is appropriate to consider transfer to a facility with PCI if balloon


inflation time is achievable within 120 minutes .
B. The maximal acceptable delay to balloon inflation time when


presenting less than 1 hour is 60 minutes .
C. Reperfusion is not recommended is stable and asymptomatic patients who present > 12 hours after the onset of chest pain.
D. If presenting between 1-3 hours, the maximal acceptable delay until balloon inflation is 120 minutes.

D. Maximal acceptable delay until balloon

inflation when presenting between 1-3 hours


= 90 minutes.

Outline the Maximal acceptable delays from

presentation to balloon inflation time when


presenting


- within 1 hour


- between 1-3 hours


- between 3-12 hours.

< 1 hour = 60 minutes
1-3 hours = 90 minutes
3-12 hours = 120 minutes

> 12 hours : reperfusion not recommended if asymptomatic and stable.

Which of the following is incorrect?


[ Tintinalli]




A. Atypical / painless presentations are more likely in the Elderly and Women.


B. A 25% loss of the LV leads to CHF


C. A 50% loss of the LV leads to Shock.


D. Cardiac risk factors are a poor Emergency


Department predictors of AMI / ACS.

C. 40%

Which is incorrect regarding AMI:


[Tintinalli]




A. Anterior AMI leads to tachyarrhythmias.


B. Mobitz Type II block is usually associated with Inferior AMI.


C. Complete Heart Block (CHB) can occur with both inferior and anterior AMI.


D. Inferior AMI is associated with both first


degree and Mobitz Type I block.

B. Mobitz Type II Block usually associated with Anterior AMI.

Which AMI percentage is correct?


[ Tintinalli ]




A. Pericarditis is seen in 10% of AMI's 2-4 days post AMI.


B. Dressler's Syndrome occurs 2-10 weeks post AMI.


C. Free wall Myocardial rupture occurs < 24 hours post AMI.


D. Papillary muscle rupture occurs in 1 per 1000 AMI from day 1 to 14 post AMI.

B.




A = 20%


C = 1-5 days post MI.


D = 1 in 100 (1%)

Which percentage of Inferior AMI involve the Right ventricle ?


[ Tintinalli ]




A. 10%


B. 20%


C. 30%


D. 40%

C. 30% with increased mortality and


complications.

Which is incorrect regarding AMI and the ECG?


[ Tintinalli ]




A. Patients with a normal / non specific ECG have a 1-5% incidence of AMI.


B. New ischaemic ECG changes increase the risk of AMI from 25% to 75%


C. V4R ST elevation is highly suggestive of RV infarction.


D. Patients with a normal / non-diagnostic ECG have a 2% incidence of unstable angina.

D. 4 - 23% incidence.

[ Tintinalli]




Elevated troponins in NSTEMI increase the the short term risk of death by what factor?




A. 2 fold


B. 3 fold


C. 4 fold


D. 5 fold

B.

[ Tintinalli]




Which troponin type is elevated more in renal failure, troponin T { cTnT } or troponin I { cTnI} ?

Troponin T

[ Tintinalli]


With RV pacing, concordant ST depression in leads V1 to V3 is how specific for AMI?




A. 35%


B. 50%


C. 80%


D. 99%

C.

[ Tintinalli]


Which of the following is incorrect regarding Odds ratios and LBBB-AMI ?




A. Concordant ST elevation > 1mm with the QRS


complex has the highest odds ratio for AMI.


B. Concordant ST depression > 1mm in V1-V3 has an odds ratio of 6 for AMI.


C. Discordant ST Elevation > 5mm with the QRS complex has an odds ratio of 4


D. Concordant ST elevation > 1mm with the QRS complex has an odds ratio of 10.

D. 25 !




B. = 6.0


C. = 4.3

[ Tintinalli]


What percentage is the estimation for false


positive interpretations of the ECG as STEMI ?




A. 1-5 %


B. 5-10%


C. 10-15%


D. 15-20%

C. 11-14%

[ Tintinalli]




In the setting of an inferior wall AMI, which


additional lead (s) ST elevation would suggest a Left circumflex lesion rather than Right


coronary lesion ?

ST elevation in leads :




- V5, V6


or


- V1




( with lead I isoelectric or elevated )

[ Tintinalli]




A new Systolic murmur in AMI can represent what 3 possible lesions?

1. Papillary muscle dysfunction


2. Flail leaflet of mitral valve with resultant


mitral regurgitation


3. Ventricular septal defect (VSD)

[ Tintinalli ]




In AMI, what 5 complications can the presence of reciprocal ST segment changes predict ?

1. Larger infarct distribution


2. Increased severity of underlying coronary artery disease (CAD)


3. More severe pump failure


4. Higher likelihood of cardiovascular


complications


5. Increased mortality .

List 5 conditions where there is ST segment


elevation in the absence of AMI ( "Mimics")

1. LBBB


2. Paced rhythm (VPR)


3. LV aneurysm


4. Benign Early Repolarisation (BER)


5. Hyperkalaemia


6. Myo-pericarditis


7. Cardiomoyopathy (HOCM)


8. Left ventricular hypertrophy (LVH)


9. Hypothermia

List 5 conditions where there can be ST


depression in the absence of ischaemia.

1. Hypokalaemia


2. Digoxin effect


3. LBBB


4. Paced rhythm (VPR)


5. LVH

[ Tintinalli]




What 3 factors in STEMI presenting within 3 hours, is the decision for PCI versus fibrinolysis based upon ?

1. Institutional expertise


2. Availability of Cath Lab.


3. Individual patient risks for fibrinolysis


complications.

{ Tintinalli}




What it the timing of door-balloon inflation time where PCI is seen as the preferred


reperfusion method ?

PCI preferred with Door-Balloon inflation time


< 90 minutes.

[ Tintinalli]


In regards to AMI and bundle branch blocks, which of the following is incorrect ?




A. Bifascicular block represents a large infarct.


B. New RBBB often leads to Complete Heart Block (CHB)


C. Left Anterior Hemiblock is associated with a higher mortality than left posterior hemlock.


D. New RBBB occurs most commonly


anteroseptal AMI.

C. Posterior Hemiblock > Anterior Hemiblock in regards to mortality.

List 3 indications for Acute Temporary


Transcutaneous pacing in AMI.

1. Unresponsive symptomatic Bradycardia


2. New LBBB and bifascicular block.


3. Mobitz II / Higher AV blocks


4. RBBB or LBBB with first degree AV block



[ Tintinalli]




In regards to AMI and bradyarrhythmias, which of the following is correct ?




A. Pacing has no bearing on mortality reduction.


B. Ventricular premature contractions


( PVC / VEB ) are common, and prognosticate complications.


C. Ventricular tachycardia shortly after AMI


portends a poor prognosis.


D. Ventricular fibrillation shortly after AMI has a significant effect on mortality and prognosis.

A.




B = PVC do not prognosticate AMI


complications


C = VT does not.


D = VF does not

[Tintinalli]


In regards to AMI and arrhythmias, which of the following is correct?




A. Intraventricular conduction disturbances


occur in 40% of AMI patients.


B. Left posterior hemiblock is more common than Left anterior hemiblock.


C. The most frequently occurring


bradyarrhythmia in AMI is Mobitz II block.


D. The most frequently occurring


tachyarrhythmia with AMI is Accelerated


idioventricular rhythm.

D.




A = 10-20%


B = Left anterior hemiblock more common


C = Sinus bradycardia

[ Tintinalli]


List in order of decreasing frequency , the


following bradyarrhythmias with AMI:




1. Asystole


2. Sinus bradycardia


3. First degree AV block


4. Mobitz Type II AV block


5. Mobitz Type II AV block


6. 3rd degree heart Block.

Most common to least common :




1. Sinus bradycardia 35-40%


2. First degree AV Block 5-15%


3. Second Degree Mobitz I AV Block I5-10%


4. 3rd Degree AV block 5-8%


5. Asystole 1-5%


6. Second degree Mobitz II AV block 0.5-1.0 %

[ Tintinalli]


List in order of decreasing frequency, the


following Tachyarrhythmias with AMI:




1. Ventricular fibrillation (VF)


2. Atrial fibrillation (AF)


3. Atrial Flutter


4. Non sustained Ventricular Tachycardia (VT)


5. Accelerated Idioventricular rhythm


6. Sinus tachycardia


7. ventricular premature beats (VEB / PVC)

Most common to least common :




1. Ventricular premature beats ** 99%


( not necessarily tachycardia)


2. Accelerated Idioventricular Rhythm 50-70%


3. Non sustained Ventricular Tachycardia (VT)


60-70%


4. Sinus tachycardia 30-35%


5. Atrial fibrillation (AF) 5-10%


6. Ventricular fibrillation (VF) 4-7%


7. Atrial Flutter 1-2 %

[Tintinalli ]


List the 3 main benefits of Beta Blockers in AMI

Beta blockers Benefits In AMI :




1. Antiarrhythmic


2. Anti-ischaemic


3. Antihypertensive

[Tintinalli]


Which of the following is INcorrect regarding


nitrates and AMI ?


A. IV nitrates should be titrated to symptom resolution .


B. Nitrates inhibit platelet aggregation


C. Nitrates used in patients not thrombolysed for AMI has a mortality benefit.


D. Nitrates have a bearing on cardiovascular complications and infarct size.

A = IV nitrates titrated to Blood pressure


reduction [ 10% of MAP in normotensive ; 30% in hypertensives ]




B = They do.


C= Nitrates have 35% mortality reduction


D = (1) Decrease rate of cardiovascular complications AND (2) reduced


infarct size AND (3) improve regional function

List 4 known acute medical disorders


associated with AMI .

1. GI Bleeding


2. Stroke


3. Sepsis


4. Acute anxiety / emotional upset

Which of the following should not be given with AMI from cocaine use?




A. Aspirin


B. Nitrates


C. Benzodiazepines


D. B Blockers

D. B Blockers contraindicated

Which of the following is incorrect regarding Symptoms of acute coronary syndrome (ACS) shortly after PCI ?




A. Bare metal stents are more likely to restenose in the short term.


B. Subacute thrombotic occlusion after stent placement occurs in < 1% patients.


C. Stent occlusion usually presents between day 2 and day 14 post PCI procedure.


D. Drug eluting stents tend to present with late stent thrombosis.

B. Thrombotic occlusion of stents post AMI


occurs in 4% patients.




Bare metal = early occlusion


Drug-eluting = late occlusion

List the 3 main mechanical complications of AMI.

1. Free wall rupture


2. Rupture of inter ventricular septum


3. Papillary muscle rupture

Which is incorrect regarding Free wall rupture post AMI?




A. It usually occurs in the first 24 hours post AMI.


B. It occurs in 10% of AMI fatalities


C. Death is typically from pericardial tamponade in greater than 90% cases.


D. The treatment is surgical.

A. Free wall rupture occurs : Days 1 to 5

Which is correct regarding Rupture of the inter ventricular septum in AMI ?




A. It is a right-to- left shunt.


B. The murmur is holosystolic - best heard at the apex.


C. There is a palpable thrill.


D. It is more common with inferior AMI.

C.




A = left-to-right shunt


B = Holosystolic murmur heard best at lower left sternal border (LLSE)


D = More common with Anterior AMI

Which is correct regarding Papillary muscle


rupture with AMI ?




A. It occurs in 5% AMI.


B. It typically occurs on day 2 post AMI.


C. The murmur is a new holosystolic type with mitral regurgitation.


D. The anteromedial papillary muscle is most commonly ruptured.

C.




A = 1% AMI


B = Typically occurs days 3-5


D = the posteromedial papillary muscle most commonly ruptured.

In regards to post AMI pericarditis, which of the following is incorrect ?




A. It occurs in 5% patients with AMI.


B. It generally occurs days 2-4 post AMI.


C. Pericardial effusions are more common than pericarditis.


D. Pericarditis can be present in the absence of a pericardial effusion.

A. Post AMI pericarditis in 10-20%

In regards to Dressler Syndrome Post AMI, which of the following is correct ?




A. It occurs 1-2 weeks post AMI.


B. Treatment is with high dose aspirin.


C. NSAIDS are added to aspirin for Dressler


Syndrome.


D. Dressler Syndrome = chest pain +


pleuropericarditis - without fever.



B. aspirin 650 mg QID




A = 2-10 weeks post AMI


C = NSAIDS interfere with aspirin's anti platelet activity (and can cause myocardial scar thinning and infarct expansion)


D = Fever is present

Which of the following is incorrect regarding the Killip classification system ?




A. It risk stratifies Myocardial infarction patients.


B. It has 4 classes : I - IV


C. The original study was a RCT in 1967


D. Class III has frank pulmonary oedema.

C. The study was a case series with unblinded, unobjective outcomes, not adjusted for


confounding factors, nor validated in an


independent set of patients.


The setting was the coronary care unit of a


university hospital inthe USA.

List the symptoms / signs of the 4 Classes of the Killip Classification System.

Class I : No signs of heart failure


Class II : elevated JVP / S3 gallop / Lung crackles


Class III : Frank Pulmonary oedema


Class IV : Hypotension / Cardiogenic shock


Evidence of peripheral vasoconstriction:


( Oliguria / cyanosis)

What are the current 30 day mortality rates in each Killip Classification ?

Class I : 2.8% 3% [5%]


Class II : 8.8% 9% [ 15-20% ]


Class III: 14.4% 15% [ 40%]


Class IV : 81% 80%




** Alternative source Figures from Dunn