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51 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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What effect do inducers and inhibitors of P450 have on the activity of the drug?
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inducers --> inc metabolism --> less active drug
inhibitors --> dec metabolism --> more active drug |
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To what class of drugs does Tolbutamide belong to and what is it meant to treat?
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sulfonyurea, used for Type 2 DM
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How does probenecid at high doses compare to its function at low doses?
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probenecid at low does competes for renal transport, thus worsening the effects of gout; at high doses however, it increases uric acid loss at other areas in the tubule, improving gout
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What are the drugs that compete for renal transporters?
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Some Pharmaceuticals plus urate stop transporters:
sulfonamides, probenecid, penicillin, uric acid, salicylates, thiazides |
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Use of alcohol or rifampin with INH may cause what?
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liver damage and possible liver failure
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What are the symptoms of serotonin syndrome and what are the main drugs to cause it?
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hyperthermia, severe muscle spasm, tachycardia, facial flushing, rhabdomyolysis
--MAOI, SSRI, TCA, SNRI, decongestants, pseudophedrine |
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What drug causes Ebstein anomaly?
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lithium
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What is cidofovir used to treat?
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CMV retinitis, DOC for smallpox and severe adenovirus infection
adverse rxn: nephrotoxic |
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What is flucytosine used to treat? toxicity?
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one of two first-line drugs for the treatment of cryptococcal meningitis
bone marrow toxic |
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What is the definition of myelodysplasia?
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pre-leukemic
increase in the number of myeloid blasts in marrow but not yet in blood |
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Embryology:
name sites of hematopoiesis |
1 month: yolk sac
3 months: liver and spleen 4 months: bone marrow acronym: young liver synthesizes blood |
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The common stem cell (preblast) expresses what surface marker?
and what do these cells differentiate into? |
CD34
CD34+ cells differentiate into: 1. myeloid 2. lymphoid blasts |
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Which mediators of inflammation are responsible for exudation?
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histamine
bradykinin |
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To which HLA class do nucleated cells and APCs belong to? (respectively)
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nucleated cell: HLA Class 1: HLA-A, B, C
APCs: HLA Class 2: HLA-DP, DQ, DR |
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What does TGF-alpha stimulate?
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stimulates angiogenesis and tumor growth
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What does TNF-alpha do?
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also known as cachectin
fever inhibits lipoprotein lipase stimulates acute phase response as well as T and B cells |
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Anaphylotoxins include C3a and C5a and they stimulate what cells to release histamine?
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mast cells
basophils platelets |
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What are the autoantibodies in bullous pemphigoid and pemphigus?
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bullous pemphigoid: anti-epidermal basement membrane
pemphigus: anti-keratinocyte junction |
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What is the tetrad for polyarteritis nodosa?
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fever, HTN, abdominal pain, and renal dz (w/o glomerulonephritis)
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Name 7 criteria for rheumatoid arthritis.
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1. morning stiffness >1 improving with use
2. arthritis in 3 + joints simultaneously 3. arthritis in hand joints [ulnar deviation, Boutonniere, swan-neck, z-thumb deformities] 4. symmetrical arthritis 5. rheumatoid nodules 6. serum rheumatoid factor 7. erosions or bony decalcification identifiable on X-ray |
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Describe tenderness associated with chronic somatic dysfunction.
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achy, dull, burning, with parenthesias, gnawing
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Define Type 1 Fryette principle.
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neutral, sidebending and rotation occur in opposite directions
nomenclature/mechanics: S > R occurs in a group of vertebrae |
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Define Type 2 Fryette principle.
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flexed/extended (non-neutral)
sidebending/rotation occur in SAME direction nomenclature/mechanics: R>S occurs in one vertebral level |
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If T1 is rotated right, and rotation increases with flexion, reamins rotated right in neutral, but returns to a more neutral position with extension, will T1 be noted as flexed or extended?
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extended
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Name the motion and axis associated with the coronal/frontal plain.
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motion: sidebending
axis: A-P (anterior-posterior) |
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Define eccentric contraction.
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muscle contraction that results with the muscle's lengthening due to an external opposite force. it is a form of isotonic contraction.
i.e. sustained contraction of the biceps while the biceps lengthens to allow one to place a book one was holding onto a table. |
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In the sequence of OMT treatment, you begin centrally and work peripherally. What is the exception?
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in the case of very acute somatic dysfunction; in these situations, peripheral areas are treated first to allow one eventual access to the central area.
also, cranial tx can be implemented prior to the sequence to create a relaxed state and to augment OMT in other areas |
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If a tender point is non-responsive to counterstrain, then what is it referred to as?
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a Maverick point
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In each of the types of muscle energy, what is activated, allowing for reflex relaxation of the agonist muscle?
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1. post-isometric relaxation: activation of the golgi tendon organs
2. reciprocal inhibition: activation of the reciprocal inhibition reflex arc in the spinal cord. |
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Name the 3 types of necrosis. Is this reversible or irreversible?
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coagulaiton, liquefactive (brain), caseous (TB)
irreversible |
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What cells do you expect on day 1 and day 2 of wound repair?
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day 1: neutrophils
day 2: macrophages, fibroblasts |
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What complements are responsible for chemotaxis and opsonization?
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chemotaxis: C5a
opsoninzation: C3b |
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What cytokines function during acute inflammation?
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IL-1, IL-8, TNF-alpha
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Which cytokine is responsible for proliferation of vascular smooth muscle cell?
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PDGF
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What is required to activate the alternative complement pathway?
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contact with micrboial surfaces (i.e. yeast, bacterial cell walls or endotoxins)
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What type of amyloid is associated with multiple myeloma?
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amyloid light chains
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What are some signs and symptoms of type 3 hypersensitivity reaction?
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urticaria, lymphadenopathy, arthritis, vasculitis, glomerulonephritis
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What gene product and disease are associated with the c-abl oncogene?
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tyrosine kinase
CML |
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What diseases are associated with the alkaline phosphatase tumor marker?
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-metastases to bones
-obstructive biliary dz -Paget's dz |
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In an autosomal recessive dz, what is the likelihood of having a sick, heterozygous, or normal child if a heteroxygote marries a healthy?
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0% sick
50% normal 50% heterozygote |
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Which genetic pedigree tends to skip generations and does not exhibit male to male transmission?
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X-linked recessive
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What autosomal recessive dz exhibits fair skin, blue eyes, and mental retardation if untreated?
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phenylketonuria
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What does the autosomal dominant dz phacomatoses present with?
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benign tumors of the eye, skin, and brain
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Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome is an x-linked recessive dz due to a deficiency in what?
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functional deficiency of B and T cells
thrombocytopenia |
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What disease presents with aortic coarctation, broad chest and widely spaced nipples, and webbed neck?
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turner's syndrome, 45, XO
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What disease is associated with a partial deletion of chromosome 13q?
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retinoblastoma
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What syndrome presents with severe infantile hypotony, obesity, and mental retardation?
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Prader Willi syndrome
paternal chromosome deletion of 15q11-13 |
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What HLA is associated with multiple sclerosis and narcolepsy?
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HLA-DR2
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What is the most common solid malignancy in children outside the CNS?
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neuroblastoma
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There will be a false positive VDRL in SLE due to what antibody?
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cardiolipin
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What is CREST syndrome? and what is the antibody associated with it?
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limited sclerosis:
calcinosis raynaud's esophageal dysmotility sclerodactyly telangiectasia anti-centromere |
