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162 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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(201) Who provides the foundation of the integrated defense (ID) concept? |
Security Forces |
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(201) All of the following are guiding principles of the integrated defense (ID) concept except |
capabilites for dominanting mass |
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(201) Integrated defense does not require the capability to |
defuse |
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(201) The intelligence fusion cell and its products are the primary information sources that directly supports the |
Defense force commander |
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(202) The loss or disablement of non-nuclear assets that would harm or damage AF effectiveness to project decisive combat power and wage war are identified as |
power projection assets |
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(203) What is defined as "organizing installation defense efforts among responsible internal/external agencies to ensure all aspects of integrated defense are accomplished, considered, and compensated for"? |
Integrated Defense Plan |
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(203) Integrated defense plans (IDPs) are accomplished by Air Reserve and/or Air National Guard (ANG) installations/units |
only if the installation is responsible for protection level resources |
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(203) What can effectively delay intruders in order to facilitate definitive threat classification and assessment and response by Security Forces? |
Physical barriers |
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(204) A relatively secure area that allows for identification of personnel and vehicles is defined as |
a search area |
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(204) What area should be as far back from the search facility as possible? |
Staging area |
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(204) In offense, obstacles assist in flank security, limiting enemy counterattack, cut off enemy reinforcement or routes of withdrawal, and |
isolating objectives |
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(204) The two types of obstacles you will typically encounter are |
existing and reinforcing |
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(205) "To fight and win our nation’s wars by providing prompt, sustained land dominance across the full range of military operations and specturm of conflict in support of combatant commanders" is the mission of the |
Army
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(205) What is the Navy’s largest formation? |
Fleet
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(205) A Marine Corps platoon is equivalent to an Air Force |
Flight
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(206) The term used for a terrorist group that generally operates independently of, but receives support from, one or more governments is |
state-supported |
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(206) Generally, specially trained terrorists are of above average intelligence and between the ages of |
23 and 30 |
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(206) When are terrorist team members brought together for final rehearsal? |
Just before departing for the target |
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(206) The tactic most commonly used by terrorist groups is |
bombing |
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(206) What term describes the stated desire or history of terrorist attacks against US interests? |
Intentions |
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(207) Which threat level I activity is identified by random acts against targets of opportunity? |
Sympathizers |
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(207) Which term is defined as acting as individuals or in small groups and using a wide range of weapons, including small arms, hand grenades, rocket-propelled grenades, various small explosives, and incendiary devices? |
Terrorists |
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(207) Which threat level doctrine stresses the use of battalion-size units to conduct helicopter insertions to a depth of 50 kilometers (km)? |
III
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(208) Which of these is not a force protection effect? |
Defuse |
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(208) The key to force protection countermeasure planning is |
protecting sensitive information |
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(208) What is defined as the capability to reduce the effectiveness of attacking forces and reconnaissance assets through the principles of hide, blend, disguise, and decoy? |
Camouflage, concealment, deception (CCD) |
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(208) Which term means to simulate an object or to use a signature generator to simulate a potential target? |
Decoy |
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(209) Rules of engagement (ROE) are the commander’s rules for |
the use of force |
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(209) What consideration does not drive Rules of Engagement? |
Civilian |
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(209) What is defined as the threat of imminent use of force against the U.S. and U.S. forces and includes the threat to use force to preclude or impede the mission and/or duties of U.S. forces? |
Hostile intent |
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(210) The Air Force unit type code (UTC) library has how many posturing codes? |
6
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(210) When the need for a new unit type code (UTC) or a major change in an existing UTC is required, the change is initiated at |
any level
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(210) What unit type code (UTC), when deployed with QFEBB and QFEBS, provides HQ Staff support for a medium to large (130 – 180 personnel) deployed Security Forces unit? |
QFEBA
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(211) How many phases are there in the deployment process? |
four
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(211) The process of Reception, Staging, Onward-Movement and Integration begins in which deployment phase? |
Deployment
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(211) In the deployment process, which of these is the focal point for all base deployments? |
Installation deployment readiness cell |
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(212) Which of the following is not a readiness reporting tool? |
Designed operational capability (DOC) statement. |
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(212) The Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) has how many areas of reporting? |
4
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(212) A summary of a unit’s mission and resources for which it has been organized, designed, and equipped is known as |
a Designed Operational Capability (DOC) Statement |
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(213) What must Security Forces (SF) ensure is identified immediately so that action can be taken to mitigate across the Air Force? |
Any deficiencies |
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(213) At a minimum, how many after action reports (AARs) must be submitted? |
Two |
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(213) The final after action report (AAR) must be submitted how many days prior to the end of a deployment? |
15 days |
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(213) The use of electronic control devices is included in what after action report (AAR) incident classification? |
Miscellaneous |
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(214) The nuclear roadmap focuses primarily from the |
operational level |
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(214) What is essential to our security? |
Nuclear deterrence |
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(214) The nuclear roadmap aligns mission focus with |
combatant commanders |
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(214) What is defined as the denial of unauthorized access to nuclear weapons? |
Nuclear Weapon Security Standard |
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(214) Inspections and visits focus primarily on whether the security program can meet the Nuclear Weapon Security Standards (NWSS) under scenarios represented by |
Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA) |
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(214) Active and passive security measures are used to achieve which principle |
Delay
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(214) Who ensures that the host installation meets two-person concept requirements and that no-lone zones are delineated around nuclear logistic aircraft? |
Couriers |
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(215) The Nuclear Security Threat Capabilities Assessment (NSTCA) forms the cornerstone of threat |
planning |
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(215) How many potential adversary groups are of primary concern in nuclear security? |
3 |
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(215) "A person or group that holds an extreme ideological view, either politically or in support of a specific issue" is the definition of |
protestors |
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(215) The product resulting from collecting, processing, integrating, evaluating, analyzing and interpreting of available information concerning foreign countries or areas is
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intelligence |
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(216) The risk acceptance authority for security deviations is the |
MAJCOM commander. |
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(216) Security deviations are documented on AF Form |
116 |
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(216) Who is responsible for ensuring the need for individuals to enter an exlusion area? |
Sole vouching authority |
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(216) Upon opening an exclusion area, members requesting entry must have |
a valid reason to be in the exclusion area |
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(216) One escort official can escort how many people into an exclusion area? |
Six
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(216) If an emergency arises that requires an evacuation and all personnel are not accounted for, there is the possibility of |
a stay behind threat |
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(217) How many lines of sensors surround a launch facility (LF)? |
Two |
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(217) Where would you find a weapon security vault? |
Weapons storage and security system (WS3) |
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(217) What is the largest storage facility for nuclear weapons? |
Kirtland underground munitions maintenance storage complex (KUMMSC) |
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(217) Which of these are not considered a nuclear capable aircraft? |
B-1
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(217) (DCNI) Primary Nuclear Airlift Force (PNAF) rehearsals should be conducted within what timeframe of the pre-arrival window? |
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(217) (DCNI) What type of aircraft security is afforded to a Primary Nuclear Airlift Force (PNAF) carrying nuclear weapons? |
Type I |
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(217) (DCNI) What is a Type II security forces composition? |
Security response team |
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(217) (DCNI) Who must authenticate all entry authority lists (EALs) for the Primary Nuclear Airlift Force (PNAF)? |
Courier and SF representative |
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(218) Alert aircraft areas that contain nuclear weapons mated to aircraft delivery systems are designated as |
a limited area |
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(218) The area immediately around an alert aircraft must be |
no closer than 10 feet and no further than 60 feet. |
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(218) (DCNI) When the last tasked aircraft is loaded and placed on alert the generation area becomes |
an alert aircraft parking area |
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(218) How many types of nuclear movements are there on an installation? |
Two |
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(219) Which method of movement do you keep your body off the ground and rest on your forearms and lower legs? |
High Crawl |
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(219) The technique that requires great patience is movement with |
Stealth |
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(220) How many categories of patrols are there? |
2 |
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(220) What type of patrol conducts attacks on a position or installation followed by a planned withdrawal? |
Raid |
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(220) Who uses area reconnaissance patrols to gather information? |
Defense Force Commanders (DFC) |
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(221) In fire and manuever operations, most of the maneuvering forces fire support comes from |
team’s own weapons |
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(221) Which movement technique is used when contact with the enemy is not likely and speed is needed? |
Traveling |
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(221) When moving during limited visibility conditions, dead reckoning is what type of technique? |
Navigation |
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(221) What type of danger area would be passed on the downwind side? |
Enemy positions |
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(222) Weather and light data is found in which paragraph of the operations order? |
Situation |
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(222) Which operations order paragraph provides a clear, concise statement of the task to be accomplished? |
Mission
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(222) What would not be discussed in the service and support paragraph of the operations order? |
Any type of support fire |
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(223) Who has the primary responsibility of knowing where all SF units are throughout the duration of the tour of duty? |
Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC) controller |
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(223) Due to the nature of the responsibilites, a Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC) is considered |
a controlled area |
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(223) Who does the Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC) controller filter information up to? |
Flight Sergeant |
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(223) Consolidating reports is a task performed in which Tactical Operations Center (TOC) function? |
Analyzing information |
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(224) In which fire control measure does the leader control the fire? |
Direct |
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(224) Which firing element has an engagement priorty of groups of five or more in the secondary sector? |
Machine gun gunners |
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(224) Range is given in what unit of measurement? |
Meters |
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(225) Which of these is not a probable direction of attack? |
Cliff |
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(225) The engagement range of machine guns in the base-of-fire element is within |
800 meters |
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(225) By virtue of the inherent firepower, machine guns with security detachments effectively achieves all of the following except |
Defeat |
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(226) What is the standard issue weapon for a designated marksman? |
M4 |
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(226) Which close precision engagement (CPE) task provides the capability to standoff from a target, assess the situation, and pass timely information? |
Response |
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(226) Operating openly or covertly as a listening/observation post describes which task of Close Precision Engagement (CPE)? |
Screening |
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(227) When must every defender perform shoot, move, and communicate training? |
Between months 5 and 7 |
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(227) Which weapon carry technique is used when operating in tight spaces or in close proximity to other personnel? |
Depressed ready |
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(227) When the shooter pivots on the strong side foot to face the threat what tactical movement is being peformed? |
Contact rear |
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(201) hat is the objective of integrated defense (ID)?
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To provide full dimensional protection for personnel and resources |
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(201) ID doctrine calls for sequenced actions in what two phases?
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Pre-execution and execution phases |
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(202) What are the four main components of IDRMP?
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(1) Risk assessment; (2) risk tolerance decision; (3) course of action (COA) determination; and (4) decision and implementation |
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(202) During what stage of the IDRMP process, are countermeasures identified and quantified to reduce security risks exceeding the commander‘s tolerance level?
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Risk mitigation COA development |
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(203) Who must publish an integrated defense plan? |
All installations and units possessing or supporting protection level resources |
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(203) How often is the IDP updated and approved by the installation commander? |
Every 12 months |
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(203) What must an integrated defense security system accomplish? |
Permits more economical and efficient use of security personnel, provides additional controls at critical areas or points, enhances security force capability to detect and defeat intruders, provides the earliest practical warning to security forces of any attempted penetration of protected areas |
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(203) What factors can influence system performance?
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Seasonal and/or ambient weather conditions, type of background against which systems are attempting to operate. For example, motion detection systems work well in remote environments but can suffer data overload in an urban environment, environmental and/or geographical locations, the number and variety of systems used |
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(204) What is a relatively secure area where personnel and vehicles are positively identified and searched?
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The search area |
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(204) Physical barriers are used at the base perimeter to perform what functions?
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Define the perimeter of the base or fixed site, establish a physical and psychological deterrent to attackers and to individuals attempting unlawful or unauthorized entry, optimize use of Security Forces, enhance detection and apprehension opportunities by Security Forces |
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(205) What is the primary mission of a joint operation? |
To sustain the campaign and major operations of the joint force |
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(205) The unified combatant commander (CCDR) is ultimately responsible for what? |
All JRA operations conducted in the theater, including maintaining the security of the command and protecting US possessions and bases against attack or hostile incursions; assigning responsibility for defense; ensuring appropriate command relationships are established; and determining the classification of bases in the theater (single-service or joint base) |
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(206) What are the three general categories of terrorist groups?
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Non state-supported, state supported, state-directed |
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(206) Armed attacks on facilities are usually undertaken for one of what three purposes? |
To gain access to radio or television broadcasting equipment used to make a statement, to demonstrate the government’s inability to protect critical facilities or national symbols, for logistical purposes, such as attacks on a bank or armory (money and weapons) |
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(207) What response is warranted for a level II threat? |
Self-defense measures and response forces with supporting fire |
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(207) List examples of level III threats. |
Airborne, airmobile, and naval infantry operations |
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(208) What efforts conserve the Air Force’s fighting potential by safeguarding its forces and mission capability through the achievement of predetermined effects?
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Force protection (FP) |
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(208) What activities are conducted to detect, deter, and neutralize adversary intelligence gathering? |
Counterespionage programs |
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(209) ROEs fall into what two distinct categories? |
Self-defense and mission accomplishment |
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(209) What self-defense element exists when a hostile act occurs or when a hostile intent is exhibited? |
Necessity |
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(210) What are the three posturing codes used by Security Forces? |
DW, DX, and DP |
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(210) What SF UTC provides 24-hour security for tasked bomber aircraft during contingencies and general war? |
QFEBH SFS Security Forces Bomber support |
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(211) What are the four deployment phases? |
Pre-deployment, deployment, employment, and re-deployment |
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(211) What are the five deployment types that all Airmen could be configured in? |
Warfighter, joint expeditionary tasking (JET), individual augmentee, 365-day deployments, and other country national (OCN) escort |
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(212) In SORTS what are the four main areas of reporting? |
Personnel, Equipment and Supplies, Condition of Equipment and Supplies and Training |
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(212) Define what is a mission essential task. |
A task based on mission analysis and approved by the commander that is absolutely necessary, indispensable, or critical to the success of a mission |
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(213) What process exists to enhance readiness and improve combat capability by capitalizing on the experiences of Airmen? |
Lessons learned |
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(213) List examples of situations that potentially arise and require accomplishing an AAR. |
Terrorist act, shooting incident, security incident, military corrections incident, combat arms or training incident, any incident that may be of educational value for the SF career field |
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(214) What does the nuclear roadmap focus on?
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The stewardship of the nuclear mission from an operational level |
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(214) What does the roadmap highlight? |
The nuclear enterprise and clearly aligns mission focus with that of the combatant commanders it supports |
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(214) Define the nuclear weapon security standard (NWSS).
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The denial of unauthorized access to nuclear weapons; preventing loss of custody; and preventing, to the maximum extent possible, radiological contamination caused by unauthorized acts |
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(214) What capabilities must contribute to a defense-in-depth approach, which supports the nuclear weapons security program concepts?
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Deter, detect, delay, denial, and defeat |
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(215) What is a NSTCA? |
A DIA-led, intelligence community assessment of the capabilities and intentions of a variety of actors to gain unauthorized physical access to a U.S. nuclear weapon |
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(215) Who are three potential adversary groups of primary concern in nuclear security? |
Criminals, protesters, terrorists |
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(216) What are the purposes of the security criteria deviation program? |
Ensure that deviations from established criteria are systematically and uniformly identified and approved by the proper level of command so that informed risk decisions are made. The operating MAJCOM commander is the risk acceptance authority; provide a management tool to monitor corrective actions taken to ensure established security standards are maintained. Generally, deviations require compensatory measures that provide an equivalent level of security, ensure timely and aggressive actions are taken to correct deviations from security standards and resources are applied, as necessary ensure systems are evaluated to determine vulnerabilities and mitigation methods since deviations by themselves may or may not create security system vulnerability |
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(216) What are the categories of deviations? |
Technical, temporary, or permanent deviations |
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(216) How many SVAs are permitted per exclusion area? |
One |
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(216) Who must consult with the SVA prior to entering an exclusion area?
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Escort official |
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(217) What comprises a missile complex? |
Three to four squadron areas, containing five Missile Alert Facilities (MAF) which provide housing for deployed Security Forces members and services teams; and Launch Facilities (LF), which house the intercontinental ballistic missile (ICBM) nuclear resource |
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(217) (DCNI) What prevents observation of nuclear weapons operations, aircraft operations and protection from aerial attack and small arms fire? |
(DCNI) The protective aircraft shelter (PAS) |
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(217) What must responsible commanders conduct upon notification of an impending PNAF mission? |
A mission-specific local threat assessment |
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(217) (DCNI) What is the composition of Type I security? |
(DCNI) Close-in sentry and close boundary sentry, dedicated security response team and area supervisor, external security response team, response force, and backup force |
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(218) How are alert aircraft areas that contain nuclear weapons mated to aircraft delivery systems designated? |
Limited area
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(218) (DCNI) Where should all preparation actions at the convoy initiation and destination points be performed? |
(DCNI) In a secure environment, unobservable by an adversary |
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(219) Which method of movement gives you the lowest silhouette? |
Low crawl |
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(219) What processes are used on all assigned duty gear, weapons, and vehicles? |
Pre-combat inspections (PCIs) and pre-combat checks (PCCs) |
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(220) What are the two categories of patrols? |
Combat and reconnaissance |
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(220) What do you conduct to obtain information about a specified location and the area around it? |
An area reconnaissance |
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(221) Define maneuver. |
Maneuver is the movement of forces supported by fire to achieve a position of advantage from which to destroy or threaten destruction of the enemy |
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(221) What provides the squad maximum firepower to the front? |
The squad line |
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(222) What items should be considered when issuing a WARNORD? |
Conduct roll call, ensure team members have the 3-P’s (pen, paper and pencil), brief the situation, give a brief description of what the enemy has been doing along with our actions, brief any attachments or detachments, brief the mission |
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(222) In the operations order, what paragraph includes the type of support fire and the priority of that fire for the mission being conducted? |
Execution paragraph |
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(223) What is the primary responsibility of a BDOC controller? |
Knowing where all SF units are throughout the duration of the tour of duty |
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(223) List the tasks associated with distributing information from the basic TOC functions. |
Submit reports to higher headquarters and adjacent units, serve as a communications relay between units, publish orders and instructions, process and distribute information to appropriate units or staff sections |
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(224) List and define the different methods of control. |
Sound: This includes voice and devices such as whistles and horns; prearranged fire: the leader designates a certain point of terrain feature at which you may fire (fire at will line); prearranged signals: the leader prearranges a signal that tells personnel to start firing, this can be a visual or sound signal; airman-initiated fire: used when there is no time for orders from the leader |
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(224) What are the engagement priorities of automatic riflemen? |
Along the FPL, if signaled to do so and at groups of five or more in the primary sector (closest to farthest) |
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(225) What is the machine gun’s primary mission when used in an attack? |
To provide covering fire |
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(225) When used in defense, what does the machine gun’s tremendous firepower enable? |
The unit to hold ground |
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(226) Define the role of close precision engagement. |
To provide long-range discriminant/precision fire and gather information to enhance tactical response and warfighting capabilities |
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(226) What is the principle behind the designated marksman concept? |
To take SF members who are already proven good shots and simply capitalize on their existing skill through fitting enhanced sights to their weapon |
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(227) What is the objective of the shoot, move, and communicate course? |
To provide personnel with the basic skills necessary to shoot, move, and communicate as a team and for each member to become proficient at applying these skills |
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(227) List the steps to execute a rapid reload. |
Announce "Cover!" then remove loaded magazine from pouch (use firing or support hand); orient magazine to go into magazine well; loading hand holds magazine next to magazine well, press magazine release - drop/pull out empty magazine, insert loaded magazine - ensure magazine seats (pull down), press bolt catch (right handed use thumb; left handed use trigger finger or support hand fingers); hit forward assist |
