3D172 Skt Vol 1

Front 1

(001) Which 3D career field deploys, sustains, troubleshoots, and repairs wireless, line-of-sight, beyond line-of-sight, wideband and ground-based satellite and encryption transmission devices?

Back 1

Radio Frequency (RF) Transmission Systems (3D1X3)

Front 2

002) Which of the following is not a communications security program duty and responsibility for Cyber Transport Systems?

Back 2

Technical Security

Front 3

(003) What is defined as an integrated bundle of expert knowledge and organizational skills inherent to a particular career field?

Back 3

Core Competency

Front 4

Which of the following is a core competency of Cyber Transport Systems?

Back 4

Voice Network Systems

Front 5

Which AF form is used to report hazardous conditions that place Air Force personnel or property at risk?

Back 5

AF IMT 457

Front 6

Which hazard is not one of the four major types of hazards?

Back 6

Nuclear

Front 7

Which hazard is caused by heavy workloads, lack of control over the pace of work, shift work, noise, working by yourself, and conflict with coworkers and employers?

Back 7

Stress

Front 8

To prevent manual handling hazards, utilize team lifting when lifting items that weigh more than how many pounds?

Back 8

25

Front 9

When working on electrical circuits, the role of safety observer is normally performed by the

Back 9

Supervisor

Front 10

When working on electrical circuits, you may only wear metal framed eyeglasses if

Back 10

they are secured with a nonmetallic cord

Front 11

To whom does the risk management (RM) process apply?

Back 11

All personnel

Front 12

What simple, systematic process allows commanders to maximize combat capability, while limiting risk?

Back 12

Risk Management

Front 13

Which of the following is a principle of risk management (RM)?

Back 13

Apply the RM process continuously

Front 14

How many steps are in the risk management (RM) process?

Back 14

Five

Front 15

An enclave that does not have a firewall and intrusion detection system (IDS) is classified as having what category of vulnerability?

Back 15

One

Front 16

How many Integrated Network and Operation Security Centers (INOSC) does the Air Force have?

Back 16

Two

Front 17

The Integrated Network Operations and Security Centers (INOSC) has several responsibilities except

Back 17

install patches or perform any upgrades provided by the Air Force Enterprise Network (AFEN)

Front 18

Which term is used to describe the technology for transmitting voice communications over a data network using open-standard-based internet protocol (IP)?

Back 18

IP telephony

Front 19

You should implement all of the following security features to help defend internet protocol (IP) telephony systems from attackers except

Back 19

consolidating your voice with your data using virtual local area networks (VLAN).

Front 20

At which open systems interconnect (OSI) layer does a packet filter gateway operate at?

Back 20

three

Front 21

At which open systems interconnect (OSI) layer does a circuit layer gateway operate?

Back 21

four

Front 22

At which open systems interconnect (OSI) layer does an application-level firewall operate?

Back 22

seven

Front 23

The disadvantage of a host-based intrusion detection system (HIDS) is that it

Back 23

consumes resources on the host it resides on and slows that device down.

Front 24

One advantage of a network-based intrusion detection system (NIDS) is that it

Back 24

uses very few network resources

Front 25

Which intrusion detection system (IDS) uses software sensors?

Back 25

Host-based

Front 26

Which intrusion detection system (IDS) monitors packets for protocol anomalies and known virus signatures?

Back 26

Network-based

Front 27

Host-based intrusion detection systems (HIDS) are

Back 27

passive and active

Front 28

Network-based intrusion detection systems (NIDS) are

Back 28

passive

Front 29

What security posture permits everything that is not specifically denied?

Back 29

Default allow

Front 30

What type of certificate authenticates the identity of the user?

Back 30

Digital

Front 31

What is the first line of defense in securing laptops?

Back 31

Set a login ID and password combination for access

Front 32

The definition of integrity as applied to identification, authentication, and encryption is

Back 32

the assurance that no one has changed or destroyed information without permission.

Front 33

What Air Force Systems Security Instruction (AFSSI) series covers emission security (EMSEC)?

Back 33

7000

Front 34

Which AF System Security Instruction (AFSSI) provides the overall implementation of DOD’s TEMPEST program?

Back 34

7700

Front 35

Which method of containing radiated emanations requires both facility and equipment testing?

Back 35

Zoning

Front 36

A facility with an inspectable space of more than 20 meters, but less than 100 meters would be considered to be in facility zone

Back 36

B

Front 37

Equipment with an equipment radiation TEMPEST zone (ERTZ) of 20 to 100 meters would be considered to be in equipment zone

Back 37

C

Front 38

Why must the use of TEMPEST-certified equipment be validated by an AF Certified TEMPEST technical authority (CTTA) prior to testing an inspectable space?

Back 38

It is expensive

Front 39

What plays a major role in a conductor’s ability to minimizing compromising emanations?

Back 39

Distance and angle

Front 40

Equipment is comprised as machines that process information in electronic or electrical form. What equipment should be designated as RED?

Back 40

Equipment processing clear-text classified information.

Front 41

What equipment should be designated as BLACK when designating equipment that supports physical and electrical concepts?

Back 41

Equipment processing encrypted classified information.

Front 42

Which type of separation ensures that every signal conductor from a RED device routes to another RED device, or becomes encrypted before connecting to a BLACK device?

Back 42

Electrical

Front 43

What is the grounding resistance goal for military communications electronics (C-E) facilities?

Back 43

10 ohms or less

Front 44

Which facility ground subsystem uses surge arrestors?

Back 44

Lightning protection

Front 45

Which facility ground subsystem is also called the safety ground?

Back 45

Fault protection

Front 46

Which facility ground subsystem is also called the “signal ground” and controls electrical noise and static in a facility?

Back 46

Signal reference

Front 47

Bonds in the earth electrode subsystem normally are direct permanent bonds and do not exceed a resistance of

Back 47

1 milliohm

Front 48

What kind of bond is normally applied to signal reference bonds?

Back 48

Mechanical

Front 49

What is required in electronic settings to prevent equipment and signals from propagating interference and to protect equipment and signals from the effects of interference propagated by other devices?

Back 49

Shielding

Front 50

Which type of shielding utilizes braid, foil, metal wrap, conduit or twisted wire around a conductor?

Back 50

Cable

Front 51

What does an integral system of air terminals, roof conductors, and down conductors, securely interconnected to the shortest practicable path to earth provide for a facility?

Back 51

Protection from lightning

Front 52

Which electronic discharge sensitive (ESD) class has a sensitivity range from 0 – 999 volts?

Back 52

Class 1

Front 53

Which of these activities would generate the most electrostatic current?

Back 53

Walking across carpet

Front 54

Which power line fault category is symptomatic of a total loss of utility power?

Back 54

Blackout

Front 55

Which power line fault category is symptomatic of an instantaneous or dramatic increase in voltage?

Back 55

Spike

Front 56

Which power line fault category is typically referred to as electro-magnetic interference and radio frequency interference?

Back 56

Noise

Front 57

Which type of uninterruptible power supply (UPS) is traditionally referred to as “offline”?

Back 57

Passive standby

Front 58

Which type of uninterruptible power supply (UPS) offers the highest level of protection?

Back 58

Double conversion

Front 59

How many phases of generator power are usually required for industrial and commercial applications?

Back 59

Three

Front 60

Which is not a consideration for selecting facility batteries?

Back 60

The number of AC converters required for the facility

Front 61

What function do facility batteries provide during normal operating conditions (commercial alternate current [AC] power available)?

Back 61

They act as a DC filter for the commercial AC power

Front 62

Which publication series covers standard Air Force installation practices?

Back 62

TO 31-10 series

Front 63

How are connectorized cables labeled?

Back 63

The first label is placed within 12 inches of the connector and marked “TO”, and the second is placed within two (2) inches of the first label and marked “FROM”.

Front 64

Which section of a horizontal cable duct is used for signal and control cables?

Back 64

Upper

Front 65

Support intervals for cables requiring surface installation will not exceed how many feet?

Back 65

Five

Front 66

The advantage of using coaxial cable over paired cable is that coaxial cable

Back 66

does not radiate energy

Front 67

Which type of cable does not radiate energy and is not affected by nearby magnetic fields?

Back 67

Shielded cable

Front 68

The thin plastic colored tape that spirals around a specific number of pairs that replicate in color is a

Back 68

binder

Front 69

What is used to identify the polarity of a wire pair in a cable?

Back 69

Tip and Ring

Front 70

What is the standard conductor used for data networking?

Back 70

RJ-45

Front 71

Pin 1 on a typical Electronics Industry Association/Telecommunications Industry Association (EIA/TIA) 568B connector is what color?

Back 71

White-Orange

Front 72

What cable type connects devices that operate at similar layers of the open system interconnection (OSI) model?

Back 72

Crossover

Front 73

What has made very high data rate transmission possible on a fiber optics cable?

Back 73

The use of light-emitting diodes

Front 74

What is the maximum operating temperature of fiber optic cable?

Back 74

1000C

Front 75

What are the three sections of a fiber optic cable?

Back 75

Core, cladding and jacket

Front 76

Which type of cable is the easiest to splice?

Back 76

Multimode step index fiber

Front 77

How long do most fiber-optic epoxies take to set?

Back 77

12-24 hours

Front 78

What do you use to remove excess fiber after the connector has cooled and epoxy has dried on a fiber cable?

Back 78

Scribe

Front 79

When using a polishing cloth, remove a little bit of the protruding fiber at a time, until the fiber is perfectly

Back 79

flat and level

Front 80

When a multimeter has three input terminal jacks, which jack is always used?

Back 80

Common

Front 81

When using an ohmmeter to take a resistance reading, what preliminary precaution should you take?

Back 81

Disconnect the power from the circuit being tested

Front 82

The purpose of a breakout box is to

Back 82

allow monitoring and access to multiple conductors

Front 83

The purpose of the miniature ON/OFF switches on a breakout box is to

Back 83

allow the interruption of the individual interface conductors for isolated testing.

Front 84

What happens to the observed signal if you advance the oscilloscope synchronizing control too far?

Back 84

Distortion

Front 85

Sampled data points are stored in the memory of a digital storage oscilloscope as

Back 85

waveform points

Front 86

What area of a digital storage oscilloscope takes digitized samples and performs numerous manipulations on the data including measuring rise and fall times, periods, time intervals, and math computations?

Back 86

Microprocessor

Front 87

What type of sampling does a digital storage oscilloscope normally use on single-shot or seldom-occurring signals?

Back 87

real-time

Front 88

What is the standard operating mode for the acquisition mode on a digital storage oscilloscope?

Back 88

Sample mode

Front 89

Which digital storage oscilloscope button controls all waveforms displayed in the STORE mode?

Back 89

CURSORS control

Front 90

Which section of a bit error rate test (BERT) set measures the received test pattern?

Back 90

Receiver

Front 91

What determines the size of a test pattern segment transmitted from a bit error rate test (BERT)?

Back 91

The number of bits that can represent the total number of bits in the test pattern.

Front 92

What type of error is the result of two successive logic one pulses of the same polarity that violates alternate mark inversion coding rules?

Back 92

Bipolar violation

Front 93

When using an optical time-domain reflectometer (OTDR), what action might a manufacturer require to prevent false readings?

Back 93

Connect a launch cable between the test set and the cable being tested.

Front 94

Which component of a protocol analyzer discards frames based on its definition or activates a trigger based on the trigger definition?

Back 94

Filter

Front 95

What protocol analyzer test window provides information concerning the network utilization and frame error that are related to a specific protocol?

Back 95

Protocol

Front 96

What protocol analyzer test window reports errors that occur at the physical layer such as bad frame check sequence (FCS), short frames, and jabbers?

Back 96

MAC

Front 97

What protocol analyzer test window automatically runs in the background when the protocol analyzer application is activated?

Back 97

Node Discover

Front 98

What active test is selected on a protocol analyzer to determine if a network node is connected or responding?

Back 98

PING

Front 99

What active test on a protocol analyzer is selected to see the path that the packets are traveling and the time it takes the packets to compete the trip?

Back 99

Trace route