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237 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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5 definitive features of a neoplasm (tumor)
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- Mass of tissue
- Arises from and resembles normal tissue - Poorly regulated cell division that's irreversible - Serves no beneficial physiologic purpose - Usually harmful, sometimes lethal |
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Benign (define)
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'Kind'
- Lacks ability to metastasize |
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Key characteristic of a malignant tumor
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Has ability to metastasize
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Anaplasia (define)
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Loss of structural/functional characteristics in a differentiated cell (de-differentiation)
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How does the cause of neoplasia differ from hyperplasia?
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Hyperplasia is a physiologic response to increased demand on an organ
- Neoplasia is a non-physiologic response of genetically abnormal cells |
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Suffix for a benign, glandular neoplasm
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- adenoma
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Suffix for a malignant, glandular neoplasm
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- adenocarcinoma
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Suffix for a benign, non-glandular neoplasm
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- oma
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Suffix for a malignant, non-glandular neoplasm
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- carcinoma
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Suffix for a benign, mesodermal neoplasm
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- oma
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Suffix for a malignant, mesodermal neoplasm
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- sarcoma
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5 characteristics of benign tumors
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- Never metastasizes
- Tends to resemble origin tissue - Relatively slow-growing - Expansile, encapsulated - Some benign tumors can be quite lethal |
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5 characteristics of a malignant tumor
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- Metastatic
- Rapid growth (numerous mitotic fragments) - Invasive - May not resemble tissue of origin - Large and variable nuclei |
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Initiation (define)
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Rapid, permanent, inherited change to a cell
- 'Sets the stage' for tumor development |
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Promotion (define)
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Occurs when an initiated cell is stimulated to divide via continuous or frequently repeated stimulations to the promotor
- Establishes neoplastic cell line and causes formation of a mass |
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What substance has both an initiator and a promoter?
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Complete carcinogen
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Oncogene (define)
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'Cancer gene'
- Region of eukaryotic genome with a homologous region on retroviral RNA genome |
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Oncogene (function)
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Regulatory substances in the cell
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Proto-oncogene (function)
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Plays a critical role in regulation of cell growth
- AKA as a 'cellular oncogene' |
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Tumor-suppressor gene (function)
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Creates normal gene products that regulate or inhibit cell proliferation
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Two tumor suppression gene examples
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- Rb
- p53 |
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Viral pathogenesis of neoplasia
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Involves either oncogenic DNA or RNA viruses
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Which oncogenic virus integrates with host cell's genome?
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DNA oncogenic viuses
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Which oncogenic virus is retroviral?
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RNA
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Two 'types' of DNA oncogenic viruses
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- Productive
- Transforming |
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3 characteristics of productive DNA viruses
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- Cause cell death
- Spread of infection - Non-oncogenic |
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3 characteristics of transforming DNA viruses
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- Integration
- No spread - Tumor cells formed |
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3 physical ways to cause neoplasia
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- Radiation
- Trauma - Bone fixation hardware |
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Two types of cancer that UV light is associated with
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- Squamous cell carcinoma
- Melanoma |
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What carcinogen type actually converts a cell into cancer?
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Proximate carcinogen
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What is a procarcinogen?
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A carcinogen that has to be metabolized to be active
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3 examples of chemical carcinogens
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- Hydrocarbons
- Azo dyes - Aflatoxins |
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Metastasis (define)
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Distant spread of tumors
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Two mechanisms of metastasis
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- Vascular spread
- Implantation |
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What is paraneoplastic syndrome?
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Systemic effect of tumor secretions on a body
- Unrelated to the physical characteristics of the tumor itself |
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Mechanism for Type I HS (2)
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AG binds with AB on mast cell or basophil, causing degranulation
- Causes edema and vasodilation Simultaneously, ARA is metabolized into PG and SRSA - Causes bronchoconstriction, vasodilation, and edema |
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Mechanisms for Type II HS (2)
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AB mediated cyto-toxicity
- AB binds to AG --> complement cascade activated AB mimicry of ligand - AB binds to cell-associated receptor --> mimics natural ligand --> induces cell to perform function of normal ligand binding (alternatively, can inhibit cell as well) |
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Mechanism for Type III HS
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Immune complex deposition under endothelium
- Causes 'frustrated phagocytosis' where leukocytes get pissed off at inaccessible complexes --> large deposition of lysosomal contents --> necrosis and inflammation of tissue |
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Mechanism for Type IV HS
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Cell mediated response of cytotoxic lymphocytes to abnormal cells in the body (due to injury, transplantation, etc.)
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3 similarities between immune mediated injury and inflammation
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- Use of vasoactive amines
- Recruitment of inflammatory cellls - Production of secondary tissue damage |
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Clinical example of Type I HS rxn
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Allergic reactions
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Clinical example of Type II HS rxn (3)
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- Myasthenia gravis
- Blood transfusion reactions - IMHA |
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Clinical example of Type III HS rxn (2)
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- Lupus
- FIP |
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Clinical example of Type IV HS rxn (2)
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- Contact dermatitis
- Tuberculin |
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What is 'Type V HS'?
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Antibody mimicry of a ligand
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What is the term for a hepatic stellate cell?
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Ito cell
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Ito cell function (3)
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- Stores vitamin A
- Stores fat - Sinusoidal blood flow |
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What can an Ito cell turn into?
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Myofibroblast during fibrosis following injury
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What is a Kupffer cell?
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MP of the liver
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Bile circulation pattern (4)
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Canaliculi --> bile ductules --> portal triads --> common bile duct
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Lobule model (define)
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Polygonal shape centered ona central vein that's bound by portal triads
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Acinus model (define)
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Diamond shape centered on triad and bounded by central veins
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What zone of acini is exposed to blood containing highest amount of nutrients?
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I
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What zone of acini is exposed to blood containing lowest amount of nutrients?
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III
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What zone of acini is the most metabolically active?
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I
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What zone of acini has the most fatty acid synthesis?
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I
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What zone of acini has the highest levels of mixed function oxidase enzymes?
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III
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Metabolism of drugs, toxins, and environmental chemicals to render them harmless and facilitate their excretion from the body
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Hepatic biotransformation (define)
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What's involved with phase I biotransformation?
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Cleavage of parent compounds and insertion of reactive groups
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What's involved with Phase II biotransformation?
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Conjugation of Phase I metabolites
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Can biotransformation lead to toxicity?
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Yup
- Phase I metabolites may be more reactive than their parent molecules |
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How can the liver cause ascites? (3)
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- Hypoalbuminemia
- Portal hypertension - CHF (though indirectly) |
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How can the liver cause coagulopathies?
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Fails to produce the necessary coagulation factors
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How does pre-hepatic hyperbillirubinemia occur?
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Hemolysis
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How does hepatic hyperbillirubinemia occur?
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Hepatocellular or cholestatic liver disease impairing uptake, conjugation, or excretion of billirubin into bile
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How does post-hepatic hyperbillirubinemia occur?
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Obstruction of common bile duct
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How does intrahepatic cholestasis occur?
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Functional reduction in bile outflow due to impairment of bile flow within the liver
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How does extrahepatic cholestasis occur?
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Functional reduction in bile outflow due to obstruction of extrahepatic bile duct
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Mechanism of photosensitization
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Chlorophyl metabolite phylloerythrin accumulates in tissue
- Happens due to cholestasis, because phylloerythrin is excreted in the bile |
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Liver doesn't synthesize urea correctly, so NH4 levels rise causing CNS signs and toxicity. What condition is this?
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Hepatic encephalopathies
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What is hepatic encephalopathy related to in dogs?
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Portosystemic shunts
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What is hepatic encephalopathy related to in horses?
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Acute liver disease
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What is hepatic encephalopathy related to in cattle?
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Chronic liver disease
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Two histologic features of reversible hepatocellular injury
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- Vacuolation
- Atrophy |
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3 causes of intracellular vacuolation
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- Hydropic
- Glycogen accumulation - Triglyceride accumulation |
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Two general causes of atrophy of hepatocytes
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- Lack of growth factors reaching liver
- Pressure from surrounding viscera |
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Four types of necrosis
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- Single cell
- Coagulative - Liquefactive - Caseous |
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What defines a coagulative necrosis?
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Cells maintain outline
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What defines a liquefactive necrosis?
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Rapid digestion of dead cells by hydrolytic enzymes
- Loss of cellular architecture |
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What defines a caseous necrosis?
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Friable material with cheese-like consistency within a wall of granulomatous inflammation
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Six patterns of necrosis of the liver
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- Focal/multifocal
- Centrilobular - Midzonal - Periportal - Massive - Piecemeal |
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What causes centrilobular necrosis? (2)
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- Hepatocytes furthest from portal vein are susceptible to hypoxia
- Viral infections |
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What causes periportal necrosis?
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Unmetabolized toxins
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What causes midzonal necrosis?
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High enough [enzyme] to perform phase I but not enough to perform phase II, so reactive intermediates from phase I are just hanging around and start messing up the joint
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2 causes of massive necrosis
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- Nutritional disease
- Toxic disease |
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What differs piecemeal necrosis from multifocal?
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Not sure actually, but it sounds like the distribution pattern (periportal --> lobule) and symptoms (lymphocytic inflammation, fibrosis)
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What generally causes focal/multifocal necrosis?
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Infectious agents
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Why is Zone 3 predisposed to necrosis? (2)
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- Hypoxia (furthest away from portal vein)
- Highest concentration of mixed function oxidase enzymes (CYP450; prone to highly reactive metabolites from toxin digestion) |
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Two types of hepatic cell classifications in Zone 3
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- Centrilobular
- Periacinar |
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Hepatitis (define)
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Inflammation of liver parenchyma
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Inflammation of bile ducts
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Cholangitis
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Inflammation of bile ducts with extension into periportal parenchyma
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Cholangiohepatitis
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Inflammation of gall bladder
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Cholecystitis
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Why might the liver be mistaken for being neoplastic?
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After liver regeneration, it may appear to be multinodular
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Scarring of the liver (word)
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Cirrhosis
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What is a sign of a liver in liver failure?
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Cirrhosis
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3 sequelae of hepatic fibrosis
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- Portal hypertension
- Ascites - Biliary hyperplasia |
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2 things that portal hypertension may result in
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- Acquired portosystemic shunts
- Ascites |
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Gross appearance of acquired portosystemic shunts
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Multiple smaller vessels
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Gross appearance of congenital shunts
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One, large vessel
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Most common congenital shunt
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Persistent fetal ductus venosus
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4 reasons hepatic rupture might occur
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- Trauma
- Amyloidosis - Fatty change - Neoplasia |
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Multifocal, cavernous, blood-filled dilations of groups of hepatic sinusoids
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Telangiectasis
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What two species does Telangiectasis usually occur in?
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- Cattle
- Cats |
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How does CHF cause ascites?
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Increase hydrostatic pressureat
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How does CHF affect the liver? (4)
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- Induces chronic passive congestion
- Atrophy - Fatty change - Necrosis |
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Morphological term for liver changes caused by chronic passive congestion
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Nutmeg liver
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Why does portal hypertension occur?
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Increases resistance to portal blood flow (pre-, hepatic, or post-)
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Sequelae of portal hypertension (2)
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- Ascites
- Acquired portosystemic shunts |
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What occurs in portal hypertension that does not occur in CHF?
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Acquired portosystemic shunts
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What substance accumulates in hepatocytes during corticosteroid-induced hepatopathy?
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Glycogen
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Mechanism for cortico-steroid induced hepatopathy
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Glucocorticoids induce glycogen synthetase, which increases glycogen production
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5 mechanisms for increased TRIG accumulation in hepatocytes
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- Increase entry of fatty acid
- Increase synthesis of fatty acids - Decreased oxidation of fatty acids - Decreased synthesis of apoproteins - Decreased synthesis and excretion of lipoproteins |
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Clinical conditions characterized by hepatic lipidosis (9)
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- Starvation
- Equine hyperlipidemia - Feline hepatic lipidosis - Bovine fatty liver syndrome (Pregnancy toxemia) - Bovine ketosis - Diabetes mellitus - Hypoxia - Toxicosis - Tension lipidosis |
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How does primary copper accumulation occur?
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Genetic defect in copper excretion
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What causes secondary copper accumulation to occur?
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Cholestasis
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Breed predisposed to primary copper accumulation
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Bedlington Terriers
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4 breeds that may have variable copper levels
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- Dalmation
- Dobermans - West Highland White Terriers - Sky Terriers |
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Three causes of liver abscesses in ruminants
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- Grain overload
- Rumenitis - Parasites |
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How does grain overload cause liver abscesses? (5)
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Increase in vFAs --> Acidosis --> increase in anaerobes --> rumen mucosal necrosis --> bacteria enter portal circulation
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What are multifocal lesions of fibrosis and chronic inflammation of the liver caused by larval ascarid migration called?
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Milk spots
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Two types of cholangiohepatitis
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- Suppurative
- Lymphocytic |
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What causes suppurative cholangiohepatitis? (3)
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- Ascending bacterial ifnection
- Choleliths - Bile duct obstruction |
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Two possible causes of lymphocytic cholangiohepatitis
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- Advanced suppurative cholangiohepatitis
- Immune mediated |
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Two types of hepatotoxins
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- Idiosyncratic
- Dose dependent |
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Which hepatotoxin type is unpredictable?
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Idiosyncratic
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Two examples of idiosyncratic toxins
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- Carprofen (dogs)
- Diazepam (cats) |
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Two examples of dose-dependent hepatotoxins
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- Xylitol (dog)
- Acetiminophen (cats) |
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What is dose-dependent hepatotoxin outcome dependent on? (3)
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- Toxin factors
- Time factors - Animal factors |
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3 Toxin factors
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- Dose
- Chemical form - Source |
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2 timing factors
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- Time over which toxin was introduced
- Frequency of toxin introduction |
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7 animal factors
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- Age
- Sex - Species - Physiologic status - Nutritional status - Genetics - Exposure to other chemicals |
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Morphology of acute hepatotoxicity (3)
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- Enlarged liver
- Accentuated lobular pattern - Edema of gallbladder wall |
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Morphology of chronic hepatoxicity
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Small, shrunken, nodular
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Gross appearance of hyperplastic liver nodules
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Spherical, sharply demarcated nodules
- Benign - Affects older dogs |
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Gross appearance of Hepatocellular carcinoma
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Massive enlargement of single lobe or diffuse involving multiple lobes
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Gross appearance of bilary adenomas (cholangiomas)
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White, solid, or cystic masses of well-differentiated bile ductules
- Benign - Affects older cats |
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Gross appearance of Biliary carcinomas (cholangiocarcinomas)
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Multifocal, solid, white/tan, depressed
- Locally invasive - Malignant - Affects older dogs |
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Gross appearance of cystic mucinous hyperplasia of the gall bladder
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Numerous clear to yellow/green nodules
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Clinically significant form of cystic mucinous hyperplasia
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Biliary mucocele
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Pathogenesis of pancreatic acinar atrophy
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Progressive loss of exocrine pancreatic function
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3 clinical signs of pancreatic acinar atrophy
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- Diarrhea
- Weight loss - Polyphagia |
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Gross morphology of acute pancreatitis (4)
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- Swollen
- Edematous - Variable hemorrhage - Fibrinous adhesions |
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Chalky white areas of necrosis in peripancreatic fat
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Saponification
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Pathogenesis of acute pancreatitis
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Premature activation of pancreatic enzymes
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Gross morphology of chronic interstitial pancreatitis of cats
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Smaller, firm, gray, irregular pancreas
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Morphology of chronic interstitial pancreatitis of cats
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- Small, firm, irregular pancreas
- Atrophy of acinar tissue - Fibrosis |
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Morphology of exocrine pancreatic hyperplasia
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Multiple small, firm, white/tan, slightly raised nodules within pancreas
- Should not be confused as a neoplasm |
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Aggressive malignant neoplasms of acinar or ductular origin that implant on peritoneal surface or metastasize to other organs
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Exocrine pancreatic carcinomas
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What should exocrine pancreatic carcinomas be differentiated from?
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Insulin producing islet cell neoplasms (insulinomas)
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Primitive tissue that is the source of pleuripotential tissue
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Mesenchyme
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Which bones develop entirely by intramembranous ossification?
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Flat bones of the head
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What part of a long bone develops by intramembranous ossification?
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Shaft (diaphysis)
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Environmental factor influencing development of bone tissue from mesenchyme in fetuses
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Presence of vascular bed with adequate oxygen
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Which CT tissue cell doesn't exhibit mitotic activity?
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Osteoblast
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Membranes that cover bone
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Periosteum
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Membranes that cover cartilage
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Perichondrium
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Location of bone fluid in bone tissue that participates in Ca++ homeostasis
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Canalicular-lacunar system
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Mechanism responsible for osteocyte nutrition
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Bone fluid of the canalicular-lacunar system
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Barrier that separates bone fluid from ECF adjacent to bone tissue
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Bone lining cells
- Usually bone-lining osteoblasts |
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Name given to the initial bone matrix deposited prior to mineralization
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Osteoid
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Two ways the periosteum located on outer surface of skull plate and perosteum located on inner surface of skull plate differ
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- Inner surface has less osteogenic layer producing bone
- Adhered to dura mater |
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Term given to cancellous bone that connects outer and inner cortices of skull plates
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Diploe
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Two major types of collagen in bone and cartilage
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Bone: Type I
Cartilage: Type II |
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From what stem cell line do osteoclast precursor cells arise?
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mononuclear-MP cell line
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What cell type has a plasmalemma with a 'striated' or 'ruffled' border?
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Osteoclast
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Mediators tha tattract osteoclast precursor cells
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Osteoclast Activating Factor
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Density measurement that differs compact from cancellous bone
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Compact has greater density (>30%) than cancellous
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Differences between woven and lamellar bone tissue (2)
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- Woven bone is rapidly laid down by osteoblasts with uneven distribution
- Lamellar bone is quite orderly |
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Process by which osteoclasts and osteoblasts change the observable shape of a bone
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Bone modeling
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Area of the metaphysis where Osteoclasts progressively reduce diameter of the metaphysis as it blends into the diaphysis
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'Cutback zone'
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What is the biomechanical effect of racing on the shape of Metacarpal III?
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Bone thickens over the dorsomedial cortex to respond to increased weight bearing
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Mechanism used by bone organs to shift trabecular systems of cancellous bone in order to resist mechanical forces?
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Bone micromodeling
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Conversion of primary to secondary trabecular bone is result of which of the bone mechanisms?
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Bone micromodeling
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In which bone mechanism does osteoclastic activity always occur before osteoblastic activity?
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Bone remodeling
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Which type of bone tissue is always deposited by osteoblasts that are part of a bone-remodeling unit?
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Lamellar bone tissue
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No change in shape occurs following bone remodeling
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No change in shape occurs following bone remodeling
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Cutting cone function
Filling cone function |
Removal of focal areas of bone tissue fatigue
Formation and replacement of new packets of bone tissue that participate in calcium homeostasis |
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Name of the bone-remodeling unit of compact bone
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BMU (bone metabolic unit)
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Pattern of orientation of collagen fibers deposited in lamellar bone tissue deposited in a BMU of cancellous bone
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Collagen fibers in adjacent lamellae are oriented and lie in different planes
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What type of bone tissue is deposited by the filling cone?
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Osteonal lamellar bone
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Interstitial lamellae (define)
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Remnant of the old osteon of the cortical compact
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How are interstitial lamellae formed?
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Cutting cones of bone remodeling units as they cut longitudinal canals in cortical bone
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What layer of periosteum is absent in endosteum?
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Fibrous layer
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What does osteogenic mesnechyme form when under tension?
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Fibrous tissue
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What does osteogenic mesnechyme form in a hypoxic environment?
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Cartilage
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Four possible functions of endosteal peritrabecular mesenchymal cellular envelope
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- Produce hematopoietic growth factors
- Progenitor cells of osteoblasts - Stimulate osteoclasts and lining cells to form a crude fibro-osseous matrix - Act as strain gauges to activate bone remodeling |
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Two major categories of muscle disease
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- Neurogenic
- Myopathic |
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Myopathy (define)
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Muscle disease
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Muscular dystrophy is what type of muscle disease?
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Myopathic
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Cause of muscular dystrophy in males
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Defective X-linked gene causing dystrophin to not form or form abnormally
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Five requirements for repair of segmental necrosis in skeletal muscle fiber
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- Source of regenerative myoblasts
- Guidance system - Small gap - Adequate blood supply - Nerve innervation of motor endplate |
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What differentiates steatosis from fatty degeneration?
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Fatty degeneration is potentially serious metabolic disorder, while steatosis is a clinically insignificant deposition of fat
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What is important about steatosis?
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Impacts economic gain from slaughter
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Two common causes of disuse atrophy in muscles
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- Immobilization
- Pain |
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What muscle disease is characterized by Serous atrophy of fat?
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Cachectic atrophy
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What type of muscular atrophy is characterized by angular atrophy?
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Neurogenic
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What type of atrophy produces compensatory hypertrophy?
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Neurogenic
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In what type of atrophy is one likely to encounter an animal exhibiting psuedohypertrophy?
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Chronic neurogenic atrophy
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Muscle is (more or less) resistant to hematagenous spread of bacteria compared to other tissues
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More
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Diffuse spread of infection through CT and along fascial planes of muscle
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Phlegmon
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Pathology of malignant edema
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Clostridial myositis
- Characterized by gas formation, cellulitis, and rapid death |
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Malignant edema is AKA?
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Gas gangrene
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Pathology of Blackleg in cattle
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Cattle disease caused by ingestion of bacterial spores during grazing.
- Awaits activation during hypoxic episode |
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What is a distinctive external ID method of blackleg in cattle?
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Smell of rancid butter on necropsy
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Which disease irreversibly binds presynaptic nerve terminals?
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Botulism
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What domestic mammal is most susceptible to botulism?
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Horses
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What morphologic change does botulism cause in tissue?
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The toxin doesn't cause any
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Pathogenesis of myasthenia gravis
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Attachment of circulating AB to ACH receptors on post-synaptic endplates to prevent nerve transmission
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4 clinical signs of myasthenia gravis
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- Weakness
- Dysphagia - Megaesophagus - Laryngeal paralysis |
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What is the cause of eosinophillic myositis?
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HS to degenerating sarcocysts in skeletal muscle
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Clinical significance of eosinophilic myositis in livestock
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None, but does have economic significance
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Location of lesions of eosinophilic myositis in dogs
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Masticatory muscles
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Histolopathology of eosinophilic myositis in dogs (acute, subacute)
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Acute:
- Edema - Necrosis - Muscle fiber degeneration Subacute: - Moderate loss of fiber tissue embedded into a exudate of lymphocytes and plasma cells |
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Why are only the masticatory muscles affected by Eosinophilic myositis in dogs?
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Unique myosin type in masticatory Type-II muscles that acts as a foreign antigen that antibodies attack
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How to differentiate atrophic myositis from eosinophilic myositis?
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Atrophic myositis is not accompanies by pain like eosinophilic myositis
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Underlying pathologic mechanism for nutritional myopathy of cattle
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Deficiency in:
- Vitamin E - Selenium which causes lipid membranes of striated muscle to be prone to free radicals |
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What is nutritional myopathy of cattle AKA?
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White muscle disease
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Benign muscle tumor that arises in wall of pylorus of stomach and gradually obstructs the passage of ingesta into SI
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Leiomyoma
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Malignant striated muscle tumor that may arise in skeletal, cardiac, and smooth muscle
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Rhabdomyosarcoma
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Which is stronger, lamellar or woven bone?
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Lamellar
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What bone type is formed secondary to irritation, trauma, or infection?
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Woven and lamellar both can be formed dependent on circumstances
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What histologic type of bone tissue is formed by normal bone modeling or remodeling mechanisms of the skeleton?
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Lamellar
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Bone collagen's bending ability
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Poor
- Acts as a homogenous brittle substance |
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Bone's ability to withstand torsion/bending, tension, and compression from greatest to least
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- Compression
- Tension - Torsion/bending |
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Which way does blood flow in long bones?
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Centrifugal
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4 things that epiphyseal blood vessels supply nutrients to in immature animals
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- Subchondral capillary bed
- Epiphyseal cancellous bone - Epiphyseal bone marrow - Metaphyseal physis |
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Which two species have transphyseal blood vessels?
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- Foals
- Calves |
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4 features of direct bone healing
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- Requires complete stability
- Anatomic alignment at fracture ends - Fracture line set under dynamic compression - Primary osteonal remodeling required |
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4 features of indirect bone healing
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- Hematoma formation
- Internal callus - External callus - Good vascular supply and tissue support |
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Description of Blood supply to external callus in primary bone healing
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Vessels emerge from traumatized soft tissues that supply the external callus in a centripetal direction
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Blood flow in a stable, external callus near completion of the secondary healing process
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Centrifugal
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Where do repair cells in an external callus come from in a secondary fracture healing? (2)
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Damaged soft tissue
Periosteum |
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Where do repair cells in the internal callus come from in secondary fracture healing? (2)
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Reticular marrow stroma
Endosteum |
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4 locations where blood supply comes from in a long bone
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- Multiple nutrient arteries
- Reversal of normal blood flow direction in periosteum and cortex - Metaphyseal vessels - Transphyseal vessels if present |
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What differs gap healing from contact healing?
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Gap healing uses woven bone to form small gaps to fill up.
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What's the primary thing that differs primary and secondary osteonal reconstruction of bones?
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Stabilization
- If a 'primary' osteonal reconstruction site has mobility, it's secondary, period. |
