Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;
Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;
H to show hint;
A reads text to speech;
504 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
Statistically, which factor contributes to over 90 percent of most accidents?
|
Human Error
|
|
Which maintenance sections must an unathorized personnel coordinate with to gain access to vehicle maintenace shops?
|
CSC& VM&A
|
|
what process causes the most equipment damage and personnel injury in a vehicle maintenance shop?
|
Moving vehicles
|
|
What is the definition of a confinded space?
|
Enclosed area that may have contained flammable or toxic material
|
|
What is a good rule of thumb concerning wear of jewelry in the shop?
|
Leave your jewelry at home
|
|
which vehicle maintenace shop requires the two person concept?
|
refuiling maintenace
|
|
what is the mazimum ohm rating that a static ground in a refueling shop can have?
|
10000 ohm
|
|
what does an explosimeter detect?
|
excessive fuel vapor to air concentations.
|
|
how long do you maintain an AF Form 55 after an individual has separated or retired
|
12months
|
|
What is considered to be tyhe major cause of back injuries on the job?
|
Improper lifting techniques
|
|
what orgnaization do you contact if you suspect an area might contain a noise hazard?
|
base bioenviromental.
|
|
which vehicle maintenace shop can be the most dangerous to work in?
|
Tire shop
|
|
what is the single most important factor related to shop safety?
|
Common sense
|
|
When on the job, what must be the mechanic's most important consideration?
|
Doing the job safely.
|
|
Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) Standard 48-21, Hazard communication, covers all of the following, except
A) sets minimum requirements for activities that handle or use hazardous material. B)sets minimum requirements for activities that handle or use hazardous waste C)provides guidance for informing employees about hazardous materials D)provides guidance for the AF hazard communication program. |
sets minimum requirements for activities that handle or use hazardous waste.
|
|
what does the af Ovvupational safety and health standard 91-12 machinery, require for the use of abrasive wheel machinery in the shop?
|
the machine must be mounted and the grinding wheels guarded.
|
|
what personal protective equipment is required when personnel are working in the refueling shop?
|
cotton/polyester uniform
|
|
when operating a wire wheel that has an eye shield, AF occupational safety and health standards require personnel wear?
|
safety glasses
|
|
Which AF occupational safety and health standard covers vehilcle maintenace battery shops?
|
91-32 emergency shower and eyewash units
|
|
where can you get a copy of the msds if yours is missing?
|
civil engineering enviromental flight
|
|
keeping a comlete file of msds for each hazardous chemical and mixture used in the workplace
|
can effectively reduce waste
|
|
when detemining what type of fire extinguisher to use on a chemical fire, you should know the chemicals
|
specific gravity
|
|
what basic duty do vehicle maintenance shops have for hazardous waste managemnet?
|
Collect, identify, and document waste produced.
|
|
who must determine whether a solid waste is hazardous, as defined in the regulations?
|
person who generated it.
|
|
which hazardous waste will most likely be generated by vehicle maintenance shops?
|
degreasing solvent
|
|
What is the best definition of a hazardous waste generator?
|
anyone who first produced the waste
|
|
At a minimum, how long must hazardous waste records be maintained after the initial shipmnet is made?
|
3 years
|
|
At or near the point of generation, a generator may be allowed to accumulate
|
55 gallons of hazardous waste or 1 quart of acutely hazardous waste
|
|
which country is the largest user of energy
|
US
|
|
What is the best thing individuals can do to help reduce air pollution?
|
Use public transportation where practical.
|
|
What can individuals do to help reduce water pollution?
|
Turn in used oil to recycling centers
|
|
an effective self inspection program checks performance indicators, monitors the organizations most serious concerns and
|
reminds the people of their priorities
|
|
self inspection responsibilities for squadron commanders are to appoint a squadron monitor and alternate
|
request Si staff assistance visits and approve all squadron OPRs
|
|
the best way to conduct a thorough self-inspection spot check ist to
|
use an SI check list
|
|
if you are required to prepare a written report after a self inspection
|
immediately report all safety items to the VMM or VMS before you start the written report
|
|
After the flight monitor compiles all self inspectin reports the reports are forwarded to the
|
squadron monitor.
|
|
What is especially useful in identifying best practices from other maintenance activities
|
inspection crossfeeds.
|
|
as a supervisor your main purpose and responsivility is to
|
implement approved policy by leading airmen of lower grades
|
|
Some specific responsibilites of a work center supervisor include
|
ensuring proper tools are readily available assigning work, enforcing safety procedures and meeting training needs.
|
|
who is the focal pointy for coordinating and generating all work through your shop?
|
VM&A
|
|
Aside from VM&A and Materiel control what other two shops will mainshop supervisors coordinate with daily
|
Tire and Body
|
|
One of the best ways to interviewindividuals to find out how much they know about their job is to
|
simultaneously conduct informal feedback sessions and review their OJT records
|
|
in general an initial feedback session is held within 30days of
|
a CRO, or the closeout of an EPR that was not due to a CRO
|
|
A ratee may rquest a feedback session from his or her rater at any time
|
provided that 60days have passed since the last feedback
|
|
when would you pull a mechanic off a job and place him or her on another
|
when a higher priority vehicle needs repair and mission requirements are impacted.
|
|
as a supervisor how should you assign a specific repair to individuals
|
by ability and knowledge
|
|
Choose the phrase that best describes personnel
|
the military personnel that fill the positions required to accomplish a particular mission
|
|
What is a vehicle equivalent
|
A numeric value assigned to a vehicle based on its maintenace complexity
|
|
which statement best describes the man hour availability factor
|
the amount of time an individual is normally available to do the task identified in the AFMS
|
|
where can you find information on how manpower variabces affect specific bases
|
AFMS
|
|
What is one of the biggest contributions you can make to supply discipline
|
avoid requesting more than is needed
|
|
how many categories of property are in the supply system
|
2
|
|
What type of equipment item is required by field units to do their jobs
|
Organizational
|
|
what document is used when outfitting a specific shop with equipment
|
ASC 457
|
|
items that are needed to outfit an individual stationed in cold weather area are called
|
Equipment
|
|
what is the code used to idnetify repairable cycle assets that are primarily under depot level control?
|
XD
|
|
for vehicle maintenance shops a repairable item is as important as a servicable item
|
Becaouse it maybe the only source of supply
|
|
Consumables are expendable nonrepairable items that have the idnetifying indicator
|
XB
|
|
which publication is used to idnetify shop specific equipment by type and quantity
|
ASC 457
|
|
what pumvlications are used as source documents for individual toolboxes
|
ASC 403& GSA catalogs
|
|
the main objective of management and equipment evaluation program is to
|
Enhance transportation and civil engineering by idnetifying more effective and economical equipmnet
|
|
under the USAF War mobilization plan, orgnaizations having common distinguishing characteristics are categorized by the
|
UTC
|
|
What role does the LRS play in the war planning process
|
provide necessary forces to accomplish the in theatre mission
|
|
during which war planning phase are forces selected and time phased
|
III, Plan development
|
|
what is the computer supported datavase portion of an operation plan called
|
TPFDD
|
|
who is responisvle for developing the concept of oprerations upon receipt of tasking to support a national security objective and military objectives
|
Supported Commander
|
|
Of the following which is not deployable as an individual unit? a. AEW
b. AEG c. AES d. AEF |
AEF
|
|
to support the USAF's War Mobilization Plan on function of vehicle maintenance is to
|
determine equipment suited for deployment
|
|
during wartime which factor would most likely drive a lower leverl of serviceablilty compared to peacetime operations
|
spare parts availability
|
|
for how many days after arrival to a forward location can a maintenance documentation be limited to AF Forms 1823, 1827, and 1832
|
twenty
|
|
Which data source provides the national command authourities a measure of a unit's existing resources and state of training against its mission requirements
|
SORTS
|
|
How many levels of unit combat readiness are there for status of resources and training systems reporting
|
five
|
|
Which status of resources and training systems unit combat rating equals substantially combat ready
|
C-2
|
|
which areas are measured to determin the objective factors that primarily determine the status of resources and training systems level of readiness
|
equipment condition, equipment on hand, and training
|
|
the overall combat readiness rating in the status of resources and trainging systems is detemined by the
|
unit commander
|
|
the term used for the act of marshalling assembilng or bringing together forces and their equipment to prepare for action is
|
mobility
|
|
who is responsible for ensuring their people are proplerly trained and evaluated and records are maintained
|
UDM
|
|
In which workcenter is the movement of cargo and personnel monitored an coordinated
|
CDF
|
|
the resonsiblity for insuring vehicles to be deployed are ready to load belongs to the
|
UDCC
|
|
on an internal combustion engine as the piston begines the intake stroke
|
the intake valve is open and the exhaust valve is closed
|
|
which of the following statements best describes an ihead engine
|
both the intake and exhaust valeves are in teh cylinder head
|
|
the most vommon way to drive the camshaft on a single overhead camshaft engine is by using
|
a timeing belt
|
|
the two types of cylindersleeves are
|
wet and dry
|
|
the function of a crankshaft's counterweights is to
|
prevent vibrations of the crankshaft
|
|
on engines that use auxilary balance shafts the shafts rotate at
|
twice the speed of the crankshaft
|
|
what types of vearings are nomally used for crankshaft main bearings
|
split sleeve
|
|
what radiator cap pressure valve assembly component holds the valve against the seal?
|
a calibrated spring
|
|
the function of the vacuum valve in the radiator cap is to
|
prevent the radiator for collapsing
|
|
the main components of a typical air operated shutter system are the shutters,
|
shutterstat, air cylinder and air filter
|
|
what component is the power unit for operation of a shutterstat system
|
air cylinder
|
|
Which of the following statements best describes fluid coupling fan operation
a. fan speed increases as underhood temperature increases b. fan speed decreases as under hood temperature increases c. less oil flows into the fluid coupling as its temperature increases d. more oil flows into the fluid coupling as its temperature decreasesss |
fan speed increases as underhood temperature increases
|
|
the two most common types of engine oil pumps are
|
gear and rotor
|
|
the releif valve is usually located in the
|
oil pump
|
|
what does the term full flow design mean
|
all the oil flows through the filter before reaching components
|
|
the primary difference in lubricatin systems among different models of engines is in how the
|
upper part of the engine is oiled
|
|
the purpose of windage trays used on some engines is to
|
prevent oil from sloshing
|
|
what is the angle of most valve seats
|
30 or 45 degrees
|
|
sodium is used in engine valves to
|
help the valve cool faster
|
|
in an overhead camshaft engine the valve tappets are loacated
|
between the camshaft and the valve stem
|
|
what componen restricts air flow through the carburetor throat
|
Venturi
|
|
the main pars of the float circuit ar the float
|
Bowl, float mechanism, needle, and seat
|
|
the passage in the carburetor that intersects the idle passage and provides for better fuel atomization is called
|
an air bleed.
|
|
what carburetor system supplies fuel when the engine runs above low speed?
|
main metering system
|
|
in a mechanical enrichment system, when the throttle is opened wide, the metering rods
|
are raised out of the jets allowing more fuel to flow.
|
|
a check valve is located in the accelerator pump discharge passage to
|
prevent air from entering the system as the pump makes its refill stroke
|
|
what is the most common method used to warm-up the choke spring
|
use electricity to heat the choke
|
|
the basic difference between a conventional carburetor and a computer-controlled carburetor is the
|
way fuel is metered in the main jets
|
|
what controls the flow of air to the engine on a multipoint fuel injection system
|
throttle plate
|
|
which pollutant is a colorless odorless poisonous gas
|
Carbon monoxide (CO)
|
|
Large quantities of oxides of nitrogen are formed at combustion temperatures of
|
2500-3000 degrees F
|
|
what component protects the fuel tank from damage in case the vent line is restricted
|
fuel tank cap
|
|
when the engine is at full throttle and manifold vacuum drops to zero, the positive crankcase ventilating valve (PCV) is
|
closed by spring tension
|
|
what can be put in a catalytic converter to improve effectiveness during certain conditions
|
fresh air
|
|
the air injection systems were developed to help rduce
|
HC and CO emissions
|
|
what catalyst in a catalytic converter converts hydrocarbon and carbon monoxide to carbon dioxide and water
|
Platinum
|
|
what are the two main forms of substrate material used in catalytic converters
|
pellet and monolith types
|
|
_________ is not a stage of computer system operation
|
Memorizing
|
|
An active sensor produces what internally
|
voltage
|
|
which module processes data from sensors and control units
|
vehicle control
|
|
current flow through solenoid windings will produce a
|
magnetic field
|
|
Two stoke cycle engines are equipped with
|
exhaust valves only
|
|
what type of oil pumps are exclusively used on dielel engines
|
gear
|
|
a cloudy apperance of diesel fuel may be caused at
|
low temperatures because of the formation of wax crystals
|
|
the result of a diesel fuel system using a too-low viscosity diesel fuel is the fuel
|
will inadequately lubricate the injectors
|
|
on some diesel engines the heater element in the fuel filter first operates at
|
58 degrees F
|
|
what component on some diesel injection pumps controls the amount of fuel that enters the circular charging passage
|
metering valve
|
|
at what injection pressure is the fuel in the direct injection diesel fuel system regulated?
|
40-60psi
|
|
what force causes the intensifier piston in the hydraulic actuated electronically controlled unit injectors to be pushed down
|
high oil pressure
|
|
when the injector solenoid is energized on a direct injection diesel enginge the
|
poppet valve becomes unseated allowing high pressure oil to enter the injector
|
|
what is the function of the turbo charger wastegate valve
|
allows exhaust gases to bypass the turbine wheel
|
|
what is used to protect the main terminal for the glow plug controller
|
fusible link
|
|
which switch is wired between the glow plug relay and the controller to prolong glow plug life an reduce glow plug cycles
|
glow plug temperature inhibit
|
|
what component provides vacuum to operate the exhaust gas recirculation valve
|
belt driven vacuum pump
|
|
the purpose of the exhaust gas recirculation system is to lower the formation of
|
oxides of nitrogen
|
|
what is the normal prssure range of a compressed natural gas cylinder
|
2400-3600 psi
|
|
the timing adaption system on a compressed natural vehicle
|
controls engine timing
|
|
the inverter on an elecric automovile changes
|
direct current to alternating current
|
|
what is used to charge the 12 volt battery on an electric automobile
|
a DC-DC converter
|
|
What theory are fuel cells based on
|
reverse electrolysis
|
|
what is a by product of a fuel cell
|
water
|
|
what does a catalyst do in a fuel cell
|
accelerates the reverse electrolysis reaction
|
|
what is a catalyst used on some types of fuel cells
|
platinum
|
|
Electricity is produced by atom to atom transfer of
|
electrons
|
|
the brushes and slip rings in an alternator
|
provide a means of connecting the field windings to an outside source of current
|
|
Alternator output is controlled by controlling the
|
amount of current flow through the rotor
|
|
what can supplement or replace the conventional voltage regulator on a computer controlled alternator
|
power train control module
|
|
most automotive starters contain
|
four brushes and four field coils
|
|
in a solenoid actuated starter the shift fork is moved to its original position when the solenoid coil is deactivated by a spring in the
|
solenoid housing and spring on the overrunning clutch
|
|
what component actuates the starter drive in a positive engagement starter
|
moveable pole shoe
|
|
what component is responsible for opening the set of grounding contacts in a positive engagement starter
|
an extension of the movable pole shoe
|
|
what is the primary difference between permenent magnet starters and conventional starters?
|
permanent magnent starters have no field coils
|
|
what compoent forces the ignition breaker points to open
|
distrubutor cam lobe
|
|
what factor determines a spark plugs heat range
|
the length of the insulator tip
|
|
what component in an electronic ignition system performs the same function as the points perform in a conventional ignition system
|
control module
|
|
what type of material must a hall effect switch have to function
|
semi conductor
|
|
what type of pickup is used in an optical pick up system
|
photo diode
|
|
a spark plug firing sooner on the engines compression stroke is known as
|
timing advance
|
|
what are the three main types of computer system components
|
input, ouput, and processing and storage
|
|
what component within the engine computer is known as the calculating part of the computer
|
microprocessor
|
|
what type of computer memory is erased automatiaclly when the engine is shut off
|
Random access memory (RAM)
|
|
what type of computer memory stores permanent information
|
Read only memory (ROM)
|
|
liquid crystal displays use what type of panels to illuminate a dash display
|
semi conductor
|
|
what component allows the operator to input data to the instrumentation computer
|
driver informaiton center
|
|
what is used as a quick referance chart for following and understandking a schematic
|
legend
|
|
what type of schematic shows a repersentation of actual component by using symbols
|
diagram
|
|
fluid power refers to the
|
engergy transmitted via a fluid under pressure
|
|
what is meant by a tandem hydraulic pump
|
two pumps connected together operating seperate systems (one input shaft)
|
|
a hydraulic actuator converts pressure energy to
|
mechanical energy
|
|
what component converts fluid power to linear mechanical power
|
cylinder
|
|
what is the purpose of an accumulator
|
store energy and keep system pressure relatively constant
|
|
a small amount of metal debris on the magnet of a manual transmission case indicates
|
normal engine wear
|
|
what componet is not a major shaft found in a manual transmission
|
reverse
|
|
on a typical manual transmission, the filrst, second, third, fifth, and reverse gears will ride on the machined journals of the
|
main shaft
|
|
why are helical cut gears rather than straight cut gears used in todays manual transmission
|
less noise is produced
|
|
which gear ratio gives you the best overdrive gear range
|
0.79:1
|
|
how is the clutch pressure plate mounted
|
bolted to the engine flywheel
|
|
the clutch release bearing fits on the
|
release fork
|
|
what is meant by the axis on a gear
|
the centerline around which a gear, wheel, or shaft rotates
|
|
in a gear set the drive member is known as the
|
input member
|
|
what component drives the input shaft which in turn drives the forward clutch cylinder in neutral operation of a typical automatic transmission
|
torque converter turbine
|
|
what is the typical gear ratio for an automatic transmission in third gear
|
1:1
|
|
during fluid coupling the driving member of a torque converter is the
|
impeller
|
|
the inner race of the torque converter stator's one-way clutch is mounted on
|
a splined support on the transmission pump housing
|
|
whatin a torque converter, the multiplication phase occurs when
|
fluid leaving the turbine vanes strikes the front fo the stator vanes
|
|
which pump is not a typical automatic transmission pump type
|
lobe
|
|
what type of valve will increase hydraulic pressure during certain operating conditions like acceleration in an automatic transmission
|
boost
|
|
what valve type controls the direction and distribution of fluid flow in an hydraulic system
|
flow directing
|
|
what automatic transmission valve circuit transforms engine load into a pressure signal used to control the shift valves
|
throttle
|
|
what type if linkage configureation is not typical hydraulic actuator configuration used in an automatic transmission
|
cam and lever
|
|
in an automatic transmission, the check ball in the multiple-disc clutch housing is used to
|
allow oil to exit the cylinder bore during certain conditions
|
|
a torque converter clutch will now apply when
|
the throttle is closed
|
|
what must be accomplished before you can shift in or out of 4 low (4L) and neutral in a typical transfer case?
|
stop the vehicle
|
|
what component is not controlled by an electronic control module in and electronic shift transfer case
|
mode selection switch
|
|
the speed sensor, mounted on the rear of an electronically controlled transfer case provides information to the electronic control module that is used to
|
determine the range shifts
|
|
what manual-locking front axle hub component forces the inner clutch ring over the axle shaft sleeve when the hub control is turned to the lock position
|
pressure spring
|
|
one common way to unlock automatic locking hubs is to slow down, move the shifter from four-wheel drive to two and the hubs will disengage while continuing to drive forward. another method is to change transfer case range and unlock the hubs is to
|
move the shifter from 4wd to 2wd, stop and then move the vehicle in the opposite direction
|
|
what is the term that generally refers to the parts that transfer power from a vehicle's transmission to its drive wheels
|
driveline
|
|
what type of bearings are used in cross and roller universal joints (u-joints)
|
needle
|
|
a removable carrier-type differential is arranged so the entire assembly can be removed from the
|
axle housing
|
|
with what type of axle assembly can you remove the axle shaft without removing the wheels
|
full floating
|
|
transaxle refers to
|
a transmission and a differential combined in a single assembly
|
|
what should you do if you find a constant celocity joint (CV-joint) boot with a small tear but no grease leaking out from it
|
replace the boot
|
|
what is the most common type of front driveaxle malfunction
|
a worn constant velocity joint (CV-joint)
|
|
in an effort to prevent mismatched rim components, what does federal law require?
|
the rim size and type must be stamped on the wheel and rim components
|
|
which type of small wheel and tire assembly is usually found on the steering axle of special purpose industrial vehicles
|
split rim
|
|
what component is not part of a three piece wheel assembly
|
split side ring
|
|
what piece of equipment can be utilized to prevent back injuries when removing a heavy and awkward wheel and tire assembly
|
wheel dolly
|
|
when initially inflating a tire that has been rebuilt you only want to inflate the tire to approximately 15psi because this
|
ensures that all the components have seated properly
|
|
what does a static imbalance cause on a wheel and tire assembly
|
vibration up and down
|
|
the track rod is used in the rear suspension of some vehicles to prevent
|
side to side movement of the axle
|
|
ball joints are connected to the control arm by all of the following methods except
|
welding
|
|
what prevents the vehicle from bouncing too much when going over a bump
|
shock absorbers
|
|
in the vehicle suspension system how are the ends of the stabilizer bar connected
|
each end is linked to each side of the suspension
|
|
what type of suspension leveling system incorporates air shocks a height sensor and a compressor
|
automatic
|
|
in a parallelogram steering system the steering gear is connected to the rest of the steering linkage by a
|
pitman arm
|
|
in a parallelogram steering system the movement of the pitman arm is transmitted to the tie rods by
|
a center link
|
|
in a parallelogram steering system the outer tie rod is connected to
|
a steering arm
|
|
the two most common types of power steering pumps are
|
vane and slipper
|
|
in the vane type power steering pump what causes the vanes to move out against the inner surface of the cam ring as the rotor begins to turn
|
centrifugal force
|
|
what power steering pump component uses pressure differential to regulate the volume of fluid leaving the pump
|
flow control valve
|
|
in an external power steering system what is connected directly to the steering center link and pitman arm on the steering gear
|
a control valve
|
|
in a power rack and pinion steering gear the two hydraulic chambers in the housing are divided or separated by the
|
rack piston
|
|
when the rear of the tires is closer together than the front of the tires describes what alignment angle
|
toe out
|
|
the usual cause of an out of specification steering axis inclination is a
|
bent steering knuckle
|
|
the most common cause of premature tire wear is
|
improper tire pressure
|
|
a thrust angle is when the
|
front wheels are aligned in relation to the rear wheels
|
|
what is the purpose of a brake booster
|
assist brake pedal application
|
|
brake fluid that should be free flowing at all temperatures refers to
|
viscosity
|
|
which types of brake fluid can be mixed together
|
DOT3 & DOT4
|
|
brake fluid contaminated with a petroleum based substance is indicated by
|
swollen rubber parts
|
|
which vehicle is most likely to be equipped with a single master cylinder
|
tug
|
|
what master cylinder component allows fluid to enter the rear of the cylinder as the piston is pushed forward during brake application
|
intake port
|
|
why are the master cylinders piston cups designed to deflect during brake release
|
to prevent a vacuum from developing in front of the piston
|
|
what light duty hydro-booster system component makes some power assisted brake applications possible if steering pump pressure fails
|
accumulator
|
|
what hydro-max booster system component provides hydraulic power for reserve stops if the hydraulic pump fails
|
electric motor pump
|
|
in a non-servo brake the brake shoes are held against the backing plate by
|
hold down springs
|
|
on a system with basic cable automatic adjustment mechanism the cables eye is attached to the
|
anchor pin
|
|
what component of the one shot automatic adjustment mechanism meshes with the teeth of the adjuster strut
|
adjuster quadrant
|
|
in a disc brake system what caliper component forces the piston back into the bore after the brakes are released
|
seal
|
|
what caliper type is not rigidly mounted to the steering knuckle
|
floating/sliding
|
|
in a disc brake system a fixed caliper is attached to the steering knuckle with
|
bolts
|
|
when does maximum braking action occur
|
just before wheel lockup
|
|
what anti-lock brake system type has a standard master cylinder which is separate from the hydraulic actuator
|
non-integral
|
|
how many wheel speed sensors are generally found on a three channel anti-lock brake system
|
4
|
|
the rear wheel speed sensor for generic rear anti-lock brake systems is located on the
|
differential
|
|
what is the purpose of an exciter ring in the rear wheel anti-lock brake system on a vehicle with a differential mounted speed sensor
|
produces a pulsing voltage signal as the exciter ring teeth pass the rear wheel speed sensor, which is the interpreted by the electronic control unit
|
|
to send a signal to the electronic brake control module the vehicle speed sensor calibrator changes the
|
analog signals to digital signals
|
|
the major components of a hydraulic control valve include all of the following except the
a. isolation valve and solenoid b. valve and solenoid c. flow switch d. accumulator |
flow switch
|
|
when anti-lock braking is required what component prevents rear wheel lock up as needed
|
isolation/dump solenoid valves
|
|
on a vehicle equipped with a rear wheel anti-lock system, energizing what hydraulic control valve component prevents master cylinder pressure from reaching the rear brakes
|
isolation valve
|
|
in a four channel anti-lock brake system how many electro-hydraulic valves are found in the system
|
4
|
|
if the amber warning is turned on in a four channel anti-lock brake system what system component is disabled
|
ABS
|
|
how does a wheel speed sensor generate and send a voltage signal to the computer
|
magnetic induction
|
|
what is the purpose of a hydraulic spring accumulator in an anti-lock brake modulator assembly
|
store pressurized brake fluid for use during anti-lock brake operations
|
|
where is the differential pressure switch located on an anti-lock brake system
|
on the junction block
|
|
if a trailer has an electric brake system the emergency brake away regulation requires that the trailer be provided with what
|
battery back up
|
|
what is required as an additional component for a hydraulic drum brake system on a trailer to reduce hydraulic pressure and deactivate the brakes when backing up
|
reverse solenoid
|
|
with electric brakes as power is applied to the electromagnets in the brake cluster, what component applies the brake shoes to the drum
|
magnets pull directly on the brake shoes
|
|
Most air compressors are lubricated by using oil
|
from the engine oil
|
|
which air system reservoir is connected to the output line of the air compressor
|
supply
|
|
which air system reservoir supplies the rear brakes with air pressure
|
primary
|
|
which air system reservoir supplies the front brakes with air pressure
|
secondary
|
|
which air system component protects against excessive air pressure build up in the event of governor failure
|
safety valve in the supply tank
|
|
what air system circuit component closes the primary exhaust valve when the foot valve is applied
|
primary piston
|
|
the main difference between a floor mounted foot valve and a suspended type foot valve is the
|
way they are mounted
|
|
what air brake component is connected to the relay valves supply port by an air line
|
reservoir
|
|
in order to release the parking brakes how is the parking brake control valve actuated
|
pushing the button in
|
|
what valve protects the truck's air system if there is an air loss in the trailer's air system
|
Tractor protection valve
|
|
a simple brake chamber's body and cover are held together by
|
A Clamp
|
|
to service the basic parking brake chamber you must manually cage the power spring by
|
using a special release stud
|
|
on the manual slack adjuster, what component prevents the adjusting screw from inadvertently turning
|
lock-sleve
|
|
what are the main components of the wedge asssembly
|
wedge, roller cage, and return spring
|
|
where is the front tone ring mounted on an anti-lock air brake system
|
spindle
|
|
what shuts down the central tire inflation system if air pressure drops below 80 PSI
|
CTIS low-pressure switch
|
|
the failure of the central tire inflation system to function properly is caused by the flollowing conditions except
a. air system leak b. malfunctioning controller c. faulty vavle or defective solenoid d. terrain switch set for wrong driving conditions |
Terrain switch set for wrong driving conditions
|
|
when checking the central tire inflation system main control valve for propler valve actuation you heard an audible click what does this mean
|
the valves are operating correctly
|
|
what typer of restraint is an air bag.
|
passive
|
|
in an air bag system, how is the inflator assembly electrically connected between the safing sensor and crash sensors
|
in series
|
|
which location is not a common location of the safing sensor
|
inside the trunk
|
|
what component is responsivle for transferring electricity from the steering column to the inflator on an air bag equipped vehicle
|
Clock spring
|
|
how long will the air bag diagnostic monitor store a back up power charge after the battery is disconnected
|
30 Mins
|
|
what is the minimum amount of time you should allow an air bag to cool before handling it after deployment
|
10 mins
|
|
how many resistor coils of the resistor block are in series with the blower motor when the blower switch is in the "HI" position
|
None
|
|
an air conditioning system cools the passenger compartment by
|
absorbing heat with an evaporator
|
|
what chemicla is R-12 composed of that makes it harmfull to the ozone layer
|
chlorofluorocarbon
|
|
what kind of compressor oil is used in refrigeration systems
|
R-12 uses mineral based oil
R-134a uses polyalkylene glycol |
|
what is the function of the fixed orifice tube
|
provides a restriction to refrigerant flow entering the evaporator
|
|
what component of a fixed orifice tube system is designed to prevent liquid refrigerant from entering the compressor
|
reciever dryer
|
|
if not on the receiver/dryer, where is the sight glass normally located on vehicles so equiped
|
in the liquid line between the condensor and evaporator
|
|
what kind of compressor constantly produces the same output volume of refrigerant relative to revolutions per minute
|
Fixed displacement
|
|
How many cylinders are contained in radial compressor and what kind of displacement is produced
|
Four; fixed displacement
|
|
what kind of force locks the compressor's hub and pulley together
|
Magnetic
|
|
the unique feature of the high mobility mutipurpose wheeled vehicle differential is that they are
|
interchangeable
|
|
what is the max speed for hmmwv runflats if the two rear tires are punctured
|
20 mph
|
|
what is the drawbar pull rating of the MS51335 pintle hook assembly
|
18000 lbs
|
|
what gauge wire does most M-series automotive circuits use
|
14 gauge
|
|
what HMMWV starting system component prevents the starter from reengaging while the engine is running
|
protective control box
|
|
what provides a ground for the HMMWV generating system
|
circuit 3
|
|
how many forward and reverse gears are available when using the transmission in conjunction with the transfer case on the 2 1/2-ton M-Series
|
eight forward and two reverse
|
|
what major exterior components of the 5 ton mseries permit towing by another vehicle
|
lifting shackles
|
|
which component on the 5ton mseries front winch engages the winch drum gear to the drive gear of the winch motor
|
clutch lever
|
|
what hydraulic component is primarily used to rescue vehicles that become deeply stuck
|
rear winch
|
|
what major component for raising and lowering the wrecker crane eleminates twisting of the hydraulic lines connecting reservoir to the stationary pump
|
swivel valve
|
|
which component on the 5 ton mseries front whinch engages the winch drum gear to the drive gear of the winch motor
|
clutch lever
|
|
what hydraulic component is primarily used to rescue vehicles that have become deeply stuck
|
rear winch
|
|
what major component for raising and lowering the wrecker crane eliminates twisting of the hydraulic lines connecting reservoir to the stationary pump
|
swivel vavle
|
|
the fuel injectors on the maxxpro cat1 vehicle are actuated by
|
high pressure oil
|
|
the run flat on the maxpro cat1 vehicle allows the vehicle to operate at speeds up to
|
35 miles per hour for 30 miles
|
|
what voltages can the electrical system of the maxpro cat 1 protected vehicle provide
|
12,24, and 110v
|
|
which areas protected by the fire supperssion system on the maxpro cat 1 vehicle operate manually
|
fuel tank and tires
|
|
on the maxpro cat 1 vehicle, which armor component attaches externally to the base armor
|
catcher plates
|
|
on the maxpro cat 1 vehicle, which armor component attaches to brakets and is held several inches from the vehicle body
|
effector assemblies
|
|
on the maxpro cat 1 vehicle what assists the operator in opening and closing the forward doors
|
air
|
|
on the maxpro cat1 vehicle what assists the operator in opening and closing the rear door/ramp
|
hydraulics
|
|
what condition does the nuclear biological chemical system in the couger cat 2 vehicle create in the cab
|
pressurized
|
|
the ballistic glass on the cougar 6x6 cat 2 vehicle is protected by
|
laminates
|
|
what part of the crane includes the engine transmission and drive axles
|
carrier assembly
|
|
what does the crane's digital engine monitor display if a critical fault if found
|
warning, the fault code and its description
|
|
which best describes the arva crane axle locks
|
hydraulic cylinders connected to the transmission
|
|
brake fluid pressure in the arva crane brake system in supplied by the
|
15 gallon per min hydraulic pump
|
|
the hydraulic pump on the arva crane is a
|
tandem gear type pump
|
|
what do the crane's joystick manipulators use to manipulate the main control valve spools
|
pilot pressure
|
|
how many rated capacity indicator system transmitters are on the crane
|
2
|
|
if the crane goes into a two block condition which functions are disabled
|
boom down, winch up, boom extend
|
|
what is used in place of the older, standard control cables to provide more precise operation of the controls on the crawler tractor
|
hydraulics
|
|
oil pressure at the bottom side of the shigt lever spool valve on the crawler tractor is used to
|
lock the shift lever into position
|
|
the parking brake used on the crawler tractor is
|
external contracting
|
|
how many spool valves are in the main control valve on the crawler tractor
|
2
|
|
what type of pilot pump is used for the hydraulic implement system on the crawler tractor
|
gear type
|
|
what crawler tractor component provides the connectin between the final drive and the track
|
drive sprocket
|
|
how many forward and reverse gears are produced by the MB-4's transmission
|
four forward and one reverse
|
|
in the event of a hydraulic pump failure or when the mb4 needs to be towed what can you use to release the parking brake if the engine is inoperable
|
use a hand pump to pressureize the system
|
|
what component stops the air compressor from continually compressing air
|
governor
|
|
the p19 power divider is mounted on the flywheel housing between the
|
engine and transmission
|
|
which p19 component allows the operator to maneuver the vehicle while pumping water or foam
|
modulating clutch
|
|
the p19 water pump clutch is a
|
dry-type, snap over center clutch
|
|
what min air pressure activates the p19 water pump clutch air chamber
|
90psi
|
|
which p19 componet lubricates the moculating clutch center output shaft and all gears within the power divider
|
gear type pump
|
|
which p19 component controls the power divider low oil light that is located on the cab dash
|
flow switch
|
|
the p19 controlled traction clutch pack applies when an operator engages the
|
differential lock switch
|
|
what must you do before filling the p19 water tank from a hydrant
|
open the top hatch
|
|
all piping on the p19 is made of `
|
stainless steel, bronze or brass
|
|
which two p19 components make up the foam proportioning system
|
multimetering manifold and enductor
|
|
the p19 multimetering manifold delivers foam consentrate using three orifice controlled by
|
air valves
|
|
the p19 dispensing system pressure relief vavle is located in the system piping
|
onthe outlet side of the water pump
|
|
which p19 dispensing system valv econtrols the operation of the pressure relief valve
|
piolot relief valve
|
|
the p19 roof turrent is a remote
|
manual type
|
|
the p19 dispensing system hose reel is returned to the stored positino
|
electrically or manually
|
|
where are the p19 winterization system controls located
|
left dash panel
|
|
the p19 winterization system consist of how many systems
|
three
|
|
in order to purge the combustion chamber of unburned fuel and fumes after combustion stops, the p19 winterization system booster heater blower motor relay should remain closed for
|
2 1/2 to 3 mins
|
|
the p19 air system uses a three way control valve commonly called the
|
agent selection valve
|
|
the main purpose of the air double check valve is to
|
direct air pressure to various components
|
|
the p19 air system inversion valve piston is forced back to the normal position by
|
a spring
|
|
the p23 torque converter/power divider is connected to the agent water pump drive by the
|
pto
|
|
during a fire fighting operation the p23 power divider agent pump clutch is engaged from the cab by using the
|
electric swich
|
|
how many nine inch rockford clutch pack assemblies are in the p23 transmission
|
1
|
|
what is the overall lubrication capacity of the p23 transmission
|
120 quarts
|
|
how many on off solenoides does the p23 transmission control module control
|
6
|
|
the electronic pressure regulator in the p23's despensing system is located
|
inside the shift tower console
|
|
what term do we use to describe the foam propotioning system used on the p23's despensing system
|
around the pump
|
|
how many winterization systems are there on the p23
|
2
|
|
under normal conditions how often do you change the coalescent filter in the air dryer of the p23
|
annually
|
|
what color are the axxessory air system lines on the p23
|
yellow
|
|
on the south west mobile 25k the operation of the hydraulic system is accomplished using hydraulic cylinders which are activated by electrically controlled
|
manifold assemblies
|
|
on the south west 25k the emergency power source connector is mounted on the side of the
|
battery box
|
|
on the halverson loader what contains all the switches gauges and indicator lights for starting and shuting down the engine
|
dash panel
|
|
on the halverson loader what provides the base for mounting front drive steer axle rear axle, power unit, electrical, hydraulic and fuel systems
|
the chassis
|
|
how does the rear axle on the halverson loader attach to the chassis
|
pivot pins
|
|
the 60k loader steering system is
|
hydraulic over mechanical
|
|
if a hydraulic pump on the 60k loader fails what enables continued hydraulic operation
|
crossover manifold
|
|
what type of drive pump does the 60k loader hydrostatic drive system use
|
swash plate type
|
|
how many drive hubs on the 60k produce final drive output power from the drive motor to the wheels
|
4
|
|
what allows for connection of external air pressure on the 60k
|
glad hands
|
|
what preheats the 60k loader batteries for cold wather starting
|
pan liner
|
|
what component on the 60k loader is protected from over heating by a circuit breaker in the a16 module
|
emergency power unit
|
|
what drives the fuel system lift pump on the hyster 10k forklift
|
camshaft eccentric
|
|
the main hydraulic control valve of the hyster 10k includes
|
4spool valves, four load check valves, and a two stage relief valve
|
|
what valve on the hyster 10k prevents the carriage from quickly dropping incase of a hydraulic failure
|
fail safe relief valve
|
|
how are the two 12vt batteries on the cat at wired
|
series
|
|
what prevents the cat at forklift from aticulating during maintenance procedures
|
steering frame lock link
|
|
the vehicle frame and body are combined together s a unit in a
|
unitized body
|
|
what type of frame misalignment do you have if the vehicle receives a side impact collision and the vehicle's rear wheels will not track properly
|
sway
|
|
if you do not have specialized measuring equipment determining frame misalignment; what other method are you using if you transfer checkpoints to a level floor
|
plum bob
|
|
what auto body shape has the appearance of a curved surface
|
crown
|
|
what type of auto body curved surface will not spring back once enough force pushes the body surface out of shape
|
high crown
|
|
if you are repairing an auto body surface with concave damage which hammer should you use to repair the surface
|
crowned face bumping hammer
|
|
what auto body repair hammer do you use for finish work
|
dinging
|
|
what auto body repair tool do you hold against the inside of the body panel to back up the blows of a hammer
|
dolly block
|
|
how much heavier should a dolly block be than the hammer you are using for body repair
|
three times the weight of the hammer
|
|
when making auto body repairs with a bumping spoon where do you place the spoon in relationship to the metal surface
|
between the metal surface and the hammer
|
|
what type of hammer do you use to strike a bumping spoon
|
ball-peen
|
|
which spoon would you use as a pry tool on a damaged vehicle panel
|
body
|
|
what do you call the damage to the body panel where there is an increase in surface area
|
stretch
|
|
after you inspect and analyze the body damage your next step in the straightening is to perform
|
bumping
|
|
the auto body repair process where you release a stretched area with a cross -peen hammer and a specialized dolly is called
|
cold shrinking
|
|
in which auto body repair process do you use a torch, a flat faced hammer, dolly block, and a sponge with water
|
hot shrinking
|
|
when is it necessary for you to measure horizontal and vertical diagonals from a like vehicle of the same model and body design
|
when there is damage to the vehicle on both sides
|
|
before you apply any heat to any severe body bends for straightening you should first
|
remove any upholstery from around the damaged area
|
|
what two methods can you use to straighten a deck lid
|
manually and hydraulically
|
|
estimating guides list vehicle parts in what order
|
front to back, outside to inside
|
|
what type of vehicle construction requires inspection of undamaged areas unrelated to the actual point of impact
|
unibody
|
|
before you order any abrasive disc for the circular disc grinder, consult the operators instructions that come with the grinder or
|
mesure across the disc to see what size you have
|
|
name the two parts of plastic filler that require mixing when applying body filler
|
resin base and catalyst
|
|
what type of applicator pressure is used when you apply to a metal surface
|
firm hand
|
|
when you are preparing a fiberglass panel, how much of the total material thickness should you bevel from both accessible sides of the panel
|
1/3
|
|
which type of plastic softens when heated and hardens as it cools and can be heated/cooled repeatedly with the same result
|
thermoplastic
|
|
the best way to match up the proper plastic welding rod material with the material being repaired is to
|
match the iso symbol
|
|
which composite plastic repair uses a backing patch
|
double sided
|
|
what should you consider when storing vehicle paints
|
weather and extreme temp changes
|
|
paint flextive agents
|
are usually used in primers and clear coats
|
|
what is a disadvantage of low VOC paints
|
equipment requirements
|
|
if the pressure switch malfunctions on the electric motor air compressor excessive air pressure is relieved by the
|
safety valve
|
|
if the pressure switch malfunctions on the electric motor air compressor excessive air pressure is relieved by the
|
safety valve
|
|
to control the width of the paint spray pattern on a spray gun adjust the air
|
control screw
|
|
to comply with some air quality rules relating to VOC, paint gun pressures must be below
|
10 psi
|
|
which type of HVLP paint systems generates oil free, dry, air and high temps
|
turbine
|
|
which type of HVLP paint systems uses standard shop compressed air and special orifice to reduce air pressure in the air nozzle
|
step up unit
|
|
you should adjust the spray gun to operate at the max speed consistent with the paint, rate of flow, body surface, and
|
individual skill
|
|
before using a paint stripper to remove paint from a vehicle you should consult with
|
environmental or bioenviromental engineering
|
|
which type of sand paper is good for use on paint finishes
|
silicon carbide
|
|
you are going to mask an area 31 by 27 inches to do this properly you should cut the masking paper to a dimension of
|
31 1/2 by 27 1/2 inches
|
|
the type of paint solvent you use will control paint flow and the
|
drying time
|
|
within what time period should you apply a primer with a spray gun after you clean and prepare the body surface
|
with in 24 hours
|
|
what type of sanding should you perform after the primer thoroughly dries
|
wet
|
|
which are properties of the basecoat in the base coat/clear coat paint system
|
it has no shine and is susceptible to the uv rays of the sun
|
|
at least what grit sandpaper should be used to scuff sand the clearcoat in a base coat/clear coat spot or full panel repair
|
1200
|
|
allowing the solvents to evaporate between applications of coats (a short period of time) is the definition of
|
flash time
|
|
what area of the under body do you pay close attention to as you clean the loose under coating rust deposits mud and other foreign material off the vehicle
|
seams welds and corners
|
|
when cleaning the under body of loose undercoating do not use
|
the steam cleaner
|
|
you should be sure to keep you hands away from the nozzle of the airless spraying apparatus when applying undercoating because the materiel coming out of the nozzle
|
is under high pressure
|
|
what allowances must you provide for automotive glass when temperature is a factor
|
expansion and contraction
|
|
what type of auto glass can be used for replacement of side and rear windows on a vehicle but nota windshield
|
tempered
|
|
what type of glass is used for a windshield on a vehicle
|
laminated
|
|
what is the problem if you notice a rainbow or colored spots on a windshield when sunlight strikes it at different angles
|
decomposition of the plastic layer
|
|
the plastic layer inside the windshield allows for it to bend out of shape after breakage and still provide protection for
|
the vehicle occupants
|
|
what would you use to install the seal around the rear window glass in a bus
|
window seal installation kit
|
|
why should you wash the new glass thoroughly with clean water at low pressure after you finish the edges with an edger
|
to remove the grinding compound or grit
|
|
what device at the bottom of the door window on a vehicle provides support for raising and lowering the window into the door
|
channel
|
|
how should yo install a channel to the window glass
|
force the channel on the glass
|
|
regardless of the type of door hinge, what procedure is common to replacing both bolted and welded door hinges
|
marking cribing the position of the old hinge
|
|
doors are removed from welded on hinges by
|
drilling out the circular welds in the hinge
|
|
before installing a new door with welded hinges, you should corrosion protect the drilled holes in the pillar with
|
a med bodied sealer
|
|
what item can save much of the labor involved in hinge replacement
|
bushings
|
|
if your vehicle has gas filled absorbing bumper unit what actually attaches to the bumper and retracts when the bumper collides with an object
|
piston ram
|
|
you should never weld on or near a gas filled bumper unit because it could
|
explode
|
|
during installation of a seat belt as part of an accident repair what should you do with the damaged retractor mounting area
|
return it to the original shape
|
|
before you do any welding on the frame work of a vehicle seat you must first remove the
|
padding
|
|
what do some manufactures use for extra strength and support in seat covers
|
bolster wire
|
|
on what axis is the sewing hook on the 206RB sewing machine and what part drives the hook
|
horizontal, hook driving shaft
|
|
which component on the sewing machine surrounds the feed dog and keeps the material from slipping
|
needle plate
|
|
from the thread stand of the sewing machine the thread proceeds next to the
|
tension controller
|
|
when setting the needle bar on the sewing machine adjust the stitches per inch (SPI) to the
|
8 SPI setting
|
|
which component do you move to time the sewing hook with the needle
|
hook collar shaft
|
|
when in time the sewing machine hook will be
|
1/16 inch above the needle eye
|
|
after how many hours of use should you lubricate the sewing machine
|
4
|
|
what cooling system component keeps the coolant in the engine until it reaches a certain temp
|
the thermostat
|
|
as manufacturers lowered hood design on vehicles it became necessary to lower the height of the radiator this brought the creation of the
|
cross flow radiator
|
|
name the radiator core components that radiate heat away from the coolant flowing through the core
|
fins
|
|
what device on the combination test bench allows you to submerge the radiator in the test tank
|
elevator work platform
|
|
before you conduct an oil cooler pressure test you must firs
|
make sure the inlet and outlet openings to the radiator are open
|
|
what collects and sticks to the interior walls of the entire cooling system and interferes with heat transfer by slowing the circulation of coolant
|
rust and scale
|
|
forcing water through the radiator in the reverse direction of normal flow is known as
|
back flushing
|
|
what does the second digit of the SAE metal id number indicate
|
percentage of predominate alloying agent
|
|
as a safety factor acetylene cylinder valve fittings have
|
left handed threads
|
|
the oxygen cylinders valve fittings have
|
right handed threads
|
|
when using acetylene from a cylinder and pressure reducing regulator what is the max useable psi
|
15psi
|
|
what should you do prior to opening acetylene or oxygen valves with the regulators already installed
|
back off the adjusting screw all the way
|
|
what should you do prior to installing the regulator on a full unused cylinder
|
open and close the cylinder valve quickly to blow away any debris in the opening of the valve
|
|
what type of threads do the acetylene hose fittings have
|
left handed
|
|
which cutting torch conditions will cause small pieces of carbon to float in the surrounding air
|
lighting the torch with only the acetylene valve open
|
|
when you change an oxyacetylene welding tip to a higher number you increase the
|
volume of the flame
|
|
how large of a diameter should you maintain the molten metal pool in oxyacetylene welding
|
3/16 to 3/8 inch
|
|
what technique of oxyacetylene welding would you use for welding heavy metals that require deep penetration
|
weave
|
|
before you start your oxyacetylene cutting operation why should you pay attention to you surrounding area
|
to prevent sparks from traveling into other work areas
|
|
what would happen if you were to lay a piece of metal directly on the cement floor and started cutting it with a torch
|
the concrete would explode into little pieces
|
|
spreading out a thin layer of molten fluxed metal weld ahead of the main deposit is known as
|
tinning
|
|
what kind of flame is used during silver brazing
|
neutral
|
|
which part of the flame should be applied to the work in the silver brazing process
|
the outer envelope
|
|
what is plasma
|
ionized gas
|
|
which variable determines a plasma cutter's ability to cut thicker metal
|
amperage
|
|
which component of the plasma torch channels secondary gas or water
|
shield cup
|
|
what are two consumables in plasma cutter torch
|
electrode and cutting nozzle
|
|
how long do you purge the plasma gas from the lines after a part change
|
2 to 3 mins
|
|
what pushes electricity through an electrical circuit as you weld
|
voltage
|
|
to alter the current setting on an AC arc welder containing a variable resister use the
|
hand wheel
|
|
the slag covering over the solidified molten metal during SMAW operations
|
keeps impurities away from the extremely hot metal
|
|
what are the two most important SMAW factors you can control for effective welding
|
penetration and electrode selection
|
|
if you have to arc weld where moisture is present what should you do before inserting a new electrode
|
turn off the welder
|
|
what type of technique are you using to start the arc when you move the tip of the electrode across the metal surface like a match
|
scratching
|
|
what max metal thickness can you successfully arc weld with out preparing the edges
|
1/8 inch
|
|
what characteristic is most noticeable when GMAW steel parts using 100 percent argon shielding gas
|
insufficient penetration
|
|
what will be the result if you set the shielding gas flow rate too low for gas shield welding
|
contamination
|
|
the AWS classifies steel GMAW electrodes by their
|
tensile strength and chemical composition
|
|
which GMAW transfer method will not occur if carbon dioxide is used as the only shielding gas
|
spray arc
|
|
excessive stick-out can result in the GMAW discontinuity called
|
porosity
|
|
when GMAW excessive penetration can result in
|
cracking
|
|
when cutting HSLA components from a damaged vehicle which process is not recommended for use unless it becomes absolutely necessary
|
oxyacetylene torch
|
|
when cutting HSLA steel with an oxyacetylene torch you should try to limit the torch time to
|
3 mins
|
|
what type of current is generally used for GTAW
|
AC
|
|
which direction does current flow during GTAW when the polarity of the arc is negative
|
electrode to the work surface
|
|
the oxides that form on aluminum have melting points nearly
|
3 times that of aluminum
|
|
why is it important to clean the oxide from aluminum before welding it
|
oxides can contaminate the weld
|
|
what quality of the gas tungsten arc welding process cleans off the oxides that form on aluminum
|
reverse polarity of the AC arc
|