2T271 4Th Ed. Volume 2

Front 1

When processing Air Mobility Command (AMC) mission capability (MICAP)/very, very
important parts (VVIP)/forward supply system (FSS) shipments, how must the cargo be stored to
allow for ready identification and expeditious movement of the material?
a. The cargo moves too quickly to be stored.
b. Segregated from other cargo in the terminal.
c. In the supervisor’s office or in the truck, ready for loading.
d. Separated from hazardous materials by at least 88 inches in all directions.

Back 1

b. Segregated from other cargo in the terminal.

Front 2

Air Mobility Command (AMC) mission capability (MICAP)/very, very important parts
(VVIP)/forward supply system (FSS) shipments are transferred on a hand-receipt basis using
a. Global Air Transportation Execution System (GATES) or manually produced cargo manifests.
b. a Department of Defense (DD) Form 1387-2, Special Handling Data/Certification.
c. an AMC Form 36, Originating AMC MICAP/VVIP Control Log.
d. an AMC Form 35, Terminating AMC MICAP/VVIP Control Log.

Back 2

a. Global Air Transportation Execution System (GATES) or manually produced cargo manifests.

Front 3

When using category B passenger missions to move Air Mobility Command (AMC) mission
capability (MICAP)/very, very important parts (VVIP)/forward supply system (FSS) shipments, the
shipment must fit into the baggage compartment and not exceed
a. 50 pounds.
b. 100 pounds.
c. 150 pounds.
d. 200 pounds.

Back 3

b. 100 pounds.

Front 4

When processing an originating Air Mobility Command (AMC) Mission Capability
(MICAP)/very, very important parts (VVIP)/Forward Supply System (FSS) shipment, which form do
you use to control and monitor each shipment?
a. Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 36, Originating AMC MICAP/VVIP Control Log.
b. AMC Form 35, Terminating AMC MICAP/VVIP Control Log.
c. Air Force (AF) Form 36, Originating Control Log.
d. AF Form 35 Terminating Control Log.

Back 4

a. Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 36, Originating AMC MICAP/VVIP Control Log.

Front 5

Who does the Air Clearance Authority (ACA) at Ramstein AB, Germany, notify after a
green sheet request is submitted?
a. Air Terminal Operations Center (ATOC).
b. Customer Service Branch (CSB).
c. Special handling.
d. Load planning.

Back 5

d. Load planning.

Front 6

Who does the Air Clearance Authority (ACA) at Travis AFB, California, notify after a green sheet request is submitted?
a. Air Terminal Operations Center (ATOC).
b. Customer Service Branch (CSB).
c. Special handling.
d. Load planning.

Back 6

b. Customer Service Branch (CSB).

Front 7

You have received and signed an Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 101, Green Sheet
Request. What is entered into the Global Air Transportation Execution System (GATES) in the prime
Transportation Control Movement Document (TCMD) record and trailer data to show the shipment as
green sheet?
a. “T_I” in the miscellaneous information block and “GS” in the special priority field only.
b. “GS” in the miscellaneous information block and “G” in the special priority field only.
c. “T_I” in the special priority field and the phrase “Green sheet as of [the Greenwich Meantime hour and date the request was received] only.
d. a “G” in the special priority field and the phrase “Green sheet as of [the Greenwich Meantime hour and date the request was received] only.

Back 7

d. a “G” in the special priority field and the phrase “Green sheet as of [the Greenwich Meantime hour and date the request was received] only.

Front 8

When processing palletized green sheet cargo using manual procedures, what two documents
must you annotate to ensure that the shipment is properly identified?
a. Department of Defense (DD) Form 1384, Transportation Control and Movement Document, and
the DD Form 2775, Pallet Identifier.
b. Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 101, Green Sheet Request, and the DD Form 1015,
Certification Request.
c. DD Form 1387-2, Special Handling Data/Certification, and the DD Form 1907, Signature and
Tally Record.
d. the pallet contents listing and the manifest.

Back 8

a. Department of Defense (DD) Form 1384, Transportation Control and Movement Document, and the DD Form 2775, Pallet Identifier.

Front 9

If you do not have enough airlift to move all green sheet cargo on hand for a particular
destination, how do you move the remaining cargo and who must you notify?
a. In the sequence in which it was green sheeted by each specific service; notify the air terminal
operations officer.
b. By destination, priority, and system entry time; notify the Tanker Airlift Control Center (TACC).
c. In the sequence in which it was green sheeted by each specific service; notify the TACC.
d. By destination, priority, and system entry time; notify the air terminal operations officer.

Back 9

c. In the sequence in which it was green sheeted by each specific service; notify the TACC.

Front 10

When processing purple sheet cargo, if the shipment is not transportation priority one with
an expedited handling indicator of “999,” what do you enter into the appropriate fields in the Global
Air Transportation Execution System (GATES)?
a. TP9; “PS.”
b. TP1; “999.”
c. PS9; “TP1.”
d. PS1; “999.”

Back 10

b. TP1; “999.”

Front 11

While you are processing and inspecting the DD Form 1387-2, Special Handling
Data/Certification, for a classified shipment, if none of the information entered in the blocks of the
form is classified, the shipper completes how many total copies of the form?
a. Two.
b. Three.
c. One.
d. Four.

Back 11

d. Four.

Front 12

When a classified shipment arrives damaged or improperly documented, packaged, marked,
or labeled at an originating station, you refuse the shipment unless
a. it arrives by commercial conveyance.
b. the duty officer authorizes acceptance.
c. you can correct the discrepancy yourself.
d. the Customer Service Branch (CSB) can correct the discrepancy the same day.

Back 12

a. it arrives by commercial conveyance.

Front 13

Security and classified shipments must be inventoried and accountability transferred using
an Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 214, Security Cage Log, or equivalent. This action is
required
a. each time a shipment is placed in or removed from the storage facility.
b. at the closest shift change to 0001 hours local time each day.
c. once daily at any point throughout the day, mission permitting.
d. as close to 0001 hours local time each Sunday.

Back 13

b. at the closest shift change to 0001 hours local time each day.

Front 14

When processing Defense Courier Service (DCS) material, the DCS representative’s first
choice to escort the material in the absence of a dedicated courier is
a. a space-required passenger selected from a printed copy of the list of eligible passengers.
b. an eligible space available passenger who consents to the designation.
c. a commercial carrier representative with proper identification d. a military aircrew personnel, E-5 and above.

Back 14

a. a space-required passenger selected from a printed copy of the list of eligible passengers.

Front 15

What must you place inside the container for use at the destination station before sealing a
container of registered mail?
a. Boxcar seal.
b. Content listing.
c. Copy of the registered mail manifest.
d. Department of Defense (DD) Form 1907, Signature and Tally Record.

Back 15

b. Content listing.

Front 16

After you have containerized registered mail shipments into one box, what is the first step in
sealing the container?
a. Place a boxcar seal at the band crimp where it cannot be removed if the bands were cut.
b. Band the containers with four metal or plastic bands, two along the width and two along the length.
c. Assign pallet identifiers to the container and cap the pallet as a skid using 0.5 in the equivalent
positions column.
d. Tape the container shut and prominently annotate the boxcar seal number, as well as both
individuals’ signatures, across the tape.

Back 16

d. Tape the container shut and prominently annotate the boxcar seal number, as well as both
individuals’ signatures, across the tape.

Front 17

What must you do before aircraft departure if an aircrew member notices a discrepancy
with a registration number on a registered mail shipment?
a. Correct it and generate a new manifest.
b. Correct it by making pen-and-ink changes to the manifest.
c. Write a statement on the manifest with the discrepancy and notify the downline station to correct it.
d. Annotate the incorrect mail shipment as a short shipment and hand scribe the correct information at
the bottom of the manifest.

Back 17

a. Correct it and generate a new manifest.

Front 18

Before transferring custody of registered mail on a terminating mission, you and the aircrew
member will
a. inspect the container to verify the contents.
b. reseal the container to ensure safe off-load operations.
c. sign across the tape of the container to signify joint custody.
d. download the container and generate a new manifest to ensure expedited handling and accuracy.

Back 18

a. inspect the container to verify the contents.

Front 19

You are receipting for a terminating registered mail shipment and the manifested
transportation control number (TCN) does not match the TCN on the shipment. What is your next
step after annotating the manifested TCN as a short shipment and listing the correct TCN at the
bottom of the manifest as an over shipment?
a. Bump the shipment and generate a new manifest only.
b. Both you and the crew member sign the manifest to confirm the discrepancy only.
c. Annotate all copies of the manifest with a statement describing the discrepancy; then you and the crew member both sign the statement to confirm the discrepancy.
d. Annotate the original copy of the manifest with a statement describing the discrepancy; then you and the crew member both sign the statement to confirm the discrepancy.

Back 19

c. Annotate all copies of the manifest with a statement describing the discrepancy; then you and the crew member both sign the statement to confirm the discrepancy.

Front 20

What should you do if human remains are not embalmed and refrigeration is not available?
a. Notify the escort.
b. Refuse the shipment.
c. Frustrate the shipment.
d. Contact Mortuary Affairs

Back 20

d. Contact Mortuary Affairs.

Front 21

Where are human remains loaded when considering the possibility that cargo jettisoning
may occur?
a. In the rear-most available level cargo position.
b. In the forward-most available level cargo position.
c. On the ramp; they can be moved to the side, if necessary.
d. In the forward-most available cargo position; remains cannot be jettisoned.

Back 21

b. In the forward-most available level cargo position.

Front 22

When must you review the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 106,
Biologicals/Reicing/Refrigeration Log, to ensure that perishable shipment reicing is accomplished as
necessary?
a. Once a day.
b. Once a week.
c. Once a month.
d. At the beginning of each shift.

Back 22

d. At the beginning of each shift.

Front 23

When can you open a diagnostic specimen shipment to reice it?
a. Never.
b. Anytime.
c. When closing instructions are provided with the shipment.
d. When the specimen is contained in double bags and each bag is individually sealed.

Back 23

c. When closing instructions are provided with the shipment.

Front 24

As a member of the special handling section, you’re handed a piece of unclassified cargo
identified as nuclear weapons related material (NWRM). This cargo is treated as
a. unclassified material.
b. Nuclear Surety Materials.
c. classified, protected cargo.
d. classified or unclassified assemblies.

Back 24

c. classified, protected cargo.

Front 25

“Assemblies and subassemblies identified by the military departments that comprise or
could comprise a standardized war reserve nuclear weapon as it would exist once separated/removed
from its intended delivery vehicle” is the Office of Secretary of Defense definition of what type of
material?
a. Nuclear Material.
b. Nuclear Surety Material.
c. Special Nuclear Materials.
d. Nuclear Weapons-Related Material.

Back 25

d. Nuclear Weapons-Related Material.

Front 26

In addition to individuals who are required by function to handle Nuclear Weapons-Related
Material (NWRM), what percentage of authorized aerial port personnel must be appointed in writing
and must complete the NWRM fundamentals course annually?
a. 5%.
b. 10%.
c. 20%.
d. 25%

Back 26

a. 5%.

Front 27

During engine running on/off-load (ERO) operations, the aircraft engines must be in what
mode before load team members approach the aircraft?
a. Low speed ground idle only.
b. Reverse thrust or shut down only.
c. Low speed ground idle or reverse thrust only.
d. Forward thrust or low speed ground idle only.

Back 27

c. Low speed ground idle or reverse thrust only

Front 28

During engine running on/off-load (ERO) operations, after being signaled by an aircrew
member, load team members use a route that takes them
a. perpendicular to the aircraft fuselage until they reach the aircraft centerline.
b. directly centerline to the aircraft ramp to help the loadmaster lower it.
c. parallel to the aircraft fuselage until they reach the aircraft centerline.
d. most directly to the aircraft and is the shortest route possible.

Back 28

a. perpendicular to the aircraft fuselage until they reach the aircraft centerline.

Front 29

During engine running on/off-load (ERO) operations, who must you coordinate with before
off-loading passengers through the crew entrance door?
a. Airfield manager, command post, and ERO functional areas only.
b. Aircraft commander, command post, and ERO functional areas only.
c. Aircraft commander, the Tanker Airlift Control Center (TACC), and ERO functional areas only.
d. Airfield manager, the Maintenance Operations Control Center (MOCC) and ERO functional areas
only.

Back 29

b. Aircraft commander, command post, and ERO functional areas only.

Front 30

Before entering an area where concurrent servicing operations are already in progress, you
must report to the
a. Air Terminal Operations Center (ATOC).
b. concurrent servicing supervisor (CSS).
c. loadmaster/boom operator.
d. fuels operator.

Back 30

b. concurrent servicing supervisor (CSS).

Front 31

During concurrent servicing operations, what action must you take if a spark occurs when
you first ground yourself?
a. Reground yourself periodically during operations.
b. Exit the flight-line area until your electrostatic discharge dissipates.
c. Change the battery on your radio before conducting any loading operations.
d. Remove all laptop computers, cell phones, and radio equipment from your vicinity.

Back 31

a. Reground yourself periodically during operations.

Front 32

During concurrent servicing operations, passengers can enter or exit the aircraft only if
a. a jet way or stairs are used and refueling operations are on the other side of the aircraft.
b. a jet way or stairs are used and the load team is conducting winching operations.
c. refueling operations are on the other side of the aircraft.
d. the load team is conducting winching operations

Back 32

a. a jet way or stairs are used and refueling operations are on the other side of the aircraft.

Front 33

A passenger is considered a deportee when she or he
a. is an unauthorized person aboard an aircraft is not listed on the flight manifest.
b. fails to meet border clearance requirements and is refused entry into the country.
c. is performing duties directly associated with a particular mission, aircrew, or aircraft.
d. is traveling in conjunction with the death of a family member when returning to the CONUS.

Back 33

b. fails to meet border clearance requirements and is refused entry into the country.

Front 34

If a distinguished visitor (DV) requests honors while traveling, which DV honors code do
you use?
a. H.
b. M.
c. O.
d. T.

Back 34

a. H.

Front 35

If a distinguished visitor (DV) requests no honors while traveling, but requests
transportation, which DV honors code do you use?
a. H.
b. M.
c. O.
d. T.

Back 35

d. T.

Front 36

If a distinguished visitor (DV) requests no honors while traveling, but requests quarters
only, which DV honors code do you use?
a. H.
b. M.
c. Q.
d. T.

Back 36

c. Q.

Front 37

Which feature on some organic aircraft allows a large-bodied passenger to use standard seat
belts?
a. Side-wall seats designed to carry fully-equipped paratroopers.
b. Side-wall seats with optional seat-belt extensions.
c. Aft-facing seats with reclining capabilities.
d. Aft-facing seats with removable arm rests.

Back 37

a. Side-wall seats designed to carry fully-equipped paratroopers.

Front 38

What must a female passenger who is less than 6 weeks postpartum present to passenger
agents in order to travel?
a. A waiver from HQ Air Mobility Command (AMC).
b. Females less than 6 weeks postpartum are never authorized to travel.
c. A medical officer or civilian equivalent’s certification that she is medically sound.
d. The infant’s birth certificate with a legible date of birth and signature of the medical doctor

Back 38

c. A medical officer or civilian equivalent’s certification that she is medically sound.

Front 39

Which unique passenger would cause transportation working capital fund (TWCF) cargo to
be downloaded up to two hours prior to aircraft block time?
a. Phoenix Raven (PR).
b. Mission route support (MRS).
c. Defense Courier Service (DCS).
d. Air Mobility Command (AMC) mobility mission observers (MMO).

Back 39

b. Mission route support (MRS).

Front 40

If a mission essential ground personnel (MEGP) passenger notifies the Air Terminal
Operations Center (ATOC) within three hours of aircraft departure, then he/she
a. can proceed directly to the aircraft at any time within the three-hour time frame.
b. will be added to the mission if there are space-available passengers onboard that can be bumped.
c. can request cargo be downloaded to accommodate the number of personnel traveling in his/her
group.
d. is normally not added to the mission if it will adversely impact already-manifested passengers.

Back 40

d. is normally not added to the mission if it will adversely impact already-manifested passengers.

Front 41

If a customer has a problem, what is the most important thing you can do to provide great
customer service?
a. Smile.
b. Listen.
c. Speak clearly.
d. Ensure you are in compliance with AFI 36–2903, Discrepancy Report

Back 41

b. Listen.

Front 42

In which two ways can you build rapport with your customers?
a. Listening and asking good questions.
b. Enunciating your words and speaking slowly.
c. Being prepared for what you’re going to say next.
d. Speaking clearly and quickly enough so you’re not wasting their time

Back 42

a. Listening and asking good questions.

Front 43

Once you receive the mission load report (MLR) from the previous station, your next step is
to
a. file it in the station copy file.
b. give it to the ramp controller for reference and coordination.
c. determine how much traffic requires download and how much is continuing on the aircraft.
d. notify the Tanker Airlift Control Center (TACC) of any special handling cargo or passengers.

Back 43

c. determine how much traffic requires download and how much is continuing on the aircraft.

Front 44

When accomplishing a departure mission load report (MLR), you forward the report to the
downline stations after the
a. senior controller approves it, but no later than 20 minutes after mission departure.
b. senior controller approves it, but no later than 30 minutes after mission departure.
c. port operations officer approves it, but no later than 20 minutes after mission departure.
d. port operations officer approves it, but no later than 30 minutes after mission departure.

Back 44

b. senior controller approves it, but no later than 30 minutes after mission departure.

Front 45

You are accomplishing a departure mission load report (MLR) without the Global Air
Transportation Execution System (GATES). What document does the load information come from?
a. DD Form 1384, Transportation Control and Movement Document (TCMD).
b. DD Form 463, Automated Air Load Planning System Worksheet.
c. AF Form 4080, Load Plan Sequence/Breakdown Worksheet.
d. DD Form 1015, Computer Aided Load Manifest.

Back 45

c. AF Form 4080, Load Plan Sequence/Breakdown Worksheet.

Front 46

When accomplishing a departure mission load report (MLR), when the cargo breakdown
section includes rolling stock and multipallet trains, what other information about those items is
included?
a. If security guards are required for any of the items.
b. If any of the items are inoperative on board the aircraft.
c. The fuselage station on the aircraft where the item starts and stops.
d. The equipment that will be needed to off-load the items and other helpful remarks

Back 46

c. The fuselage station on the aircraft where the item starts and stops.

Front 47

When accomplishing a departure mission load report (MLR) with human remains cargo on
board, which of the following answers best represents the information that must be included in the
report and in which section the information is placed.
a. SSgt Jim Jones/USAF/Dover AFB Mortuary Affairs; special interest cargo section.
b. SSgt Jim Jones/USAF/Dover AFB Mortuary Affairs; hazardous cargo section.
c. SSgt Jim Jones/USAF/123-45-6789; special interest cargo section.
d. SSgt Jim Jones/USAF/123-45-6789; hazardous cargo section.

Back 47

a. SSgt Jim Jones/USAF/Dover AFB Mortuary Affairs; special interest cargo section.

Front 48

When completing the inbound side of the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 77, Aircraft
Ground Handling Record, what do you enter into the Location block for Air Mobility Command
Mission Capable (AMC MICAP) shipments?
a. The location of your station.
b. The current location of the AMC MICAP shipment.
c. The pallet position the AMC MICAP is located on the aircraft.
d. The location of the aircraft for which the AMC MICAP is destined.

Back 48

d. The location of the aircraft for which the AMC MICAP is destined.

Front 49

When completing the inbound side of the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 77, Aircraft
Ground Handling Record, in the Explosives block for cargo/mail data off-load you enter the total
a. weight of explosives off-loaded at your station.
b. weight of thru-load and off-load explosives on the aircraft.
c. net explosives weight (NEW) of explosives off-loaded at your station.
d. NEW of thru-load and off-load explosives on the aircraft.

Back 49

a. weight of explosives off-loaded at your station.

Front 50

When completing the outbound side of the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 77,
Aircraft Ground Handling Record, you enter in the Loadmaster Scheduled Show block the
loadmaster/boom operator scheduled show time
a. only.
b. and the initials of the command post representative passing the information only.
c. and the initials of the Air Terminal Operations Center (ATOC) representative receiving the
information only.
d. and the initials of the command post and ATOC representatives passing/receiving the information
only.

Back 50

d. and the initials of the command post and ATOC representatives passing/receiving the information only.

Front 51

When completing the outbound side of the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 77,
Aircraft Ground Handling Record, the Telecon Coordination block is completed when the
a. loadmaster/boom operator calls in as available for duty.
b. aircraft load message is passed by telephone for short flights.
c. folder has been reviewed and mission history passed to records via telephone.
d. aircraft is in commission as received via telephone through the maintenance operations control
center.

Back 51

b. aircraft load message is passed by telephone for short flights.

Front 52

When accomplishing airlift capability schedules, what is your next step after extracting the
necessary data from the command and control systems or published schedules?
a. Monitor the schedules.
b. Adjust airlift as necessary.
c. Update the work centers with changed or new information.
d. Compile the information and distribute to the work centers.

Back 52

d. Compile the information and distribute to the work centers.

Front 53

When clearing explosives shipments, request port-to-port clearance at the earliest possible
date, but no later than
a. 12 hours prior to the mission’s departure time only.
b. 24 hours prior to the mission’s departure time only.
c. 12 hours prior to the mission’s departure time, unless a specific location requires a greater
notification time only.
d. 24 hours prior to the mission’s departure time, unless a specific location requires a greater
notification time only.

Back 53

d. 24 hours prior to the mission’s departure time, unless a specific location requires a greater
notification time only.

Front 54

When requesting port-to-port clearance of explosives, which of the following is not required
on the explosives clearance request?
a. Mission number.
b. Pieces/weight/cube.
c. Requested departure date.
d. Proper shipping name (PSN) and United Nations (UN) number.

Back 54

c. Requested departure date.

Front 55

Who is considered to be the “eyes and ears” of the administrative contracting officer?
a. Squadron operations officer.
b. Contract Officer Representative (COR).
c. Commercial load validator personnel.
d. Air Terminal Operations Center (ATOC) personnel.

Back 55

b. Contract Officer Representative (COR).

Front 56

Which form is used only to report contract discrepancies or violations to higher
headquarters?
a. AMC Form 166a, Preflight Surveillance Activity Checklist.
b. AMC Form 166b, Contract Discrepancy or Violation Notice-Civil Airlift.
c. AMC Form 166c, In-flight Surveillance Activity Checklist.
d. AMC Form 166d, Preflight/In-flight Surveillance and Violation Report.

Back 56

b. AMC Form 166b, Contract Discrepancy or Violation Notice-Civil Airlift.

Front 57

Which three levels of discrepancies can commercial carriers receive from the Contract
Officer Representative (COR) when using the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 166a, Preflight
Surveillance Activity Checklist?
a. Critical, major, and minor.
b. Go, no-go, and partially proficient.
c. Passenger, cargo, and general operations.
d. Satisfactory, unsatisfactory, and not applicable.

Back 57

a. Critical, major, and minor.

Front 58

When conducting an air terminal inventory, what should you do if you find a discrepancy
on a pallet that you cannot correct?
a. Let the appropriate work center know so they can fix it.
b. Delete the pallet from the system and prepare a deleted pallet report.
c. Place the pallet in FR7 status and notify the Air Clearance Authority (ACA).
d. Enter the discrepancy into the trailer data so the downline station can fix it upon arrival

Back 58

a. Let the appropriate work center know so they can fix it.

Front 59

When conducting an air terminal inventory on loose cargo, in addition to verifying the
aerial port of debarkation (APOD), transportation control number (TCN), date received, and air
commodity/special handling code, you must also verify the warehouse location,
a. number of pieces, weight, and cube only.
b. priority, number of pieces, weight, and cube only.
c. configuration, number of pieces, weight, and cube only.
d. aerial port of embarkation (APOE), priority, and number of pieces only.

Back 59

b. priority, number of pieces, weight, and cube only.

Front 60

When selecting cargo by priority for a mission to Ramstein AB, Germany, which of the
following pieces of cargo would you select first based on transportation priority (TP), expedited
handling indicators, and system entry time (SET) in Greenwich Meantime (GMT)?
a. TP-1; 999; SET: 25 July 09/1440 GMT.
b. TP-2; 777; SET: 25 July 09/1400 GMT.
c. TP-1; SET: 25 July 09/1630 GMT.
d. TP-1; SET: 25 July 09/1430 GMT.

Back 60

a. TP-1; 999; SET: 25 July 09/1440 GMT.

Front 61

When selecting cargo by priority for a mission to Hickam AB, Hawaii, which of the
following pieces of cargo would you select first based on transportation priority (TP), expedited
handling indicators, and system entry time (SET) in Greenwich Meantime (GMT) and other factors?
a. An armored personnel carrier; TP-1, SET: 25 July 09/1640 GMT.
b. A T-4 multipallet train; TP-1, 777; SET: 25 July 09/1630 GMT.
c. A canned engine; TP-1, 777, SET: 25 July 09/1430 GMT.
d. Registered mail; TP-1; SET: 25 July 09/1645 GMT

Back 61

c. A canned engine; TP-1, 777, SET: 25 July 09/1430 GMT.

Front 62

When computing an aircraft critical leg allowable cabin load (ACL), the two numbers you
must add to equal the total aircraft weight upon takeoff include the aircraft
a. basic weight and fuel weight.
b. basic weight and payload weight.
c. operating weight and cargo weight.
d. operating weight and takeoff fuel weight.

Back 62

d. operating weight and takeoff fuel weight.

Front 63

Which activity completes the task of manual cargo selection?
a. Inspecting the cargo.
b. Maintaining the pallet contents listing file.
c. Conducting an inventory on the cargo you selected.
d. Determining the aircraft critical leg allowable cabin load (ACL).

Back 63

b. Maintaining the pallet contents listing file.

Front 64

Which formula do you use to determine the shoring requirements for skidded cargo?
a. L × W.
b. L × W × number of skids.
c. Diameter2 × number of skids.
d. L × W × 0.785 × number of skids.

Back 64

b. L × W × number of skids.

Front 65

Which formula do you use when determining the shoring requirements for drums with rims
a. Outside rim diameter2 – inside rim diameter2 × 0.785.
b. Inside rim diameter2 – outside rim diameter2 × 0.785.
c. Diameter2 × 0.785.
d. Diameter2 × 0.875.

Back 65

a. Outside rim diameter2 – inside rim diameter2 × 0.785.

Front 66

When determining shoring requirements, you determine the wheel load for a vehicle by
dividing the
a. gross vehicle weight by the number of axles.
b. number of wheels on each axle by the axle weight.
c. axle weight by the number of wheels on each axle.
d. gross vehicle weight by the number of wheels on the vehicle.

Back 66

c. axle weight by the number of wheels on each axle.

Front 67

When determining shoring requirements for a drum with a rim, after doubling the thickness
of the shoring,
a. add it to the outside and inside diameters.
b. subtract it from the outside and inside diameters.
c. add it to the outside diameter and subtract it from the inside diameter.
d. subtract it from the outside diameter and add it to the inside diameter

Back 67

c. add it to the outside diameter and subtract it from the inside diameter.

Front 68

When preparing a load plan, which type will units and aerial port personnel use for mobility
moves, contingencies, and channel missions outside of Air Mobility Command (AMC) if they have
the capability?
a. DD Form 2131-XX-series load plans.
b. Computer Automated Load Manifesting load plans.
c. AF IMT 4080, Load/Sequence Breakdown Worksheet.
d. automated air load planning system (AALPS)/Integrated Computerized Deployment System
(ICODES) Load Plans.

Back 68

d. automated air load planning system (AALPS)/Integrated Computerized Deployment System
(ICODES) Load Plans.

Front 69

When preparing a load plan, which type do you use for Air Mobility Command (AMC)
channel missions?
a. Automated Air Load Planning System (AALPS)/Integrated Computerized Deployment System
(ICODES) load plans.
b. AF IMT 4080, Load/Sequence Breakdown Worksheet.
c. Computer Automated Load Manifesting load plans.
d. DD Form 2131-XX-series load plans

Back 69

b. AF IMT 4080, Load/Sequence Breakdown Worksheet

Front 70

When preparing a load plan, in how many copies do you prepare and who receives them?
a. Two; one to Air Terminal Operations Center (ATOC) personnel and one to the load master.
b. Two; one to ATOC personnel and one to ramp services personnel.
c. Three; two to ATOC personnel and one to ramp services personnel.
d. Three; one to ATOC personnel, one to Tanker Airlift Control Center (TACC) personnel and one to
ramp services personnel.

Back 70

c. Three; two to ATOC personnel and one to ramp services personnel.

Front 71

When preparing a load plan, after calculating the moments for each piece of equipment,
multipallet train or single pallet on the aircraft, you must separately total the
a. operating weight and zero fuel weight.
b. cargo gross weight and aircraft fuselage stations.
c. weight of all the cargo and the moments the cargo generates.
d. leading edge mean aerodynamic chord (LEMAC) and mean aerodynamic chord (MAC).

Back 71

c. weight of all the cargo and the moments the cargo generates.

Front 72

You are preparing manual manifests and have the following cargo for Hickam AFB,
Hawaii, and Kadena AB, Japan: general cargo for both locations; registered mail for Hickam; and
signature service shipments for both destinations. How many manifests will you prepare?
a. Two.
b. Three.
c. Four.
d. Five.

Back 72

d. Five.

Front 73

When preparing a manual manifest, list
a. pallet data first, with loose cargo listed in transportation control number (TCN) sequence.
b. loose cargo data first, with pallet data listed in transportation priority (TP) sequence.
c. loose cargo data first, with pallet data listed in pallet identification (ID) sequence.
d. pallet data first, with loose cargo listed in system entry time (SET) sequence.

Back 73

a. pallet data first, with loose cargo listed in transportation control number (TCN) sequence.

Front 74

When preparing a manual manifest, in the destination block, enter the
a. four-character International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) code.
b. three-character air terminal identifier (ATI) code.
c. three-character aerial port code (APC).
d. in-the-clear destination.

Back 74

d. in-the-clear destination.

Front 75

At the end of each month, what happens before the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form
56, Rehandled Workload, is forwarded to the records, reports, and analysis section?
a. It is included in the AMC A4 7107 report.
b. Section leadership reviews and verifies the information.
c. Manpower levels are adjusted based on the numbers entered.
d. It is used to project future workloads and document facts for various studies.

Back 75

b. Section leadership reviews and verifies the information

Front 76

Air Terminal Operations Center (ATOC) personnel complete the Air Mobility Command
(AMC) Form 56, Rehandled Workload, after
a. a load plan is reaccomplished.
b. pallets are reconfigured due to opportune airlift.
c. cargo is frustrated to Air Clearance Authority/Customer Service Branch (ACA/CSB).
d. prebuilt pallets that arrived improperly configured are reconfigured by aerial port personnel.

Back 76

a. a load plan is reaccomplished.

Front 77

When completing the cargo rehandled block of the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form
56, Rehandled Workload, who is required to review and sign the form after it is complete?
a. The officer in charge or superintendent of the section performing the rehandled aircraft workload.
b. The records, reports, and analysis representative accepting the form.
c. The individual making entries on the form.
d. The squadron operations officer.

Back 77

a. The officer in charge or superintendent of the section performing the rehandled aircraft workload.

Front 78

If you reservice the latrine on an aircraft, which rehandled form do you complete?
a. AMC Form 108, Passenger Rehandled Workload.
b. AMC Form 85, Rehandled Form.
c. AMC Form 65, Aircraft Reserviced Workload.
d. AMC Form 56, Rehandled Workload.

Back 78

c. AMC Form 65, Aircraft Reserviced Workload.

Front 79

When reviewing and reconciling transportation documentation, which report does aerial
port management review daily?
a. Excessive port hold time (PHT) or system entry time (SET).
b. Over/short shipment report.
c. Manifest header summary.
d. Pallet listing report.

Back 79

a. Excessive port hold time (PHT) or system entry time (SET).

Front 80

Before the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 77 is sent to data records for review and
filing who must review the form for accuracy and completeness and sign it?
a. The shift supervisor/senior controller of Air Terminal Operations Center (ATOC).
b. The squadron operations officer.
c. The inbound controller.
d. The ramp controller.

Back 80

a. The shift supervisor/senior controller of Air Terminal Operations Center (ATOC).

Front 81

Data records personnel can file the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 77, Aircraft
Ground Handling Record, in the station files after they have reviewed the folder to ensure
a. each aircraft’s schedule of events occurred on time.
b. skipped manifests are annotated in the remarks section.
c. manifest numbers are in sequential order based on aircraft time of departure and deleted manifests are annotated in the remarks section.
d. all aircraft data and events are accurately captured and all transportation documents that apply to that mission are included in the package.

Back 81

d. all aircraft data and events are accurately captured and all transportation documents that apply to that mission are included in the package.

Front 82

When reviewing the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 77, Aircraft Ground Handling
Record, what do data records personnel do if they notice any discrepancies?
a. Notify the squadron operations officer so he/she can direct corrective action.
b. Send the package back to the Air Terminal Operations Center (ATOC) for corrections or correct it themselves.
c. Send the discrepant portion(s) of the package back to the work center responsible for creating the document.
d. Notify the Tanker Airlift Control Center (TACC) that proper billing cannot take place due to the discrepancies.

Back 82

b. Send the package back to the Air Terminal Operations Center (ATOC) for corrections or correct it themselves.

Front 83

When maintaining transportation documentation, if a mission number changes what must
you do before filing the new Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 77?
a. Print an additional copy of the old AMC Form 77 and attach it to the new AMC Form 77.
b. Duplicate all the information from the old AMC Form 77 onto the new one and file.
c. Write the old mission number on the new AMC Form 77 in the remarks section.
d. File each AMC Form 77 separately with remarks annotated on each.

Back 83

a. Print an additional copy of the old AMC Form 77 and attach it to the new AMC Form 77.

Front 84

When maintaining manifest registers, maintain one current
a. fiscal year plus 1 inactive year.
b. fiscal year plus 2 inactive years.
c. calendar year plus 1 inactive year.
d. calendar year plus 2 inactive years.

Back 84

a. fiscal year plus 1 inactive year.

Front 85

When maintaining the consolidated flight packages (CFP), consider them as permanent
documents and retire them to the base staging area after
a. 1 fiscal year.
b. 2 fiscal years.
c. 1 calendar year.
d. 2 calendar years.

Back 85

b. 2 fiscal years.