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116 Cards in this Set

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  • Back
What physiological processes may cause a WHITE tissue color?
fibrosis
necrosis
cellular infiltrate or exudate
cell swelling
mineralization
What substances can cause a YELLOW to YELLOW ORANGE color in tissue?
lipofuscin
bile
bilirubin
lipid deposition carotene
bacterial pigments
What causes a YELLOW/BROWN tissue color?
hemosiderin
In general, what two disease categories are associated with aged animals?
degenerative and neoplastic
What are the three possible diagnoses for a tissue mass? Very general it could be one of these three types of things.
tumor
granuloma
abscess
What are the six things needed to make a morphological diagnosis regarding an inflammatory disease?
Duration
Degree
Distribution
Exudate
Modifier
Tissue
What are some routes of entry for CNS disease that arose from direct extension?
penetrating trauma
middle or inner ear infection
cribiform plate
nasal cavity or sinuses
What are three possible microbes that can be involved in transectional axonopathies?
Listeria (bacterial)
Cryptococcus (fungal)
Sarcocystis (protozoal)
What is the pathogenisis for aquired hydrocephalus?
Occlusion of CSF flow usually at the cerebral aqueduct
What are the characteristics of congenital hydromyelia?
normal vertebral column
spinal cord parenchyma thinned
symmetrical dilatation of the central canal
What are the gross lesions associated with adult bacterial meningitis?
cloudy meninges
gray to yellow fibrinous exudate
What is a classic sign of severe adult bacterial meningitis?
sub normal temps
What are some etiological agents for adult bacterial meningitis?
Strept suis type 2
E. coli
Salmonella
Mycoplasma
Hemophilus suis/parasuis (glassers disease)
What is the pathogenesis of adult bacterial meningitis?
bacteria enter through a wound, skin, respiratory tract, or intestinal tract.

Hematogenous spread and replication

Bacterial emboli are trapped in meninges
What are some etiologic agents for brain ro spinal cord abscesses?
Corynebacterium pyogenes
C. pseudotuberulosis
streptococcus
What are some etiologic agents for protozoal encephalomyelitis?
toxoplasma gondii
Neospora caninum
What is the pathogenesis of protozoal encephalomyelitis?
leukocytic trafficking- spread in monocytes

infection of endothelial cells

vasculitis and neuronal necrosis
What are some etiological agents for fungal encephalomyelitis?
Histoplasma
Blastomyces
cryptococcus
What is Cerebellar Abiotrophy?
degeneration of cerebellar purkinje cells and associated nuclei after normal development.
It occurs some time after birth and is caused by a genetically determined metabolic defect?
What is a physical characteristic of horses with Dynamic Cervical Myelopathy?
hypertrophied neck muscles
What are the gross lesions associated with Intervertebral Disk Disease?
Ventral ankylosing spondylosis
mineralization of the nucleas pulposis
degeneration of the annulus fibrosis
disk protrusion or herniation
spinal cord compression
Wallerian degeneration
What are the major and minor sites of endogenous histamine?
major sites:
mast cells in tissue
basophils in blood
Minor sites:
epidermis, gastric mucosa, CNS neurons, regenerating or rapidly growing cells
How is exogenous histamine acquired?
ingested
produced by bacteria in the gut
What are some triggers of histamine release by mast cells?
IgE bridging
prostaglandins
heparin
LT
CK
Radiographic contrast material
Some theraputic agents
What are the the most important sites of H1 receptors?
smooth muscle:
bronchi
vasculature
GI tract
Also:
endothelium
CNS
Where are H2 receptors located?
parietal cells in the stomach

vasculature
What responses are due to histamine during anaphylactic shock?
vasodialation and hypotension
bronchoconstriction
contraction of vascular endothelium causing increased capillary permeability and edema formation
Where in the CNS is the emetic center located?
lateral reticular formation of the medulla
What nerves are involved in the action of vomiting?
vagus
phrenic
spinal innervation of the abdominal musculature
Where are H2 receptors located, and what happens when they are stimulated?
parietal cells in the stomach

acid is produced when they are stimulated
What are the components of the vomiting reflex?
Emetic center
chemo-receptor trigger zone
higher centers
pharynx
peripheral structures
vestibular apparatus or inner ear
What is the purpose of the higher centers in emesis?
mediate sensory input
responsible for psychogenic emesis
sense head trauma and increased intracranial pressure
What is the purpose of the pharynx in emesis?
mediates the gag reflex via cranial nerves 5 and 9
Which species cannot vomit?
horses
ruminants
rabbits
rodents
What are the indications for emetic therapy?
expel non-corrosive gastric contents

expel gastric contents if planning general anesthesia
What situations may predispose an animal to aspiration pneumonia when given emetic therapy
hypoxemia
dyspnea
weakness
coma
abnormal pharyngeal reflexes
what are some of the characteristics of peripheral acting emetics?
effects occur within 5 to 15 minutes

best not to repeat medication more than once

possible side effect: prolonged vomitting and depression
What are some peripheral acting emetics?
Salt
3% hydrogen peroxide
syrup of ipecac
What are some characteristics of Apomorphine?
used in dogs, not cats
may cause depression OR CNS stimulation
can be reversed with naloxone
can be administered IM,IV,SQ, or subconjuctival
What receptors does apomorphine work on?
D2 receptors in CRT

central muscarinic receptors
What central acting emetics may aggravate vagal-mediated bradycardia and hypotension?
xylazine and medetomidine
what is the reversal agent for xylazine and how is it administered?
Yohimbine and it must be administered IV
What class of drugs are xylazine and medetomidine?
alpha 2 adrenergic receptor agonists
What cranial nerve is responsible for the sensation for the need to blink?
CN 5
What cranial nerve is responsible for the actual act of blinking?
CN 7
Describe the Oculocardiac reflex.
during aggressive ocular surgery, bradycardia may be vagally induced
If you are presented with a dog that has hard pad keratosis along woth enamel hypoplasia, what might you expect that this dog may have been previously infected with?
canine distemper virus
Explain how CDV leads to primary viremia.
CDV is transmitted by aerosol and trapped in the mucosa of the nasal turbinates.
Spread by macrophages to regional lymph nodes
Replicates in regional lymph nodes then infects systemic lymph nodes, spleen,thymus.
This condition presents with excessive wear of footpads with ulceration to the bone, excessive chewing of pads,sharp lines of demarcation with secondary inflammation. generalized or focal loss of sensation in extremeties
neuropododermatitis
If a coonhound presents with acute tetraparesis, what might you suspect this dog has?
idiopathic polyradiculoneuritis
What is the etiology for aquired myastenia gravis?
The body developes an antibody against the ach receptor
What are the gross lesions seen in Dural Ossification?
red plaques in meninges
This disease presents with progressive posterier paresis and is very apparent in the German Shepherd Dogs.
degenerative myelopathy
This viral disease of cats presents with slow progressive CNS signs and hydrocephalus. Lesions include granulamatous vasculitis and granulamatous meningioencephalitis. What is this disease and what is the etiologic agent?
feliine infectious peritonitis
coronavirus
The pathogenesis of this feline disease is altered vascular flow due to larval migration and cerebral ischemia with cerebral infarction. What is the disease and what is the etiologic agent?
Feline Ischemic Encephalopathy

cuterebra spp
What receptors does apomorphine affect??
D2 receptors in CRT

central muscarinic receptors
What receptor do Phenothiazines affect?
D2 receptor antagonists
What are the defense mechanisms the body has to prevent ulcers?
bicarbonate
mucous
prostaglandins
Explain how Cimetidine works.
cimetidine competitively inhibits histamine at the H2 receptors in the stomach. It decreases both basal and food induced levels of H+ production.
What is a potentially dangerous side effect does Cimetidine?
It inhibits cytochrome P450 activity in the liver and can slow metabolism of many drugs
With regards to potency, what is the relationship between Ranitidine and Cimetidine?
Ranitidine is 4 times as potent
Anti-ulcer H2 receptor antagonists are rapidly and well absorbed orally. What about the metabolism of these drugs makes them somewhat inconvenient to administer?
These drugs have a short half life and must be administered 3-4 times a day
What are the pharmacodynamics of Omeprazole?
Must have an acidic emvironment to be effective
Binds to H-K-ATPase irreversibly
Prostaglandins can be used to treat gastric ulcers by inhibiting acid secretion and stimulating mucous and bicarb production. What is the reason why prostaglandins are most often used?
They are mostly used in patients requiring prolonged NSAID or corticosteriod treatment or are under undue stress.
What are the side effects of prostaglandins?
diarrhea
abdominal cramps
abortion
Which receptors are involved in inhibiting GI motility?
opioid receptors
Which receptors are invovlved in increasing GI motility?
Serotonin---5 HT receptor

Antagonist---D2 receptor

Ach--- M2 receptor

Motilin---Motilin receptor
What are the 6 types of prokinetic GI drugs?
cholinergic
adrenergic receptor antagonists
Dopamine antagonists
Serotonin agonists
motilin agonists
lidocaine
Metaclopramide has secondary alpha 2 adrenergic antagonist qualities but mainly acts as what?
Dopamine antagonist
Metaclopramide crosses the blood brain barrier which leads to what possible side effects?
anxiety
depression
dizziness
excitement
collapse
Where is the action of Metaclopramide seen in the GI tract?
Promotes progressive motility from the esophagus to te proximal small intestine.
little activity in the large bowel
This drug is a dopamine antagonist with no cholinergic activity and does not cross the blood brain barrier. However, it is used mostly to induce lactation in poorly lactating mares.
Domperidone
This drug is a motilin agonist and also an antibiotic. When used as a prokinetic, it is given at about 1/50 the antibiotic dose. What is it?
Erythromycin
Give some properties of Lidocaine as a prokinetic.
suppresses afferent pathways from peritoneum
induces analgesia and anti-inflammatory properties
directly stimulates enteric smooth muscle
rpidly metabolized in liver, must be given continuous IV drip
What prokinetics would be used for POI with undetermined cause?
Metaclopramide
lidocaine
erythromycin
Which prokinetics are used for ileus potentiated or caused by endotoxemia?
alpha 2 antagonists
which prokinetic drugs would be used to treat large intestinal obstructions or stasis?
Naloxone, bethanacol, erythromycin, lidocaine
How is Bethanacol administered?
oral or sub Q
What receptor does Bethanacol stimulate?
M2 receptors in the GI tract. Stimulates parasympathetic activity.
What are the side effects of Bethanacol?
abdominal pain, salivation
How do glucocorticoids work as an anti-diarrhetic?
they enhance intestinal absorbtion or Na and water.
What is the most commonly used NSAID to treat diarrhea?
Bismuth subsalicylate
What are some common horse CNS diseases?
EPM, Viral encephalitidies, Leukoencephalomalacia, Cerebrospinal nematodiasis, Laryngeal hemiplegia, Botulism, tetanus, Degenerative encephalomyelopathy, Cauda equina neuritis, Cholesteatoma, Equine motor neuron disease, Equine Dysautonomia
What are the gross lesions found in EPM?
Yellow-brown assymetrical lesions in the brain and spinal cord
What is the etiology for EPM?
Sarcocystis neurona
What is the pathogenesis for EPM?
protozoan is ingested

phagocytized by macrophages

hematogenous spread in monocytes to CNS
What causes the injury in EPM?
Protozoan in neuron and endothelial cells

Degeneration by intracellular replication

Inflammation associated with the rupture of cysts and release of parasite into neuropil
What are the three major equine viral encephalitides?
Herpes virus encephalitis

Arbovirus encephalomyelitis

West Nile encephalomyelitis
What are the gross lesions associated with equine herpes virus encephalitis?
discoloration of brain and spinal cord

multifocal distribution

hemorrage

sudden onset
What is the pathogenesis of Herpes virus encephalitis?
Hematogenous spred

virus infects endothelial cells

thrombosis of small arteries and veins

virus induced ischemic vasulitis
This equine CNS disease has gross lesions of hemorrage in the gray matter and polioencephalomyelitis.
Arbovirus Encephalomyelitis
This virus is also called equine polioencephalomyelitis, eastern, western, venezuelan encephalitis
Arbovirus Encephalomyelitis
Describe the gross lesions of Leukoencephalomalacia including the usual location.
Liquifactive necrosis (malacia) of the white matter.
Lesions are usually located in the frontal and/or parietal lobes.
Moldy corn poisoning is the common name for what disease?
leukoencephalomalacia
What is the etiology for leukoencephalomalacia in horses?
fusarium moniliforme toxin
Fumonisin B1 in moldy corn
This equine CNS disease has focal or linear red tracts in neuropil.
Cerebrospinal nematodiasis
What is the etiology for Cerebrospinal nematodiasis?
Strongylus vulgaris
Strongylus equinus
Seteria
What are the signs for equine degenerative encephalomyelopathy?
symmetrical tetraparesis and ataxia

appear sometime after birth 6 and 12 months of age but less than 3 years
What is the response to injury for Cauda Equina Neuritis?
Granulamatous inflammation in meninges
This is an incidental finding in older horses it consists of yellow/brown nodules in the choroid plexus.
Cholesteatoma
What is the etiology for cerebellar hypoplasia in ruminants?
Genetic
Viral- BVD/MD pestivirus
Blue Tongue virus (orbivirus)
What are the signs for ruminant Listeriosis?
Abnormal posture
circling
blindness
staggering
ataxia
Where in the CNS are the lesions for listeriosis?
Brainstem
What is the Etiology for listeriosis in ruminants?
Listeria monocytogenes
What is the pathogenesis for ruminant Listeriosis?
penetrate oral mucosa
local tissue necrosis
retrograde axoplasmic tranport up cranial nerves to brain stem
This is a disease of ruminants that presents with sudden onset of CNS signs with randomly distributed red foci in the brain and spinal cord.
TEME
Thrombotic Menigoencephalitis
What is the etiology for TEME?
Hemophilus somnus
This is a disease of sheep that is associated with overeating and rapid replication of C.perfringens type D. These sheep present with sudden onset of CNS signs and turning of the head backward
Symmetrical Encephalomalacia
What are the gross lesions for spongiform polioencephalopathy?
usually none

could have loss of woll or excessive rubbing of the skin
This disease presents in young goats, usually 2-4 months with depression, head tilt, torticollis, and circling.
Viral Leukoencephalomyelitis
What is the etiology for Viral Leukoencephalomyelitis?
C-type retrovirus
What are the three common CNS diseases in swine?
Pseudorabies
Salt poisoning
edema disease
In a very progressed case, pigs may present paddling with rolled back eyes, what disease is this?
Pseudorabies
What are the signs for Eosinophilic Meningoencephalitis?
Hyperirritability
blindness
stumbling
circling
convulsions
nervous derangement
What is the fancy name for edema disease in pigs?
Cerebrospinal Angiopathy
This swine disease is usually associated with E. coli and pigs have signs of swollen eyelids.
Cerebrospinal Angiopathy