Reading...
Play button
Play button
Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;
Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;
H to show hint;
A reads text to speech;
116 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
|
What physiological processes may cause a WHITE tissue color?
|
fibrosis
necrosis cellular infiltrate or exudate cell swelling mineralization |
|
|
What substances can cause a YELLOW to YELLOW ORANGE color in tissue?
|
lipofuscin
bile bilirubin lipid deposition carotene bacterial pigments |
|
|
What causes a YELLOW/BROWN tissue color?
|
hemosiderin
|
|
|
In general, what two disease categories are associated with aged animals?
|
degenerative and neoplastic
|
|
|
What are the three possible diagnoses for a tissue mass? Very general it could be one of these three types of things.
|
tumor
granuloma abscess |
|
|
What are the six things needed to make a morphological diagnosis regarding an inflammatory disease?
|
Duration
Degree Distribution Exudate Modifier Tissue |
|
|
What are some routes of entry for CNS disease that arose from direct extension?
|
penetrating trauma
middle or inner ear infection cribiform plate nasal cavity or sinuses |
|
|
What are three possible microbes that can be involved in transectional axonopathies?
|
Listeria (bacterial)
Cryptococcus (fungal) Sarcocystis (protozoal) |
|
|
What is the pathogenisis for aquired hydrocephalus?
|
Occlusion of CSF flow usually at the cerebral aqueduct
|
|
|
What are the characteristics of congenital hydromyelia?
|
normal vertebral column
spinal cord parenchyma thinned symmetrical dilatation of the central canal |
|
|
What are the gross lesions associated with adult bacterial meningitis?
|
cloudy meninges
gray to yellow fibrinous exudate |
|
|
What is a classic sign of severe adult bacterial meningitis?
|
sub normal temps
|
|
|
What are some etiological agents for adult bacterial meningitis?
|
Strept suis type 2
E. coli Salmonella Mycoplasma Hemophilus suis/parasuis (glassers disease) |
|
|
What is the pathogenesis of adult bacterial meningitis?
|
bacteria enter through a wound, skin, respiratory tract, or intestinal tract.
Hematogenous spread and replication Bacterial emboli are trapped in meninges |
|
|
What are some etiologic agents for brain ro spinal cord abscesses?
|
Corynebacterium pyogenes
C. pseudotuberulosis streptococcus |
|
|
What are some etiologic agents for protozoal encephalomyelitis?
|
toxoplasma gondii
Neospora caninum |
|
|
What is the pathogenesis of protozoal encephalomyelitis?
|
leukocytic trafficking- spread in monocytes
infection of endothelial cells vasculitis and neuronal necrosis |
|
|
What are some etiological agents for fungal encephalomyelitis?
|
Histoplasma
Blastomyces cryptococcus |
|
|
What is Cerebellar Abiotrophy?
|
degeneration of cerebellar purkinje cells and associated nuclei after normal development.
It occurs some time after birth and is caused by a genetically determined metabolic defect? |
|
|
What is a physical characteristic of horses with Dynamic Cervical Myelopathy?
|
hypertrophied neck muscles
|
|
|
What are the gross lesions associated with Intervertebral Disk Disease?
|
Ventral ankylosing spondylosis
mineralization of the nucleas pulposis degeneration of the annulus fibrosis disk protrusion or herniation spinal cord compression Wallerian degeneration |
|
|
What are the major and minor sites of endogenous histamine?
|
major sites:
mast cells in tissue basophils in blood Minor sites: epidermis, gastric mucosa, CNS neurons, regenerating or rapidly growing cells |
|
|
How is exogenous histamine acquired?
|
ingested
produced by bacteria in the gut |
|
|
What are some triggers of histamine release by mast cells?
|
IgE bridging
prostaglandins heparin LT CK Radiographic contrast material Some theraputic agents |
|
|
What are the the most important sites of H1 receptors?
|
smooth muscle:
bronchi vasculature GI tract Also: endothelium CNS |
|
|
Where are H2 receptors located?
|
parietal cells in the stomach
vasculature |
|
|
What responses are due to histamine during anaphylactic shock?
|
vasodialation and hypotension
bronchoconstriction contraction of vascular endothelium causing increased capillary permeability and edema formation |
|
|
Where in the CNS is the emetic center located?
|
lateral reticular formation of the medulla
|
|
|
What nerves are involved in the action of vomiting?
|
vagus
phrenic spinal innervation of the abdominal musculature |
|
|
Where are H2 receptors located, and what happens when they are stimulated?
|
parietal cells in the stomach
acid is produced when they are stimulated |
|
|
What are the components of the vomiting reflex?
|
Emetic center
chemo-receptor trigger zone higher centers pharynx peripheral structures vestibular apparatus or inner ear |
|
|
What is the purpose of the higher centers in emesis?
|
mediate sensory input
responsible for psychogenic emesis sense head trauma and increased intracranial pressure |
|
|
What is the purpose of the pharynx in emesis?
|
mediates the gag reflex via cranial nerves 5 and 9
|
|
|
Which species cannot vomit?
|
horses
ruminants rabbits rodents |
|
|
What are the indications for emetic therapy?
|
expel non-corrosive gastric contents
expel gastric contents if planning general anesthesia |
|
|
What situations may predispose an animal to aspiration pneumonia when given emetic therapy
|
hypoxemia
dyspnea weakness coma abnormal pharyngeal reflexes |
|
|
what are some of the characteristics of peripheral acting emetics?
|
effects occur within 5 to 15 minutes
best not to repeat medication more than once possible side effect: prolonged vomitting and depression |
|
|
What are some peripheral acting emetics?
|
Salt
3% hydrogen peroxide syrup of ipecac |
|
|
What are some characteristics of Apomorphine?
|
used in dogs, not cats
may cause depression OR CNS stimulation can be reversed with naloxone can be administered IM,IV,SQ, or subconjuctival |
|
|
What receptors does apomorphine work on?
|
D2 receptors in CRT
central muscarinic receptors |
|
|
What central acting emetics may aggravate vagal-mediated bradycardia and hypotension?
|
xylazine and medetomidine
|
|
|
what is the reversal agent for xylazine and how is it administered?
|
Yohimbine and it must be administered IV
|
|
|
What class of drugs are xylazine and medetomidine?
|
alpha 2 adrenergic receptor agonists
|
|
|
What cranial nerve is responsible for the sensation for the need to blink?
|
CN 5
|
|
|
What cranial nerve is responsible for the actual act of blinking?
|
CN 7
|
|
|
Describe the Oculocardiac reflex.
|
during aggressive ocular surgery, bradycardia may be vagally induced
|
|
|
If you are presented with a dog that has hard pad keratosis along woth enamel hypoplasia, what might you expect that this dog may have been previously infected with?
|
canine distemper virus
|
|
|
Explain how CDV leads to primary viremia.
|
CDV is transmitted by aerosol and trapped in the mucosa of the nasal turbinates.
Spread by macrophages to regional lymph nodes Replicates in regional lymph nodes then infects systemic lymph nodes, spleen,thymus. |
|
|
This condition presents with excessive wear of footpads with ulceration to the bone, excessive chewing of pads,sharp lines of demarcation with secondary inflammation. generalized or focal loss of sensation in extremeties
|
neuropododermatitis
|
|
|
If a coonhound presents with acute tetraparesis, what might you suspect this dog has?
|
idiopathic polyradiculoneuritis
|
|
|
What is the etiology for aquired myastenia gravis?
|
The body developes an antibody against the ach receptor
|
|
|
What are the gross lesions seen in Dural Ossification?
|
red plaques in meninges
|
|
|
This disease presents with progressive posterier paresis and is very apparent in the German Shepherd Dogs.
|
degenerative myelopathy
|
|
|
This viral disease of cats presents with slow progressive CNS signs and hydrocephalus. Lesions include granulamatous vasculitis and granulamatous meningioencephalitis. What is this disease and what is the etiologic agent?
|
feliine infectious peritonitis
coronavirus |
|
|
The pathogenesis of this feline disease is altered vascular flow due to larval migration and cerebral ischemia with cerebral infarction. What is the disease and what is the etiologic agent?
|
Feline Ischemic Encephalopathy
cuterebra spp |
|
|
What receptors does apomorphine affect??
|
D2 receptors in CRT
central muscarinic receptors |
|
|
What receptor do Phenothiazines affect?
|
D2 receptor antagonists
|
|
|
What are the defense mechanisms the body has to prevent ulcers?
|
bicarbonate
mucous prostaglandins |
|
|
Explain how Cimetidine works.
|
cimetidine competitively inhibits histamine at the H2 receptors in the stomach. It decreases both basal and food induced levels of H+ production.
|
|
|
What is a potentially dangerous side effect does Cimetidine?
|
It inhibits cytochrome P450 activity in the liver and can slow metabolism of many drugs
|
|
|
With regards to potency, what is the relationship between Ranitidine and Cimetidine?
|
Ranitidine is 4 times as potent
|
|
|
Anti-ulcer H2 receptor antagonists are rapidly and well absorbed orally. What about the metabolism of these drugs makes them somewhat inconvenient to administer?
|
These drugs have a short half life and must be administered 3-4 times a day
|
|
|
What are the pharmacodynamics of Omeprazole?
|
Must have an acidic emvironment to be effective
Binds to H-K-ATPase irreversibly |
|
|
Prostaglandins can be used to treat gastric ulcers by inhibiting acid secretion and stimulating mucous and bicarb production. What is the reason why prostaglandins are most often used?
|
They are mostly used in patients requiring prolonged NSAID or corticosteriod treatment or are under undue stress.
|
|
|
What are the side effects of prostaglandins?
|
diarrhea
abdominal cramps abortion |
|
|
Which receptors are involved in inhibiting GI motility?
|
opioid receptors
|
|
|
Which receptors are invovlved in increasing GI motility?
|
Serotonin---5 HT receptor
Antagonist---D2 receptor Ach--- M2 receptor Motilin---Motilin receptor |
|
|
What are the 6 types of prokinetic GI drugs?
|
cholinergic
adrenergic receptor antagonists Dopamine antagonists Serotonin agonists motilin agonists lidocaine |
|
|
Metaclopramide has secondary alpha 2 adrenergic antagonist qualities but mainly acts as what?
|
Dopamine antagonist
|
|
|
Metaclopramide crosses the blood brain barrier which leads to what possible side effects?
|
anxiety
depression dizziness excitement collapse |
|
|
Where is the action of Metaclopramide seen in the GI tract?
|
Promotes progressive motility from the esophagus to te proximal small intestine.
little activity in the large bowel |
|
|
This drug is a dopamine antagonist with no cholinergic activity and does not cross the blood brain barrier. However, it is used mostly to induce lactation in poorly lactating mares.
|
Domperidone
|
|
|
This drug is a motilin agonist and also an antibiotic. When used as a prokinetic, it is given at about 1/50 the antibiotic dose. What is it?
|
Erythromycin
|
|
|
Give some properties of Lidocaine as a prokinetic.
|
suppresses afferent pathways from peritoneum
induces analgesia and anti-inflammatory properties directly stimulates enteric smooth muscle rpidly metabolized in liver, must be given continuous IV drip |
|
|
What prokinetics would be used for POI with undetermined cause?
|
Metaclopramide
lidocaine erythromycin |
|
|
Which prokinetics are used for ileus potentiated or caused by endotoxemia?
|
alpha 2 antagonists
|
|
|
which prokinetic drugs would be used to treat large intestinal obstructions or stasis?
|
Naloxone, bethanacol, erythromycin, lidocaine
|
|
|
How is Bethanacol administered?
|
oral or sub Q
|
|
|
What receptor does Bethanacol stimulate?
|
M2 receptors in the GI tract. Stimulates parasympathetic activity.
|
|
|
What are the side effects of Bethanacol?
|
abdominal pain, salivation
|
|
|
How do glucocorticoids work as an anti-diarrhetic?
|
they enhance intestinal absorbtion or Na and water.
|
|
|
What is the most commonly used NSAID to treat diarrhea?
|
Bismuth subsalicylate
|
|
|
What are some common horse CNS diseases?
|
EPM, Viral encephalitidies, Leukoencephalomalacia, Cerebrospinal nematodiasis, Laryngeal hemiplegia, Botulism, tetanus, Degenerative encephalomyelopathy, Cauda equina neuritis, Cholesteatoma, Equine motor neuron disease, Equine Dysautonomia
|
|
|
What are the gross lesions found in EPM?
|
Yellow-brown assymetrical lesions in the brain and spinal cord
|
|
|
What is the etiology for EPM?
|
Sarcocystis neurona
|
|
|
What is the pathogenesis for EPM?
|
protozoan is ingested
phagocytized by macrophages hematogenous spread in monocytes to CNS |
|
|
What causes the injury in EPM?
|
Protozoan in neuron and endothelial cells
Degeneration by intracellular replication Inflammation associated with the rupture of cysts and release of parasite into neuropil |
|
|
What are the three major equine viral encephalitides?
|
Herpes virus encephalitis
Arbovirus encephalomyelitis West Nile encephalomyelitis |
|
|
What are the gross lesions associated with equine herpes virus encephalitis?
|
discoloration of brain and spinal cord
multifocal distribution hemorrage sudden onset |
|
|
What is the pathogenesis of Herpes virus encephalitis?
|
Hematogenous spred
virus infects endothelial cells thrombosis of small arteries and veins virus induced ischemic vasulitis |
|
|
This equine CNS disease has gross lesions of hemorrage in the gray matter and polioencephalomyelitis.
|
Arbovirus Encephalomyelitis
|
|
|
This virus is also called equine polioencephalomyelitis, eastern, western, venezuelan encephalitis
|
Arbovirus Encephalomyelitis
|
|
|
Describe the gross lesions of Leukoencephalomalacia including the usual location.
|
Liquifactive necrosis (malacia) of the white matter.
Lesions are usually located in the frontal and/or parietal lobes. |
|
|
Moldy corn poisoning is the common name for what disease?
|
leukoencephalomalacia
|
|
|
What is the etiology for leukoencephalomalacia in horses?
|
fusarium moniliforme toxin
Fumonisin B1 in moldy corn |
|
|
This equine CNS disease has focal or linear red tracts in neuropil.
|
Cerebrospinal nematodiasis
|
|
|
What is the etiology for Cerebrospinal nematodiasis?
|
Strongylus vulgaris
Strongylus equinus Seteria |
|
|
What are the signs for equine degenerative encephalomyelopathy?
|
symmetrical tetraparesis and ataxia
appear sometime after birth 6 and 12 months of age but less than 3 years |
|
|
What is the response to injury for Cauda Equina Neuritis?
|
Granulamatous inflammation in meninges
|
|
|
This is an incidental finding in older horses it consists of yellow/brown nodules in the choroid plexus.
|
Cholesteatoma
|
|
|
What is the etiology for cerebellar hypoplasia in ruminants?
|
Genetic
Viral- BVD/MD pestivirus Blue Tongue virus (orbivirus) |
|
|
What are the signs for ruminant Listeriosis?
|
Abnormal posture
circling blindness staggering ataxia |
|
|
Where in the CNS are the lesions for listeriosis?
|
Brainstem
|
|
|
What is the Etiology for listeriosis in ruminants?
|
Listeria monocytogenes
|
|
|
What is the pathogenesis for ruminant Listeriosis?
|
penetrate oral mucosa
local tissue necrosis retrograde axoplasmic tranport up cranial nerves to brain stem |
|
|
This is a disease of ruminants that presents with sudden onset of CNS signs with randomly distributed red foci in the brain and spinal cord.
|
TEME
Thrombotic Menigoencephalitis |
|
|
What is the etiology for TEME?
|
Hemophilus somnus
|
|
|
This is a disease of sheep that is associated with overeating and rapid replication of C.perfringens type D. These sheep present with sudden onset of CNS signs and turning of the head backward
|
Symmetrical Encephalomalacia
|
|
|
What are the gross lesions for spongiform polioencephalopathy?
|
usually none
could have loss of woll or excessive rubbing of the skin |
|
|
This disease presents in young goats, usually 2-4 months with depression, head tilt, torticollis, and circling.
|
Viral Leukoencephalomyelitis
|
|
|
What is the etiology for Viral Leukoencephalomyelitis?
|
C-type retrovirus
|
|
|
What are the three common CNS diseases in swine?
|
Pseudorabies
Salt poisoning edema disease |
|
|
In a very progressed case, pigs may present paddling with rolled back eyes, what disease is this?
|
Pseudorabies
|
|
|
What are the signs for Eosinophilic Meningoencephalitis?
|
Hyperirritability
blindness stumbling circling convulsions nervous derangement |
|
|
What is the fancy name for edema disease in pigs?
|
Cerebrospinal Angiopathy
|
|
|
This swine disease is usually associated with E. coli and pigs have signs of swollen eyelids.
|
Cerebrospinal Angiopathy
|
