2A851N Cdc Vol 2

Front 1

What structural areas allow maintenance personnel to inspect or service aircraft components?

Back 1

Doors

Front 2

Which major aircraft structural area provides support for the engines?

Back 2

Nacelles

Front 3

Which is not a major aircraft structural area?

Back 3

Wing carry-through

Front 4

What components guard against accidental firing of ejection seats?

Back 4

Safety pins

Front 5

How do independent positioning determine subsystems function?

Back 5

Independent of ground equipment

Front 6

Which is not an offensive avionics system?

Back 6

Built-in test system

Front 7

Which is not part of an engine indicating system?

Back 7

Water temperature

Front 8

What is normally considered a minimum safe distance from the inatke of an operating jet engine?

Back 8

25 feet to the front and sides

Front 9

When approaching overheated aircraft wheels, always approach the wheel

Back 9

from the front of or behind the wheel

Front 10

Initially what happens when RF energy is absorbed in the tissue of your body?

Back 10

Heat is produced

Front 11

What is the minimum safe distance from a UHF antenna when the associated transmitter is radiating power?

Back 11

1 foot

Front 12

The minimum safe distance from a HF antenna when the associated transmitter is radiating power is

Back 12

5 feet

Front 13

Which condition is not caused by overexposure to noise?

Back 13

Excessive energy

Front 14

The greatest noise levels around an operating jet aircraft engine is to the rear of the engine through an angle of

Back 14

45 degrees on either side

Front 15

Which physical symptom is least likely to indicate a person is suffering from overexposure to noise?

Back 15

unconsciousness

Front 16

Which is a condition that results from frequent exposure to small overdoses of noise?

Back 16

Permanent hearing loss

Front 17

Which is not an Air Force inspection concept?

Back 17

Preflight

Front 18

Which units fall under the programmed depot maintenance inspection concept?

Back 18

All units regardless of MAJCOM

Front 19

Which inspection is designed to detect defects that might have developed during ground operation of the aircraft?

Back 19

End-of-runway

Front 20

When is the thruflight inspection performed?

Back 20

Prior to takeoffs at intermediate stops

Front 21

Which inspection is more extensive than the hourly postflight or basic postflight inspections and covers certain parts, areas, and systems of the aircraft that require less frequent inspection?

Back 21

Periodic

Front 22

When the HSC inspection becomes due during a long-range mission, it is completed at the base

Back 22

to which the aircraft belongs

Front 23

Which inspection includes a review of the forms for current status, a visual inspection of equipment for defects, and adequate servicing?

Back 23

Operator inspection

Front 24

Malfunctions documented on an AFTO Form 244 are the responsibility of

Back 24

Aerospace ground equipment mechanics

Front 25

Part V of the AFTO Form 244 is used to document

Back 25

Maintenance/delayed sicrepancies

Front 26

The AFTO Form 781-series would not be used to document aircraft

Back 26

Component repair

Front 27

Except for battle damage, each discrepancy discovered is documented on the AFTO Form 781

Back 27

A

Front 28

At what point do you erase symbols you entered on the AFTO Form 781A?

Back 28

Never, even if you entered them in error

Front 29

Who ensures that the job control number is entered on the AFTO Form 781A?

Back 29

Technician

Front 30

Which information is required in the corrective action block of the AFTO Form 781A?

Back 30

Description of the corrective action

Front 31

Who is responsible for the validity and legibility of all COMSEC required entries?

Back 31

Comm/Nav technician

Front 32

Which AFTO form is used to document maintenance status and servicing information?

Back 32

781H

Front 33

Which AFTO form is used to document aerospace vehicle time and engine data including operating time?

Back 33

781J

Front 34

Which AFTO form allows you to record essential inspection and delayed maintenance data?

Back 34

781K

Front 35

Block C on the AFTO Form 781K is used to document

Back 35

Inspection items that require inspection/testing at a specified time/period

Front 36

To "flag" a condition on an aircraft that could cause damage or injury if ignored, used

Back 36

AF Form 1492

Front 37

What portion of the tag is used to provide a cross-check with the aircraft forms and is inserted through the aircraft forms binder?

Back 37

The bottom portion

Front 38

What helps to dissipate and lessen the effects of electrostatic discharges?

Back 38

Humid air

Front 39

An example of an ESDS device is a

Back 39

PROM

Front 40

What type of failure associated with ESD is the most difficult to detect?

Back 40

Latent or delayed

Front 41

Which is not a flight line precaution used to protect ESDS components?

Back 41

Using protective tote boxes

Front 42

When working on ESDS devices in the shop area, you must use

Back 42

a grounded workbench

Front 43

What type of ground do you need to provide for soldering irons in an ESD protected area?

Back 43

Hard

Front 44

Which action could pose a safety hazard to personnel in an ESD protected area?

Back 44

Use of ionizers

Front 45

Which type of cable carries RF power from one point to another with a known rate of loss?

Back 45

Coaxial

Front 46

Which is not a type of connector coupling?

Back 46

Insertion

Front 47

All of the following are RF connector precautions except

Back 47

ensure a good grip when using pliers

Front 48

Twisting an optic fiber during installation or maintenance results in

Back 48

reduced optical power transmission

Front 49

What is not an advantage of fiber optic cables over copper wire?

Back 49

Cost

Front 50

Optoelectronic transducer detectors perform what function in a fiber optic transmission?

Back 50

Converts optical energy to electrical energy

Front 51

Utilizing exact dimensions for strippng wire ensures

Back 51

proper connection

Front 52

Flux is designed to

Back 52

prevent oxygen from combining with metal

Front 53

Proper care of an electric soldering iron involves

Back 53

keeping iron in a proper holder when not using it

Front 54

Which is not a type of solderless connector?

Back 54

Connector splice

Front 55

What type of solderless connector permits easy and efficient connections to electrical equipment?

Back 55

Terminal lug

Front 56

One purpose of crimper positioners is to

Back 56

put pin contacts in the proper position

Front 57

The colored end of an insertion and extraction tool is used for contact

Back 57

insertion into a rear-release connector plug

Front 58

One way of pressure and moisture sealing the back of a connector is to use

Back 58

silicone tape

Front 59

The MIL-STD that governs heat tool operations in a potentially explosive enviornment is

Back 59

810

Front 60

The heat and air pressure required for proper installation of heat shrink products is controlled by the

Back 60

tool operator

Front 61

As a flight line technician, you can repair up to

Back 61

25 percent of the outer shield circumference of an EMP hardened cable

Front 62

Before performing any type of wire repair, you must consult the procedures in TO

Back 62

1-1A-14

Front 63

What precaution must you adhere to prior heat shrink to a wire repair job?

Back 63

Warnings concerning use of heat tools on aircraft

Front 64

What is the purpose of prewaxing cotton or linen tape when used for wire bundling?

Back 64

Promotes moisture and fungus resistance

Front 65

Which of the following is not considered a general precaution when lacing or tying wire groups or bundles?

Back 65

Tie all wire groups or bundles 12 inches or less apart

Front 66

The circuit used in an AM transmitter to bring the oscillator frequency up to the designed frequency required for carrier wave operation is

Back 66

a frequency multiplier

Front 67

To achieve AM, what device is used to ensure the output signal contains frequencies not present in the input signal?

Back 67

Non-linear amplifier

Front 68

The frequencies created by the heterodyning process in an AM transmitter modulator are the

Back 68

sum and difference

Front 69

Which is not a basic characteristic that can vary in a modulating wave or signal?

Back 69

Rate

Front 70

In an FM signal, the amount of frequency modulation is controlled by the modulating signal's

Back 70

amplitude

Front 71

In an FM transmitter, the frequency of the oscillator is controlled by the

Back 71

reactance modulator

Front 72

In an FM transmitter, which circuit detects the output frequency changes and produces an automatic frequency control correction voltage?

Back 72

Discriminator

Front 73

The low-pass filter in the automatic frequency control circuitry of a FM transmitter prevents

Back 73

correction voltage changes caused by the modulation signals

Front 74

Which is not an advantage of single sideband over double sideband?

Back 74

Frequency stability

Front 75

In a single sideband transmitter, frequency stability is controlled by

Back 75

Carefully controlled oscillators

Front 76

In single sideband transmitter, the balanced modulator's output consists of

Back 76

the upper and lower sidebands

Front 77

The single sideband transmitter circuit that increases the power output without introducing distortion is the

Back 77

linear power amplifier

Front 78

The ability of a radio receiver to select a particular station frequency from all other station frequencies that appear at the receiver antenna is called

Back 78

selection

Front 79

In a typical AM superheterodyne receiver, the process used to tune two or more circuits with a single control is called

Back 79

ganged tuning

Front 80

In a typical AM superheterodyne receiver, the heterodyning process produces four frequencies; they are the two basic input frequencies, their sum, and their difference. The difference frequency is known as the

Back 80

intermediate frequency

Front 81

The purpose of the limiter circuit in an FM receiver is to

Back 81

remove amplitude variation from the intermediate frequency signal

Front 82

FM modulation signals provide much more realistic sound reproduction than AM signals because

Back 82

of an increase in the number of sidebands

Front 83

The two advantages of using a single-sideband receiver over an AM receiver are the ability to place

Back 83

more signals in a small portion of the frequency spectrum and a narrower receiver bandpass

Front 84

The basic difference between the single-sideband receiver and a conventional superheterodyne reciever is that the single-sideband receiver uses a

Back 84

special detector and carrier reinsertion oscillator

Front 85

A major drawback in using a single-sideband receiver over an amplitude modulated receiver is the

Back 85

need for critical frequency stability

Front 86

A receiving radio antenna receives radio frequency signals by

Back 86

electromagnetic fields impressing a voltage across the antenna thus causing current to flow

Front 87

The ratio of the maximum radiation intensity of a given directional radio antenna to the radiation intensity of a nondirectional radio antenna using the same power input it known as antenna

Back 87

gain

Front 88

The radio frequency line that has uniform capacitance betweenthe conductors throughout the length of the line is the

Back 88

shielded pair

Front 89

When the impedance of a radio frequency transmission line and load do not math, the reflected wave and the applied wave are on the line at the same time and are creating a

Back 89

standing wave

Front 90

What type of radio frequency transmission line losses result from the skin effect?

Back 90

copper losses