2A651 Cdc Volume 5 Unit Reivew Questions

Front 1

(801) After reviewing the aircraft/engine forms, where should you begin troubleshooting?
a. Examine most complex unit.
b. Observe gauge indications.
c. Check each part of every system.
d. Discuss problem with other journeymen in the shop

Back 1

b. Observe gauge indications.

Front 2

(801) If you encounter engine trouble where more than one unit is at fault, you would first
a. go back and check engine forms again.
b. replace all the units suspected to be at fault.
c. try to repair the more complex unit on the spot.
d. examine the unit that requires the least amount of time to replace.

Back 2

d. examine the unit that requires the least amount of time to replace.

Front 3

(801) Aircraft power plant and engine intermediate maintenance technical orders (TO) contain
information on troubleshooting. This information is presented in the form of
a. troubleshooting charts.
b. mechanical drawings.
c. power plant charts.
d. fix-it diagrams.

Back 3

a. troubleshooting charts.

Front 4

(801) To become an expert troubleshooter, you must
a. be a 7-level.
b. have at least 5 years experience.
c. attend college courses in troubleshooting techniques.
d. understand the function of each unit within each system.

Back 4

d. understand the function of each unit within each system.

Front 5

(802) What system is used on most modern jet engines to gather and record engine data?
a. Engine start system (ESS).
b. Engine monitoring system (EMS).
c. Supervisory control system (SCS).
d. Supervisory monitoring system (SMS).

Back 5

b. Engine monitoring system (EMS).

Front 6

(802) The F100-PW–220 engine monitoring system component that acquires fault data from the
digital electronic engine control (DEEC) and logs the faults with the time of their occurrence is the
a. data collection unit (DCU).
b. ground station unit (GSU).
c. engine analyzer unit (EAU).
d. engine diagnostic unit (EDU).

Back 6

d. engine diagnostic unit (EDU).

Front 7

(802) Which component in F100-PW–220 engine monitoring system transfers information from
the engine diagnostic unit (EDU) to the ground station unit (GSU)?
a. Data collection unit (DCU).
b. Engine analyzer unit (EAU).
c. Mach number (Mn) test system.
d. Supervisory control system (SCS).

Back 7

a. Data collection unit (DCU).

Front 8

(802) If there’s a problem in the F100-PW–220 aircraft engine, the digital electronic engine control
(DEEC)
a. trips an engine no-go flag.
b. turns on cockpit lights to warn the pilot.
c. trips an engine monitoring unit (EMS) maintenance flag.
d. accommodates the fault and sends fault code to the engine diagnostic unit (EDU).

Back 8

d. accommodates the fault and sends fault code to the engine diagnostic unit (EDU).

Front 9

(803) To be considered effective tools for aviators, aircraft instruments must be light weight, easy
to read, and
a. small in size.
b. analog readout.
c. digital readout.
d. cheap to manufacture.

Back 9

a. small in size.

Front 10

(803) An understanding of the operating principles of engine instruments will help you decide
a. if an engine should be removed from an aircraft.
b. if the engine should be sent to the test cell.
c. the meanings of the instrument readings.
d. what tools are required for maintenance.

Back 10

c. the meanings of the instrument readings.

Front 11

(803) Most engine monitoring gauges and instruments require some type of
a. electrical valve to the indicator.
b. metal tubing for electron flow.
c. radio frequency transmitter.
d. transmitter and indicator.

Back 11

d. transmitter and indicator

Front 12

(804) Which jet engine temperature is not measured?
a. Exhaust gas.
b. Turbine inlet.
c. Combustion inlet.
d. Fan turbine inlet.

Back 12

c. Combustion inlet.

Front 13

(804) A typical jet engine exhaust gas temperature (EGT) indicating system contains
thermocouples, leads, an indicator, and
a. resistor.
b. turbine inlet.
c. control valve.
d. exhaust duct

Back 13

a. resistor

Front 14

(804) Which metals are used in the thermocouples of the exhaust gas temperature (EGT)
indicating system?
a. Steel and iron.
b. Steel and alumel.
c. Iron and chromel.
d. Alumel and chromel.

Back 14

d. Alumel and chromel.

Front 15

(805) The engine fuel-flow indicating system of most jet powered aircraft contains a fuel-flow
a. transmitter and a float valve.
b. control valve and a float valve.
c. transmitter and a fuel-flow indicator.
d. control valve and a fuel-flow transcriber.

Back 15

c. transmitter and a fuel-flow indicator

Front 16

(805) The fuel system component of a jet engine that operates by using a water wheel concept is
the fuel
a. flow indicator.
b. flow generator.
c. flow transmitter.
d. remaining counter.

Back 16

c. flow transmitter

Front 17

(806) Two units that work together to indicate the oil system is operating correctly are the oil
pressure
a. relief valve and indicator.
b. transmitter and indicator.
c. relief valve and transmitter.
d. synchronous unit and indicator.

Back 17

b. transmitter and indicator.

Front 18

(806) An oil pressure transmitter contains a mechanical section and
a. a hydraulic unit.
b. an electrical unit.
c. a pnuedraulic unit.
d. a synchronous unit.

Back 18

d. a synchronous unit

Front 19

(806) The oil pressure indicator receives an electrical signal from the
a. gyro.
b. transmitter.
c. hydraulic unit.
d. synchronous unit.

Back 19

b. transmitter.

Front 20

(807) The two primary units of the tachometer indicating system are the tachometer generator and
tachometer
a. indicator.
b. fuse panel.
c. transformer.
d. thermocouple.

Back 20

a. indicator.

Front 21

(807) The tachometer indicator is
a. a mechanical magnetic-drag-type instrument.
b. an electric magnetic-drag-type instrument.
c. a mechanical direct-drive-type instrument.
d. an electric direct-drive type instrument.

Back 21

b. an electric magnetic-drag-type instrument.

Front 22

(807) The frequency of the tachometer generator is proportional to the
a. engine speed.
b. transformer speed.
c. speed of the electrical magnet.
d. speed of the alternating magnet

Back 22

a. engine speed.

Front 23

(808) On engines with afterburners, the position of the exhaust nozzle is converted into an
electrical signal by a
a. rheostat.
b. rectifier.
c. transducer.
d. transformer.

Back 23

c. transducer

Front 24

(809) During an operational check of the fire warning system, you press
a. only the TEST switch.
b. both TEST and NORMAL switches.
c. only the TEST WARNING ON switch.
d. both TEST ON and TEST OFF switches

Back 24

a. only the TEST switch

Front 25

(810) What is used to indicate the amount of thrust a dual-compressor engine is producing?
a. Engine pressure ratio (EPR).
b. Revolutions per minute (rpm).
c. Exhaust gas temperature (EGT).
d. Turbine inlet temperature (***).

Back 25

a. Engine pressure ratio (EPR).

Front 26

(810) The term Pt2 means the
a. total (t) pressure (P) at flange 2 (2).
b. total (t) pressure (P) at station 2 (2).
c. temperature (t) and pressure (P) at flange 2 (2).
d. temperature (t) and pressure (P) at station 2 (2).

Back 26

b. total (t) pressure (P) at station 2 (2).

Front 27

(810) The pressures used in the operation of the engine pressure ratio (EPR) system are the
a. engine inlet total pressure and exhaust total pressure.
b. exhaust total pressure and turbine inlet total pressure.
c. inlet total pressure and compressor discharge total pressure.
d. compressor discharge total pressure and turbine inlet total pressure.

Back 27

a. engine inlet total pressure and exhaust total pressure.

Front 28

(810) Inlet pressure (Pt2) is transmitted from its sensing point
a. electrically.
b. mechanically.
c. hydraulically.
d. through tubing.

Back 28

d. through tubing.

Front 29

(811) While testing an engine on an engine test cell, a breather pressure gauge displaying
excessively high breather pressure is usually an indication of
a. a maladjusted engine pressure ratio system.
b. the oil system being underserviced.
c. damage to engine bearing oil seals.
d. low oil pressure.

Back 29

c. damage to engine bearing oil seals.

Front 30

(811) The direct oil pressure gauge on a test cell is connected to an engine oil pressure line to
indicate oil pressure without using wiring, indicator, or
a. aircraft transformer.
b. engine transformer.
c. aircraft transmitter.
d. engine transmitter.

Back 30

c. aircraft transmitter.

Front 31

31. (811) The test cell exhaust gas temperature (EGT) selector allows selection of
a. the EGT parameter for transit speeds.
b. accuracy check switch during adjustment.
c. the EGT indicator to be read in digital or analog.
d. individual thermocouple inputs or an average of these inputs.

Back 31

d. individual thermocouple inputs or an average of these inputs.

Front 32

(811) The test cell fuel-flow rate indicator automatically controls the solenoid valves in the fuel
module in order to divert fuel flow through the
a. fuel control.
b. flow turbines.
c. fuel-oil coolers.
d. flow cascades.

Back 32

b. flow turbines

Front 33

(811) When properly adjusted, the accuracy of the test cell N1 and N2 speed indicator in
revolutions per minute (rpm) will be within
a. 1 rpm.
b. 2 rpm.
c. 3 rpm.
d. 4 rpm.

Back 33

b. 2 rpm.

Front 34

(811) The test cell integrated circuit (IC) temperature indicator displays temperatures in degrees
Fahrenheit, with a range of
a. –100 to +1,000.
b. –75 to +1,400.
c. –50 to +1,600.
d. –25 to +1,800.

Back 34

c. –50 to +1,600.

Front 35

(812) What type of vibration causes unnecessary engine removals and unwarranted repairs?
a. Forced.
b. Transient.
c. Unbalanced.
d. Externally excited.

Back 35

d. Externally excited.

Front 36

(812) What kind of engine vibration does not persist, but comes and goes?
a. Forced.
b. Transient.
c. Resonance.
d. Externally excited.

Back 36

b. Transient.

Front 37

(812) During vibration analysis, frequency is usually measured in
a. mils.
b. phase lags.
c. cycles per second.
d. phases per second.

Back 37

c. cycles per second

Front 38

(812) During vibration analysis, amplitude is measured in mils. One mil is equal to
a. 1.000 inch.
b. 0.100 inch.
c. 0.010 inch.
d. 0.001 inch.

Back 38

d. 0.001 inch.

Front 39

(813) The two types of transducers used to measure vibration are
a. velocity and phase accelerometer.
b. velocity and displacement accelerometer.
c. piezoelectric accelerometer and velocity.
d. piezoelectric accelerometer and phase lag transducer.

Back 39

c. piezoelectric accelerometer and velocity.

Front 40

(813) Which type of vibration transducer is made up of certain ceramic compounds and natural
crystals?
a. Velocity.
b. Phase log.
c. Displacement accelerometer.
d. Piezoelectric accelerometer.

Back 40

d. Piezoelectric accelerometer.

Front 41

(813) To find the instructions for installing vibration pickups at the test cell, you should check the
a. test cell technical order.
b. intermediate maintenance manual.
c. organizational maintenance manual.
d. methods and procedures maintenance manual.

Back 41

b. intermediate maintenance manual.

Front 42

(814) When you are using a vibration analyzer, you will be notified when a preset signal has been
exceeded by
a. a horn alarm.
b. flashing red lights.
c. the sound of a buzzer.
d. flashing channel indicator light emitting diode (LED).

Back 42

d. flashing channel indicator light emitting diode (LED).

Front 43

(814) The filter selector switch on the vibration analyzer is used to
a. provide an exact revolutions per minute (rpm) indication.
b. indicate the amplitude of the overall vibration.
c. display the frequency of the overall engine.
d. allow selection of the necessary filter.

Back 43

d. allow selection of the necessary filter.

Front 44

(815) What are used to support the fan and low-pressure turbine?
a. Bushings.
b. Brackets.
c. Bearings.
d. Blades.

Back 44

c. Bearings.

Front 45

(815) What procedure is used to ensure the fan and low-pressure turbine are correctly balanced?
a. Engine trim.
b. Fan rotor trim balance.
c. Low-pressure turbine rotor trim balance.
d. High-pressure turbine rotor trim balance.

Back 45

b. Fan rotor trim balance.

Front 46

(816) When operating an engine that is installed on aircraft, position the aircraft so the wind is
blowing
a. at an unnoticeable level.
b. directly into the inlet, within 45.
c. at a 90 angle to the engine exhaust.
d. directly into the exhaust, within 45.

Back 46

b. directly into the inlet, within 45.

Front 47

(816) The term trim means to adjust the engine systems for optimum performance per the limits in
the technical order (TO). The two methods used to trim an engine are
a. hydraulic and mechanical.
b. hydraulic and electronic.
c. manual and mechanical.
d. manual and electronic.

Back 47

d. manual and electronic.

Front 48

(817) When checking the turbine section, you do not measure
a. fan turbine inlet temperature (FTIT).
b. turbine inlet temperature (***).
c. exhaust gas temperature (EGT).
d. intake gas temperature (IGT).

Back 48

d. intake gas temperature (IGT).

Front 49

(818) Prior to starting the engine when doing an anti-ice valve operational check on an F–16C/D,
place the anti-ice engine switch to
a. ON.
b. OFF.
c. START.
d. MANUAL.

Back 49

b. OFF.

Front 50

(818) Which F–16 operational check allows you to start the jet fuel starter (JFS) without
advancing the throttle to idle or supplying fuel to the aircraft engine?
a. Interface operational.
b. Bleed schedule.
c. Dry motoring.
d. Wet motoring.

Back 50

c. Dry motoring.

Front 51

(819) Where are the primary silencers positioned on an aircraft noise suppressor?
a. Near the bleed area.
b. To the rear exhaust area.
c. Against the aircraft fuselage.
d. Forward of the bleed exhaust area

Back 51

c. Against the aircraft fuselage.

Front 52

(819) The shutdown procedure for the aircraft noise suppressor is important because it
a. prevents damage to the aircraft inlet.
b. prevents damage to the engine turbine wheels.
c. ensures the noise suppressor will be operational for the next aircraft.
d. ensures that the noise suppressor is not damaged by improper engine shutdown procedures

Back 52

c. ensures the noise suppressor will be operational for the next aircraft.

Front 53

(820) What forms the sidewalls of the test bay portion of a hush house?
a. Air inlet modules.
b. Observation ports.
c. Air exhaust modules.
d. High-grade steel panels

Back 53

a. Air inlet modules.

Front 54

(820) The hush house exhaust deflector is constructed of
a. flexible soft metal filled with noise reduction material.
b. cylinder-type tubing filled with noise reduction material.
c. small panel modules filled with noise reduction material.
d. panels and air cooling ports filled with noise reduction material

Back 54

c. small panel modules filled with noise reduction material.

Front 55

(821) Before moving an aircraft into the hush house, you must inspect the aircraft
a. red streamers.
b. and its forms.
c. flight station.
d. forms.

Back 55

b. and its forms.

Front 56

(821) What hush house feature allows for flexibility when you are running an engine that has been
removed from the airframe?
a. Tailhook connects to the engine.
b. Wheel chocks restrain the engine.
c. The thrust stand slides into position on tracks.
d. Engines are run while on the ALC 3000 trailer.

Back 56

c. The thrust stand slides into position on tracks.

Front 57

(821) After running an engine in augmentation in the hush house, the augmentor tube is cooled by
running the engine at idle for a period of
a. 1 minute.
b. 3 minutes.
c. 6 minutes.
d. 9 minutes.

Back 57

b. 3 minutes.

Front 58

(822) In addition to determining the condition of a repaired or overhauled engine, you also test
engines
a. for training practice.
b. in aircraft that have been washed.
c. that have been involved in an incident or a mishap.
d. that have severe foreign object damage (FOD) damage.

Back 58

c. that have been involved in an incident or a mishap.

Front 59

(822) When testing a TF34 engine at test cell, which test is performed to ensure all operating
limits and schedules from idle to maximum power are within limits?
a. Break-in run.
b. Transient check.
c. Vibration survey.
d. Max power engine trim

Back 59

b. Transient check.

Front 60

(822) Which testing engine is equipped with a quick engine change (QEC) kit?
a. TF39–1C.
b. F110-GE–129.
c. F100-PW–220.
d. F100-PW–229

Back 60

a. TF39–1C.

Front 61

(823) A portable test cell is not equipped with a
a. control cab.
b. thrust trailer.
c. miscellaneous equipment kit.
d. hydraulically operated pylon mount cradle.

Back 61

d. hydraulically operated pylon mount cradle.

Front 62

(823) Which test cell noise suppressors use water to cool the exhaust gases?
a. Fixed.
b. Portable.
c. Both fixed and portable.
d. None

Back 62

c. Both fixed and portable.

Front 63

(824) In a fixed test cell, the test bay access doors are sealed to
a. control dirt and dust in the test bay.
b. control unauthorized entry during a test run.
c. prevent unwanted noise from getting into the control room.
d. prevent carbon monoxide from getting into the control room.

Back 63

c. prevent unwanted noise from getting into the control room.

Front 64

(824) Engines are mounted in the fixed test cell on a thrust stand or are suspended
a. by cargo straps.
b. from a cradle mount.
c. by a tailhook adapter.
d. on the model 4100 trailer

Back 64

b. from a cradle mount.

Front 65

(824) In the fixed test cell, air for the engine intake comes through baffles located on the
a. floor.
b. ceiling.
c. side walls.
d. front doors.

Back 65

b. ceiling.

Front 66

(825) On the portable test cell, the swivel pads at the bottom of the leveling jacks on the engine
thrust trailer provide for all of the following except
a. leveling the engine being tested.
b. removal of the wheel and tire assemblies.
c. support the thrust trailer at a high of 80 inches.
d. adjustment for rail compatibility with engine transportation trailers.

Back 66

c. support the thrust trailer at a high of 80 inches.

Front 67

(825) The vibration pickups on the portable test cell are cooled by the
a. engine oil.
b. atmosphere.
c. hydraulic fluid.
d. pneumatic system.

Back 67

d. pneumatic system.

Front 68

(825) The noise suppressor at a portable test cell is not equipped with
a. a fuel trailer.
b. an exhaust muffler.
c. two air intake mufflers.
d. a water tank semitrailer.

Back 68

a. a fuel trailer.

Front 69

(826) Before operating an engine at the test cell, you must always check its status as indicated on the
a. crew chief’s log book of maintenance performed.
b. maintenance log book.
c. engine forms.
d. aircraft forms.

Back 69

c. engine forms

Front 70

(826) Immediately prior to an engine test cell run, you should check the engine and quick engine
change (QEC) kit (if applicable) for loose nuts, bolts, lock wire, tools, or any other material in
order to help
a. eliminate items that could possibly cause foreign object damage (FOD).
b. assure that the instrumentation is working properly.
c. prevent wasted maintenance hours due to shutdown.
d. eliminate items that could cause inaccurate readings.

Back 70

a. eliminate items that could possibly cause foreign object damage (FOD).

Front 71

(826) Which of these is not considered a cause of foreign object damage (FOD)?
a. Ingestion of bolts.
b. Formation of ice.
c. Ingestion of rocks.
d. Failure of internal parts.

Back 71

d. Failure of internal parts.

Front 72

(826) Which engine area should be checked for foreign object damage (FOD) prior to operation
on the test cell facility?
a. Fuel control.
b. Turbine area.
c. Inlet to the oil pump.
d. Inlet to the fuel pump.

Back 72

b. Turbine area.

Front 73

(826) Prior to conducting a test cell run, you must determine the specific engine’s correct type and
grade of oil used, which can be found in the
a. test cell oil formulas.
b. base engine manager’s office.
c. applicable engine publications.
d. periodic checklist for the engine.

Back 73

c. applicable engine publications.

Front 74

(826) In what step of a test cell leak check do you accomplish a final check for leaks?
a. Start-up.
b. Starter motoring.
c. During engine coast down.
d. During fuel-flow indication.

Back 74

c. During engine coast down.

Front 75

(827) When making general entries on the test cell engine log sheet, what should you do with the
engine model and serial number?
a. Type these items.
b. Check past records.
c. Enter these only after test is complete.
d. Verify these numbers on the engine data plate.

Back 75

d. Verify these numbers on the engine data plate.

Front 76

(827) During a test cell run, if you observe oil on the turbine wheel or oil smoke at or near the
turbine section, this is a good indication of
a. a damaged aft bearing oil seal.
b. an underserviced oil system.
c. leaking external oil lines.
d. a loose aft roller bearing.

Back 76

a. a damaged aft bearing oil seal.

Front 77

(827) If an engine stalls or surges during a test cell run, you should investigate the
a. ignition exciter.
b. oil pressure pump.
c. thrust reverser pump.
d. variable stator vanes.

Back 77

d. variable stator vanes.

Front 78

(828) Responsibility for the proper preventive maintenance of a test cell facility rests with the
a. individuals assigned.
b. civil engineer squadron.
c. equipment maintenance squadron.
d. aerospace ground equipment (AGE) flight.

Back 78

a. individuals assigned.

Front 79

(828) What information is used as an aid in test facility inspections?
a. Test cell run procedures.
b. Unit serial number listings.
c. Periodic inspection checklists.
d. Monthly requirements listings.

Back 79

c. Periodic inspection checklists.

Front 80

(828) How often are service inspections conducted on the test cell?
a. Daily.
b. Hourly.
c. Weekly.
d. Monthly.

Back 80

a. Daily.

Front 81

(829) Primary aids that outline minimum inspection requirements are called
a. sequence charts.
b. inspection checklists.
c. inspection work cards.
d. work schedule guides.

Back 81

c. inspection work cards.

Front 82

(829) Which one is not an inspection phase?
a. Fix.
b. Look.
c. Preinspection.
d. Home station check (HSC).

Back 82

d. Home station check (HSC).

Front 83

(829) During what inspection phase are operational checks made according to the technical order
(TO)?
a. Fix.
b. Look.
c. Preinspection.
d. Post-inspection.

Back 83

d. Post-inspection.

Front 84

(830) Which one of these inspections is a flight preparedness check?
a. Periodic.
b. Preflight.
c. Thruflight.
d. End-of-runway.

Back 84

b. Preflight.

Front 85

(831) Which inspection is a combination of the basic post-flight (BPO)/hourly post-flight and
periodic inspection (PE) requirements?
a. Minor.
b. Major.
c. Phased.
d. Periodic.

Back 85

c. Phased.

Front 86

(832) The home station check (HSC) inspection is a combination of the basic post-flight (BPO)
and
a. thruflight.
b. phased items.
c. periodic items.
d. hourly post-flight items

Back 86

d. hourly post-flight items.

Front 87

(833) Which inspection is conducted by maintenance personnel after an occurrence of a specific
or unusual condition?
a. Special.
b. Calendar.
c. Acceptance.
d. Time replacement item.

Back 87

b. Calendar.

Front 88

(834) A cold compressor stall that occurs at low revolutions per minute (rpm) and is accompanied
by a slight over temperature is called
a. an incipient.
b. a thermal.
c. a partial.
d. a mild.

Back 88

a. an incipient.

Front 89

(834) Which symptom is not an indication of a compressor stall?
a. Loss of thrust.
b. Fluctuating fuel flow.
c. Drop in exhaust gas temperature.
d. Failure of a revolutions per minute (rpm) increase with throttle advance.

Back 89

c. Drop in exhaust gas temperature.

Front 90

(834) Careless operation of the throttle during emergency system operation could cause a
compressor stall due to
a. a restricted air inlet.
b. rapid throttle movement.
c. a restricted turbine nozzle.
d. malfunctioning variable geometry system.

Back 90

b. rapid throttle movement.

Front 91

(834) Compressor section failure from a chain reaction due to blade-to-blade and blade-to-vane
interference is known as
a. circumferential force.
b. centrifugal force.
c. centripetal force.
d. centrifuge force.

Back 91

a. circumferential force.

Front 92

(834) What is the probable cause of compressor rotor shift?
a. Rotor out of round.
b. Roller bearing failure.
c. Thrust bearing failure.
d. Incipient compressor stall.

Back 92

c. Thrust bearing failure.

Front 93

(835) Turbine blade fatigue failure does not result from
a. nicks.
b. dents.
c. blends.
d. scratches.

Back 93

c. blends.

Front 94

(836) Which characteristic is the most common cause of bearing failure?
a. Transient vibration.
b. Partial loss of lubrication.
c. Complete loss of lubrication.
d. Stall condition over temperature.

Back 94

c. Complete loss of lubrication

Front 95

(836) Bearing failure from moisture, lack of protective oils, improper handling, or prolonged
improper storage could cause
a. corrosion pitting.
b. fatigue pitting.
c. brinelling.
d. skidding.

Back 95

a. corrosion pitting.