Reading...
Play button
Play button
Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;
Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;
H to show hint;
A reads text to speech;
319 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
|
which squadrons form a maintenance group?
|
1.Maintenance ops 2.Maintenance
3.aircraft maintenance 4.Quality assurance |
|
|
QA recomends possible corrective actions to which level?
|
Supervisors.
|
|
|
Who monitors flying and maintenance schedules, and maintains visibility of fleet health
indicators? |
Maintenance operations center
|
|
|
When you are assigned to an aircraft maintenance squadron as an engine troop, to what flight will you most likely be assigned?
|
Specialist.
|
|
|
What type of training is provided to help you learn the knowledge portion of your job?
|
Career development course
|
|
|
You may attend the ALS after having how many months in the Air Force
|
48
|
|
|
Which program’s purpose is to ensure safe and healthy working conditions for all Air Force employees?
|
AFOSH.
|
|
|
Occupational health is regulated by Air Force series
|
91
|
|
|
Which Air Force instruction defines quality maintenance and requires maintenance personnel
to display integrity and comply with all written guidance? |
21–101
|
|
|
Prior to starting any maintenance on the aircraft, what can you do to ensure that it is safe to
proceed? |
Check with other personnel working inside or outside the aircraft
|
|
|
How far does a propeller’s axis of rotation extend
|
10 feet to the front and 5 feet from the rear
|
|
|
To avoid the engine exhaust blast, what is the minimum distance in feet to the rear of the aircraft?
|
200
|
|
|
FOD is normally caused by
|
people
|
|
|
Who has overall responsibility for the FOD program
|
Maintenance group commander
|
|
|
During flightline and test cell operations, you may be exposed to
|
carbon monoxide.
|
|
|
Toxic materials are easiest to get into the body and cause rapid toxic reactions when they
are in the form of |
gases
|
|
|
Who is responsible for providing you with training on how to wear, use, and maintain
personal protective equipment? |
Supervisor.
|
|
|
Hazardous waste storage areas must prevent
|
unauthorized entry
|
|
|
A common method for disposing of hazardous wasted is
|
dilution
|
|
|
For hazardous waste disposal, it is unlikely the Air Force can justify
|
incineration
|
|
|
A specialized function of the supply mission is
|
disposal
|
|
|
From what perspective does the RSS manage supply?
|
Weapons system
|
|
|
Which Base Supply function manages the repair cycle system?
|
Standard Base Supply System
|
|
|
Selected equipment items, when returned to depot because of their design characteristics
function or application, are predetermined to require |
overhaul
|
|
|
Which supply document provides a means for organizations to review all document
numbers processed during the day by the SBSS |
Daily Document Register (D04).
|
|
|
Base Supply must deliver numerous parts to numerous organizations on a prioritized basis
because of what difference in each organization? |
Mission.
|
|
|
What does a completed AFTO Form 350 serve to identify?
|
Origin of an item
|
|
|
Which provides a block-by-block explanation of how to document the AFTO Form 350
tag? |
TO 00–20–2
|
|
|
If you are TDY and IMDS and SBSS are not available, what form would you use to order
an engine part? |
AF IMT 2005
|
|
|
If you need detailed information concerning the AF IMT 2005 codes and entries, refer to
AFMAN |
23–110
|
|
|
Which form is attached to items that are awaiting parts or maintenance
|
DD Form 1575
|
|
|
Which item is one that a storage time period must be assigned to ensure that it will perform
satisfactorily over a specified period of time? |
Shelf-life
|
|
|
When a bench stock item has a type I shelf-life, it means the item
|
has a definite non-extendible period of shelf-life.
|
|
|
A Category I DR is used to report a deficiency
|
that, if uncorrected, will cause major loss or damage to equipment or a system
|
|
|
Within how many hours must Category I DR be forwarded to the screening point
|
24
|
|
|
Which type of items must be reflected on the CA/CRL?
|
Equipment Authorization Inventory Data
|
|
|
To become an equipment custodian, you must be appointed by the
|
commander
|
|
|
The first part of a TO number identifies the
|
category and type of equipment in the TO.
|
|
|
The second part of a TO number gives the
|
model and series for equipment type in the TO
|
|
|
In which type of TO would you find a list of TOs for a specific category of equipment
|
Index
|
|
|
Which type of technical manual is divided into tasks that cover a particular maintenance
action? |
Job guide
|
|
|
Which type of additional data is not provided in interactive electronic technical manuals
(IETMS)? |
Urgent recommendations
|
|
|
What section of the IPB contains an explanation of the coding used in the IPB
|
Introduction.
|
|
|
What category of TCTO is issued to correct unsafe conditions that can result in a fatality or
serious injury to personnel? |
Immediate action
|
|
|
Which TO covers information concerning the Air Force TO system?
|
00–5–1.
|
|
|
How can you tell when the text or a picture in a TO has been changed?
|
A bold vertical black line alongside the affected text or picture
|
|
|
An AFTO IMT 22 is not submitted for
|
preliminary TOs
|
|
|
Who makes sure the AFTO IMT 22 is valid and warrants submission?
|
Supervisor of initiator
|
|
|
Which AFTO IMT 22 recommendation would you submit which, if not corrected, could
cause personnel injury or damage to equipment or property? |
Urgent
|
|
|
What are the two classifications of failures in RCM?
|
Potential and functional
|
|
|
In RCM, which preventative maintenance task is a scheduled inspection to detect a potential
failure condition |
On condition.
|
|
|
The primary goal of the ET&D program is to prevent or limit damage to turbine engines by
|
early detection of performance degradation and/or failures
|
|
|
Within the ET&D program, to whom do flightline personnel transfer collected data for
analysis? |
Base engine maintenance shop.
|
|
|
Which technicians provide maintenance activity data to the ET&D program?
|
Propulsion and nondestructive inspection
|
|
|
What drives the creation of a CRP?
|
Customer wait time and transportation constraints
|
|
|
Who maintains accountability of CIRF assets and reports their status?
|
Production supervisor
|
|
|
When a CIRF ships a replacement asset to a deployed unit, who is responsible for ensuring
all appropriate documentation is completed |
CIRF personnel.
|
|
|
What supports base-level technicians by providing technical assistance and performing any
repairs beyond their responsibility/capability |
Depot maintenance
|
|
|
Depot maintenance support base-level technicians by
|
providing technical assistance and performing repairs beyond their capability
|
|
|
Depot level support includes CLSS crews, depot maintenance support, maintenance
assistance, and |
field teams
|
|
|
A primary objective of the engine reporting system is to
|
maintain accurate and timely engine inventories
|
|
|
The key to making the CEMS work is
|
accurate and timely data at the lowest level.
|
|
|
For how many categories of reporting does the CEMS establish and maintain records
|
2
|
|
|
You should record the removal and replacement of engine accessories on which one of the
following AFTO Forms? |
95
|
|
|
To document information concerning the status of engine TCTO, use AFTO Form
|
95
|
|
|
What is the purpose of the Lead the Fleet/Pacer programs?
|
Determine distress modes of an engine and its subsystems in the field
|
|
|
Which is not a Lead the Fleet/Pacer program objective
|
Reducing customer wait time for serviceable assets
|
|
|
How many years ahead should participating units accelerate engines, modules, and
accessories? |
2
|
|
|
Carrying a hand tool in your pocket is potentially hazardous because it could cause
|
injury to you.
|
|
|
What would you use to hold your tools when you cannot locate your toolbox within arm’s
reach? |
Toolbag
|
|
|
If you must torque a sequence of three or more bolts,
|
use a staggered sequence
|
|
|
The length of a torque extension is determined by the distance between the center of the
square drive and the center of the |
broached opening
|
|
|
What type of rule should you use for measuring an inside diameter?
|
Slide caliper.
|
|
|
Micrometers are generally used to make measurements to an accuracy of
|
one ten-thousandth of an inch
|
|
|
The longest calibrated movement between the spindle and anvil of an outside micrometer is
|
1 inch
|
|
|
You adjust a micrometer by turning the
|
thimble
|
|
|
The vernier scale on a micrometer is used to read measurements in
|
ten-thousandths of an inch
|
|
|
Where is the contact point on a dial indicator located?
|
At the end of a pivoted lever.
|
|
|
What feature is common to all dial indicators
|
Ability to amplify movement greatly
|
|
|
To avoid rust, measuring tools should never be stored where the relative humidity exceeds
what percentage? |
50
|
|
|
What should you use for cleaning measuring tools?
|
Dry-cleaning solvent
|
|
|
The Fluke 8025A multimeter control that is used to set the meter to check for AC and DC is the
|
function selector
|
|
|
How many range settings does the Fluke 8025A multimeter have?
|
4
|
|
|
What is the maximum voltage that can be measured if the range button is set at 30 on the
Fluke 8025A multimeter |
32
|
|
|
What is the purpose of a borescope inspection on an engine?
|
Visually inspect internal cavities
|
|
|
Light is transmitted to the tip of a borescope by
|
the fiber optics.
|
|
|
What are the type(s) of view(s) available with the rigid borescope?
|
Direct and lateral.
|
|
|
When operating a borescope, what part of the borescope illuminates the interior of the area
you are inspecting |
Distal tip light guides
|
|
|
The type of borescope that uses miniature TV camera images is a
|
videoimagescope.
|
|
|
Which factor is not considered for borescope operator certification?
|
Age
|
|
|
Proper bolt length allows a minimum of how many threads protruding the nut?
|
2
|
|
|
The grip length of a bolt should be a few thousandths of an inch shorter than the material it is holding to
|
avoid bottoming out the nut
|
|
|
What type of bolt is used primarily in high-tension applications
|
Internal wrenching
|
|
|
Which nuts should never be used in areas where the temperature exceeds 250°F?
|
Nonmetallic self-locking nuts
|
|
|
How is a screw length measured
|
Top of the head to the bottom of the screw threads
|
|
|
When installing a self-taping screw, the hole must be
|
slightly smaller than the screw.
|
|
|
What type of washer is used to prevent corrosion of dissimilar metals
|
Plain
|
|
|
To prevent damage to the soft metal surfaces and a lock washer is required, what should you use?
|
Plain washer underneath the lock washer
|
|
|
What type of pin is used in joints that carry shear loads and where the absence of clearance is essential?
|
Tapered
|
|
|
When lockwiring, how many twists per inch are required to produce the proper stiffness?
|
8 to 10
|
|
|
Copper tubing is not used on jet engines because it
|
has a high-fatigue factor
|
|
|
You can identify the various system lines used to transfer fluids and gases on jet engines
by |
the coded bands of colored tape placed around the tubing or hoses.
|
|
|
What numerical value is given to a fitting used on tubing that measures 3/8 inch?
|
6
|
|
|
Why should dust caps be installed over tube ends rather than inside them?
|
Avoids possibility of leaving caps installed
|
|
|
For a straight piece of tubing to remain serviceable, a dent must be less than what
percentage of the tubing diameter |
20
|
|
|
What type of hoses should you never use oil as an aid to installing?
|
Self-sealing
|
|
|
When you receive an engine in your shop, you should check the applicable forms and then
|
check the compressor inlet
|
|
|
Operating procedures and practices that, if not strictly observed, may result in damage to
equipment are shown in the maintenance manuals in the form of |
cautions
|
|
|
Preservation of a component being shipped is required when it is being returned to depot
or stored for more than how many days? |
30
|
|
|
The shroud-type cover consists of a buildup of how many layers of wrap?
|
3
|
|
|
Which TO covers the disposition of engines removed from aircraft involved in mishaps?
|
2J–1–19.
|
|
|
Which container does not require warehouse facilities?
|
Fiberglass reinforced plastic
|
|
|
To release the internal air pressure in a shipping container/module, you must remove the
|
filler valve on the front of the container
|
|
|
When removing the shipping container lid from the shipping container, how much are the
turnlock fasteners turned? |
1/4 turn
|
|
|
To determine whether an engine stored in a shipping container is serviceable or repairable,
look on the |
top half on the right panel of the container
|
|
|
Prior to removing a shipping container lid, what warning must be observed?
|
Release all pressure before removing lid.
|
|
|
How many pins secure the adapters to the shipping container support
|
4
|
|
|
Engines inactive for over 180 days must have what accomplished?
|
Preservation run and fuel system preservation.
|
|
|
To prepare the engine fuel system for service after depreservation, you must flush the
system with |
fuel.
|
|
|
When metal is attacked by chemical corrosion, it will start
|
on the surface of the metal
|
|
|
What is used to help remove moisture from an area where engines are stored?
|
Desiccants
|
|
|
On the personnel maintenance platforms, the purpose of the platform safety lockpins is to
|
prevent the platform from lowering while it is in use
|
|
|
Which maintenance platform can be adjusted from 3 to 7 feet?
|
B–4.
|
|
|
What information is found in Part I of an AFTO Form 244?
|
Item identification.
|
|
|
“An unbalanced force on a body produces or tends to produce an acceleration in the direction
of the force and that the acceleration, if any, is directly proportional to the force and inversely proportional to the mass of the body.” This statement is |
Newton’s second law of motion
|
|
|
Which type of duct would decrease the velocity and increase the pressure of a gas as it passes
through? |
Divergent.
|
|
|
The combination of decreased pressure above an airfoil, and the increased pressure below
the airfoil produces lift” is best described by |
Bernoulli’s principle.
|
|
|
The tendency of an object at rest to remain at rest and the tendency of an object in motion to
continue its motion in a straight line at the same speed is called |
inertia
|
|
|
Which section of a jet engine introduces and burns fuel?
|
Combustion
|
|
|
Which section of a jet engine keeps the compressor rotating?
|
Turbine.
|
|
|
Which method of producing thrust does a turboprop engine use?
|
Accelerating a large mass of air by a small amount.
|
|
|
Which type of horsepower is delivered to the propeller for useful work?
|
Brake
|
|
|
The heat content per pound of kerosene is how many Btu’s
|
18,500.
|
|
|
To measure barometric pressure, you would use a
|
barometer.
|
|
|
What is the sea-level atmospheric pressure at “standard day” conditions?
|
14.7 psi.
|
|
|
What effect does the divergent design of a diffuser have on air pressure?
|
Decreases pressure.
|
|
|
Which engine component meters fuel for combustion?
|
Fuel control
|
|
|
What directs the gases onto the first-stage turbine wheel blades in a jet engine?
|
Turbine stator
|
|
|
When two or more turbine wheels are used in a jet engine, which component is placed directly in front of each turbine wheel?
|
Turbine stator (nozzle diaphragm).
|
|
|
The three major sections of all jet engines are compressor, combustion, and
|
turbine
|
|
|
Vane-type fuel pumps used in jet engines are similar to
|
sliding-vane air compressors
|
|
|
The two forces that air is subjected to after it is drawn into the guide vanes of a centrifugal compressor are
|
rotational and centrifugal
|
|
|
A constructional feature of the centrifugal compressor is that the impeller
|
is forged as a single unit
|
|
|
The forward end of the shaft on a centrifugal compressor is hollow in order to
|
provide a passage for the main fuel supply
|
|
|
Stationary vanes positioned between rotor discs in a compressor are used to
|
direct air and increase pressure
|
|
|
In a dual-spool compressor, rpm of the N2 compressor are determined by the
|
fuel control.
|
|
|
Which facet of engine design helps prevent igniter plug fouling?
|
Directing air around the plug
|
|
|
The excess airflow that is not burned in the combustion section is used to
|
cool the burner surfaces
|
|
|
Fuel that accumulates after a failed start is
|
drained overboard by a drain system.
|
|
|
The parts on a can-annular combustion section must be removed in a specific order because
of the |
combustion chamber crossover tubes
|
|
|
What is the most common type of fuel nozzle system
|
Pressure-atomizing
|
|
|
Swirl-type fuel nozzles usually are used to provide what type of flame speed?
|
High
|
|
|
Three types of turbine and vane assemblies used in jet engines are impulse, reaction, and
|
reaction-impulse
|
|
|
What is placed in front of the rotating blades in an engine turbine section
|
Turbine nozzle vane assembly
|
|
|
Why is the “fir tree” method of attaching turbine blades (buckets) to the turbine rotor disc
preferred? |
There is a significant temperature differential between the turbine rotor disc and the blades
|
|
|
The exhaust duct connects the turbine outlet and the
|
jet nozzle
|
|
|
The purpose of the exhaust duct is to
|
straighten exhaust gas-flow.
|
|
|
The purpose of an augmentor (afterburner) in a jet engine is to
|
augment basic engine thrust
|
|
|
How many different types of loads can be imposed on a jet engine bearing?
|
Three
|
|
|
When you handle jet engine bearings, you must change cotton gloves frequently because they
|
get soaked with sweat
|
|
|
Before inspecting new jet engine bearings, you should
|
remove the preservative coating.
|
|
|
Which type of defect appears on bearings as a result of bearing parts striking together
|
Nicks
|
|
|
Which type of defect appears on bearings as a result of small particles of foreign material
becoming lodged between the rollers |
Grooves.
|
|
|
The bearing removal tools that are most commonly used include
|
arbor presses and bearing pullers
|
|
|
Excessive bearing wear can usually be detected by
|
roughness of the metal.
|
|
|
The recommended method of heating inner races of bearings before installing them is
|
hot-oil bath.
|
|
|
Which component reduces the engine rotor speed to the rpm required for accessories?
|
Reduction geartrain
|
|
|
On an F108 engine, the radial drive shaft connects the core engine to the
|
accessory drive assembly.
|
|
|
The major sections of a turboprop engine are the power unit, torquemeter assembly, and
|
RGB assembly
|
|
|
On the T56 turboprop engine, how many stages of reduction are in the RGB’s main
reduction gear train? |
2.
|
|
|
On the T56 turboprop engine, what is the overall reduction ratio of the RGB’s main
reduction gear train? |
13.54 to 1.
|
|
|
On the T56 turboprop engine, there are mounting pads on the aft side of the accessory drive
for the fuel control, fuel pump, and |
external scavenge oil pump
|
|
|
On the T56 turboprop engine, which compressor section assembly disperses compressor
discharge air and directs it to the combustion chambers? |
Diffuser
|
|
|
In the T56 engine, which RGB component rotates at the same speed as the power unit
rotors? |
Pinion input gear
|
|
|
What is the total gear reduction ratio of the RGB
|
13.54:1.
|
|
|
What is not a propeller brake positions?
|
Engaged
|
|
|
The propeller brake is in which position when the aircraft is on the ground and the engine is
stopped? |
Applied
|
|
|
Which valve in the propeller control assembly is actuated by the NTS actuator rod to
increase propeller blade angle |
Feather.
|
|
|
Which components comprise the torquemeter assembly?
|
Two concentric shafts, torquemeter housing, and torquemeter pickup
|
|
|
The amount of twisting deflection is determined by the
|
reference shaft
|
|
|
The torquemeter exciter wheels are in phase when
|
negative or positive torque is transmitted to the torque indicator.
|
|
|
The purpose of the T56 safety coupling is to
|
disconnect the power section from the RGB assembly.
|
|
|
For the safety coupling to disconnect the power unit from the RGB, torque must reach
between |
4,200 and 7,200 inch pounds
|
|
|
The stationary (stator) vane blades on the T56 compressor are used to
|
increase pressure
|
|
|
What type of bearings support the T56 compressor rotor at the front and rear?
|
Front, roller; rear, ball
|
|
|
Which T56 compressor component supports the compressor rear bearing labyrinth seal?
|
Compressor diffuser
|
|
|
In the T56 engine, turbine rotor torque is transferred to the compressor rotor by the
|
turbine coupling shaft.
|
|
|
The purpose of the guide vane support is to direct airflow
|
onto the turbine rotor blades
|
|
|
What are used to retain the turbine buckets in the first-stage wheel of the T56–A–15
engine? |
Cover plate seals.
|
|
|
The AE2100D3 power plant major assemblies are the PGB, torquemeter assembly, power
section, accessory drives, and the |
nacelle structure
|
|
|
On the AE2100D3, the forward engine mounts are located on the
|
sides of the PGB
|
|
|
What type of compressor rotor assembly is used on the AE2100D3 engine
|
14 stage axial-flow.
|
|
|
What AE2100D3 nacelle access door contains a fire access door?
|
Lower right turbine access door.
|
|
|
The AE2100D3 engine mount is divided into how many major structures?
|
Two.
|
|
|
The T700 engine consists of what four modules?
|
Accessory, compressor, combustion, and power turbine section.
|
|
|
What routes oil and fuel through the T700 engine AGB?
|
Internal passages
|
|
|
What components mount on the front face of the AGB on the T700 engine?
|
Alternator and fuel boost pump
|
|
|
The T700 gas generator turbine rotor drives the
|
compressor and AGB
|
|
|
The T700 power turbine drive shaft assembly is made up of what two components?
|
Drive shaft and torque sensor tube
|
|
|
Which F108 major engine module provides for mounting of the front of the engine to the
airframe? |
Core engine major module
|
|
|
Primary airflow in the F108 engine is through all of the following components except the
|
low-pressure turbine
|
|
|
The F108 engine can be broken down into how many individual modules
|
17.
|
|
|
What percentage of the total engine thrust does the secondary airflow on the F108 engine
produce? |
80
|
|
|
On the F108 engine, the purpose of the HPT nozzle assembly is to accelerate the energy
from the combustion gases to drive the |
HPT rotor
|
|
|
On the F108 engine, the LPT shaft assembly connects the fan shaft with the
|
LPT rotor
|
|
|
On the F108 engine, what connects the IGB to the TGB bevel gears?
|
Radial drive shaft
|
|
|
On which module of an F100–PW–220 engine is the stator generator mounted?
|
Gearbox
|
|
|
External flanges on the F100 engine are referred to by
|
letter designations
|
|
|
On an F100–PW–220 engine, the No. 1 bearing assembly is located in the
|
front compressor stator inlet shroud
|
|
|
When blending fourth stage compressor blades on an F100–PW–220 engine, a maximum of
how many blends are allowed on any single edge? |
Two.
|
|
|
On an F100–PW–220 engine, the front compressor drive turbine shaft is connected to the
front compressor rotor by |
the turbine drive shaft coupling
|
|
|
How many hollow struts/inlet guide vanes are contained in the inlet fan case of the F119
engine |
21
|
|
|
Where is the Tt2 located on a F119–PW–100 engine?
|
In the fan inlet guide vane case at the 5:30 position
|
|
|
Which is not a part of the core module of a F119–PW–100 engine?
|
Low pressure compressor
|
|
|
Which bearing compartment is contained in the intermediate case of the F119–PW–100 engine
|
No. 2 and No. 3 bearing.
|
|
|
On an F119–PW–100 engine, what function does the diffuser case serve other than housing
the combustor? |
Reduces the velocity of compressor discharge air
|
|
|
Which bearing is located in the LPT of the F119–PW–100 engine?
|
No. 5 bearing.
|
|
|
On the F119–PW–100 engine, which of the following is not attached to the gearbox
assembly? |
Augmentor fuel control
|
|
|
What is the nozzle module mounted to on the F119–PW–100 engine?
|
Augmentor assembly.
|
|
|
What is the composition of JP–8 fuel?
|
Gasoline and kerosene.
|
|
|
At room temperature, how many times longer will it take water to settle out of JP–8 than out
of gasoline? |
Four
|
|
|
The main fuel control allows the engine to safely accelerate, reducing the possibility of
|
flameout
|
|
|
The purpose of a fuel/oil cooler in a fuel system is to
|
heat the fuel and cool the oil.
|
|
|
What type of fuel control uses items such as thermocouples, relays, amplifiers, and solenoids
to help control a jet engine? |
Electrohydromechanical.
|
|
|
On fuel controls that require setting during an engine trim, calibration and/or adjustment
screws must be |
safety sealed and/or lockwired
|
|
|
When in the primary mode, what controls the operation of the F100-PW–220 engine?
|
DEEC.
|
|
|
On an F100-PW–220 engine, the MFC is capable of operating in how many modes?
|
Two.
|
|
|
Which F100-PW–220 engine fuel system component controls pressurization of the core
engine fuel system? |
P&D valve.
|
|
|
Which stage of compressor air drives the augmenter fuel pump on an F100-PW–220
engine? |
13th.
|
|
|
On the F100-PW–220 engine, which component controls the augmentor fuel control
|
DEEC
|
|
|
Core engine fuel flow sequence on an F100-PW–220 engine starts at the main fuel pump
and then goes through the |
main fuel control, fuel/oil cooler, pressurizing and dump valve, and fuel nozzles.
|
|
|
Operational control of the F108-CF–100 engine is achieved by the use of the power lever,
fuel shut-off lever, and |
PMC.
|
|
|
The F108 engine fuel pump contains a low-pressure stage (centrifugal boost stage) and a
high-pressure |
gear stage.
|
|
|
On an F108-CF–100 engine, the fuel injectors contain
|
both primary and secondary fuel flow passages.
|
|
|
What supplies the AE2100D3 FADEC with power until engine RPM is sufficient for the
alternator stator to take control |
Airplane 28 VDC power supply.
|
|
|
What component is controlled by the AE2100D3 FADEC through the ENGINE START
switch for normal engine shutdown or by the fire control handle for emergency shutdown? |
Latching shutoff valve
|
|
|
On the T56 engine, how many and what type of fuel pumps are contained in the fuel pump
and filter assembly? |
2 gear; 1 boost
|
|
|
What T56 engine controls the rotary movement of the fuel control metering valve
|
Compressor inlet pressure
|
|
|
On the T56 engine, what compares the desired throttle setting from the coordinator with the
actual TIT signal from the thermocouples? |
TD amplifier.
|
|
|
Which T56 engine component sends the fuel to the fuel manifold?
|
TD valve
|
|
|
When the null orifice on the T56 engine TD valve is set at zero, how much fuel will the
valve bypass |
20%.
|
|
|
In addition to the visual inspection the T–56 engine fuel nozzle also requires what type of
inspection? |
Spray pattern.
|
|
|
Which type of oil cooler operates on the same principle as a radiator in an automobile?
|
Air.
|
|
|
When an engine is not operating, static preload for a carbon oil seal is provided by
|
spring pressure.
|
|
|
(409) The F100-PW–100 engine oil pressure varies with N2 speed, engine inlet oil temperature,
and |
oil nozzle condition.
|
|
|
What term is used to indicate that air is being mixed with the oil in the oil pump to create
pockets of air? |
Aeration
|
|
|
In an engine oil tank, which device separates the air from the oil?
|
Deaerator.
|
|
|
Which type of oil system stores the oil in a tank fitted to the side of the engine?
|
Dry sump
|
|
|
Which type of oil system design places the oil cooler in the pressure subsystem?
|
Hot tank
|
|
|
On an F100 engine, the breather pressurizing valve is internally mounted in the
|
gearbox
|
|
|
On an F100-PW–220 engine, the air/oil coolers are mounted on the fan duct and use
|
secondary fan airflow as a coolant
|
|
|
On an F100-PW–220 engine, what component permits oil to bypass the oil filter during cold
weather starts? |
Filter bypass valve
|
|
|
What is used to check the oil level in a F108-CF–100 engine
|
Filler cap with a graduated gauge
|
|
|
Approximately how many GPM does the AE2100D3 PUAD lube and scavenge pump
provide at engine PTO? |
5.
|
|
|
What AE2100D3 component drives the PGB lube and scavenge pump?
|
GMAD.
|
|
|
Which type of oil pump is used on the T56 engine
|
Gear
|
|
|
The amount of ram air passing through the oil cooler core is regulated by the
|
flap actuator.
|
|
|
Bleed air flowing through which component increases airflow through the cooler?
|
Augmentation ejector.
|
|
|
The valve that allows fluid to flow in only one direction is the
|
check.
|
|
|
In the power unit oil system, the dual-port oil jet mounted on the front side of the
compressor air inlet housing is used to lubricate the |
mid and center sleeve bearings
|
|
|
The power section and RGB oil systems are joined together at the
|
external scavenge oil filter
|
|
|
Which RGB component prevents oil in the oil tank from draining into the RGB rear case?
|
Oil pump check valve.
|
|
|
How many scavenge oil pumps are located in the RGB?
|
2.
|
|
|
The journeyman must be aware of which hazardous property of modern jet engine oil?
|
Corrosiveness
|
|
|
The primary benefit of identifying an impending failure through the OAP is
|
improved safety
|
|
|
Who is responsible for ensuring that the OAP operates properly
|
Project monitor
|
|
|
What are microscopic metallic particles in the oil system called?
|
Wear metals
|
|
|
Oil sampling intervals should not vary by more than
|
10 percent
|
|
|
(415) The SEM/EDX analysis process differs from conventional oil analysis in which major
aspect? |
SEM/EDX particles must be oil free for analysis to take place.
|
|
|
Which 54H60–91 propeller subassembly transmits engine torque to the propeller blades
|
Barrel.
|
|
|
On the 54H60–91 propeller, which component delivers the actual propeller blade angle from
the blade to the control assembly |
Beta feedback shaft.
|
|
|
On the 54H60–91 propeller, which is a function of the pitchlock regulator?
|
Prevents the blades from decreasing pitch if hydraulic pressure is lost.
|
|
|
On the 54H60–91 propeller, which pitchlock component mechanically holds the stationary
and rotating pitchlock ratchets apart during reversing and unfeathering operations? |
Pitchlock control cam.
|
|
|
On the 54H60–91 propeller, which component is used in place of a shim plate on the No. 1
blade? |
Beta segment gear.
|
|
|
On the 54H60–91 propeller, which dome assembly part allows the rotating cam to turn while
the stationary cam remains in a fixed position? |
Ball bearings.
|
|
|
On the 54H60–91 propeller, what function is a task of the low pitch stop assembly?
|
Prevents the propeller from going into the beta range when the throttle is positioned in the alpha
range. |
|
|
On the 54H60–91 propeller, which component provides a means for balancing the propeller?
|
Hub mounting bulkhead
|
|
|
On the 54H60–91 propeller, hydraulic fluid is directed from the pump housing to the barrel
assembly through what component |
Transfer bearing
|
|
|
On the 54H60–91 propeller, what is the function of the differential gear train assembly?
|
Transmits blade angle movement to the valve housing and drives the propeller governor
flyweights |
|
|
On the 54H60–91 propeller, during normal propeller operation, the output of which pumps
is used? |
Main pressure and main scavenge
|
|
|
On the 54H60–91 propeller, which pump assists the main pressure pump when large blade
angle movements are required? |
Standby pressure
|
|
|
On the 54H60–91 propeller, which cam disarms the NTS system linkage when the throttle
is positioned in the beta range |
Manual feather
|
|
|
On the 54H60–91 propeller, which valve, contained in the valve housing, controls the flow
of hydraulic fluid to and from the dome assembly? |
Pilot.
|
|
|
The 54H60–91 propeller governor speeder spring tension positions the pilot valve to
maintain what percent rpm in the beta range? |
109 to 113%.
|
|
|
On the 54H60–91 propeller, when the throttle is moved to the GROUND IDLE position,
what degree setting does the coordinator pointer indicate on the protractor? |
18°.
|
|
|
What switch, located in the control quadrant, activates the 54H–60–91 propeller governor
speed bias servo assembly as the throttle is moved into the flight idle gate? |
Synchrophaser disarming
|
|
|
The condition lever GND STOP position is only effective on the ground because the circuits
made in this position are completed through what switches? |
Landing gear touchdown
|
|
|
What component in the T56 engine coordinator provides reference signals to the electronic
TD amplifier that are proportional to the desired TIT? |
Potentiometer
|
|
|
On the 54H60–91 propeller, the output of what pump is sufficient to supply hydraulic
pressure for normal propeller operation? |
Main pressure
|
|
|
On the 54H60–91 propeller, if the main filter becomes clogged, which valve opens to assure
continued flow? |
Bypass.
|
|
|
On the 54H60–91 propeller, which valve sets and maintains a pressure differential of about
100 psi between system pressure and the increase- or decrease-pitch pressure? |
Low-pressure relief.
|
|
|
On the 54H60–91 propeller, when the backup valve is opened, the hydraulic pressure routed
to the governor pilot valve is used for which operation? |
Reverse.
|
|
|
On the 54H60–91 propeller, which pump is used to feather or unfeather the propeller during
static propeller operation? |
Auxiliary.
|
|
|
On the 54H60–91 propeller, which type of valve opens to allow the output of the standby
pump to combine with the output of the main pump? |
Check.
|
|
|
The purpose of the 54H60–91 propeller pitchlock assembly is to prevent
|
an engine overspeed due to a loss of hydraulic pressure.
|
|
|
On the 54H60–91 propeller, what prevents engagement of the stationary and rotating
ratchets at blade angles below 25° and above 55°? |
The pitchlock control cam
|
|
|
On the 54H60–91 propeller, between the blade angles of 25° and 55°, what will keep the
rotating and stationary ratchets disengaged |
Increase- or decrease pitch pressure.
|
|
|
On the 54H60–91 propeller, the function of the low pitch stop is to prevent the
|
Increase- or decrease pitch pressure.
|
|
|
dome piston from decreasing blade angle below 23.3° ± .5°
|
dome piston from decreasing blade angle below 23.3° ± .5°.
|
|
|
On the 54H60–91 propeller, what forces the stop levers on the low pitch stop to move
outward? |
Wedge
|
|
|
605) On the 54H60–91 propeller, when pressure builds to between 240 and 280 psi, which valve
is unseated and allows the stop levers to retract? |
Servo
|
|
|
What is coordinated by the throttle in the controllable pitch range?
|
Blade pitch and engine fuel flow
|
|
|
On the 54H60–91 propeller, during beta range operation, what moves the pilot valve?
|
Cams and mechanical linkage
|
|
|
On the 54H60–91 propeller, during beta range operation, the rotation of which cam moves
the mechanical linkage to center the governor pilot valve |
Beta follow-up.
|
|
|
On the 54H60–91 propeller, during alpha range operation, which cam changes speeder
spring tension so the governor pilot valve can maintain 100 percent rpm? |
Speed set
|
|
|
On the 54H60–91 propeller, during an underspeed condition, what moves the pilot valve?
|
Speeder spring.
|
|
|
On the 54H60–91 propeller, when feathering the propeller, what acts on the mechanical
linkage to open the feather actuating valve? |
Manual feather cam.
|
|
|
On the 54H60–91 propeller, during feathering operation, the feather valve is positioned to
meter hydraulic fluid to the |
forward end of the dome piston.
|
|
|
On the 54H60–91 propeller, which valve is a backup in case the feather valve fails during
feathering operation |
Pilot
|
|
|
As the 54H60–91 propeller feathers, the output of which pump decreases (drops off)?
|
Main scavenge
|
|
|
On the 54H60–91 propeller, during feather operation, between approximately what psi are
the pressure cutout switch contacts opened |
600 to 800
|
|
|
On the 54H60–91 propeller, which component is the primary electrical ground for
energizing the feather override holding coil? |
Pressure cutout switch.
|
|
|
When attempting to unfeather the 54H60–91 propeller in flight, where must the throttle be
positioned? |
Above FLT IDLE
|
|
|
Which two cams, on the alpha shaft, control the 54H60–91 propeller unfeathering
operation |
Manual feather and beta set.
|
|
|
On the 54H60–91 propeller, what is the minimum psi required to release the feather latches
and allow the piston to move forward? |
200.
|
|
|
On the 54H60–91 propeller, after the NTS system actuator rod positions the mechanical
linkage in the valve housing when a negative torque condition occurs, what component is shifted |
Feather valve
|
|
|
Besides maintaining the optimum blade phase angle relationship between all propellers,
what else does synchrophasing do? |
Keeps the propellers rotating at the same speed.
|
|
|
The fuel governing check switches are used to reset the propeller governor to what
percentage of rpm in the alpha range |
106%
|
|
|
Where is the pickup portion of the pulse generator located?
|
Pump housing.
|
