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90 Cards in this Set
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1. How does the sympathetic autonomic nervous system react to a stressful situation? Select one.
A. Increases blood-flow to digestive organs B. Reduces respiratory rate C. Increases heart-rate D. Decreases blood-flow to skeletal muscle |
"C. Increases heart-rate
1.1 Central and Peripheral Nervous |
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2. Match each function with the type of cell that performs that function. Select your answer from the pull-down list.
a. Propagates an action potential that will lead to stimulation of a central nervous system interneuron B. Disposes of dead brain cells and bacteria C. Protects and cushions nerve fibers found in the peripheral nervous system D. Protects nerve cells in the peripheral nervous system by producing a myelin sheath E. Propagates an action potential that will lead to stimulation of a skeletal muscle F. Helps to protect neurons from harmful chemicals in the blood 1. Ependymal Cell 2. Satelites Cells 3. Motor (efferent) neuron 4. Microglia 5. Astrocytes 6. Schwann Cells 7. Sensory (afferent) neuron |
A.-7 - Sensory (afferent) Neuron
B.-5 Astrocytes C. -6 Schwann Cells D.- 1 Ependymal Cell E.-5 - Astrocytes F.- 2 - Sateltes Cells. |
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3. Which statement describes how a neuron ensures a normal unidirectional flow of action potential? Select one.
A. Axons carry impulses away from the cell body. B. Synapses carry impulses to the axon hillock. C. Neurofibrils carry impulses through the cell body. D. Dendrites carry impulses away from the cell body. |
A. Axons carry impulses away from the cell body.
1.1 |
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4. List the events that restore membrane charge and ionic concentration following an action potential in order from first (1) to last (5). Select your answer from the pull-down list.
a. Potassium channels begin to open. b. The membrane's potassium permeability increases while sodium permeability decreases. c. The membrane repolarizes with an outflow of positive ions. d. Potassium ions rapidly diffuse out of the neuron into tissue fluid. e. The original extracellular and intracellular concentrations of sodium and potassium ions are reestablished by the sodium-potassium pump. |
1 = C
2 = B 3 = A 4 = D 5 = E |
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5. How does a neurotransmitter conduct the nerve impulse across a synaptic cleft? Select one.
A. It diffuses the impulse into the receiving neuron's nucleus and activates an action potential. B. It opens the Na+ ion-gated channels in the receiving neuron. C. It opens the K+ ion gated channels in the sending neuron. D. It repolarizes the receiving neuron's cell membrane. |
A. It diffuses the impulse into the receiving neuron's nucleus and activates an action potential.
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6. Which of the following are parts of a patellar reflex? Choose 3 answers
A. Sensory neuron B. Association neuron C. Quadriceps muscle of thigh D. Cerebral cortex E. Stretch receptor |
A. C. E.
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7. Which of the following are structural components of the peripheral nervous system? Choose 3 answers
A. Cranial nerves B. Oligodendrocytes C. Spinal cord D. Spinal nerves E. Sensory fibers |
A. C. D.
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8. Match each body part with the corresponding innervating system. Select your answer from the pull-down list.
A. Cardiac muscle B. Gastrocnemius muscle C. Triceps muscle D. Urinary bladder E. Deltoid muscle F. Diaphragm Choice: Autonomic Choice: Somatic |
A. Protection of Neurons.
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9. What structural benefit for nerve impulse transmission does the spinal cord provide? Select one.
A. Protection of neurons B. Alkaline control for pH adjustments C. Endocrine control point for nerves D. Signal degradation |
Write Down Paper
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11. What are the critical functions of the cerebellum?
Choose 3 answers A. Allowing for smooth and coordinated body movements B. Initiating motor signals for the face and mouth C. Controlling balance and equilibrium D. Differentiating between pleasant and unpleasant sensations E. Monitoring body position and tension in various body parts |
A.B.E.
1.1 |
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12. Match each cranial nerve with its primary function. Select your answer from the pull-down list.
a.Glossopharyngeal nerve b. Trigeminal nerve c. Olfactory nerve d. Accessory nerve e. Hypoglossal nerve 1. Supplies motor fibers that activate chewing 2. Carries impulses for the sense of smell 3. Carries motor fibers that allow for shoulder shrugging 4. Supplies motor fibers that promote saliva production 5. Carries motor fibers that control tongue movements 6. Supplies motor fibers controlling pupil size and lens shape |
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13. How does the blood-brain barrier protect the brain? Choose 2 answers
A. Prevents waste products from entering the brain B. Prevents essential amino acids from entering the brain C. Prevents movement of oxygen into the brain D. Promotes movement of potassium ions into the brain E. Prevents most drugs from entering the brain |
A. E. 1.1
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14. Match each plasma or formed element of blood with the appropriate group. Select your answer from the pull-down list.
a. Sodium b. Albumin c. Monocytes d. Eosinophils e. Neutrophils f. Globulins g. Basophils h. Lymphocytes 1. Plasma Proteins 2. Agranulocytes 3. Granulocytes |
A = Electrolytes
B= Plasma Proteins C = Agranulocytes D = Granuloycytes E = Granuloycytes F = Plasma Proteins G = Granulocytes H = Agranulocytes |
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15. Match each function with the blood component that performs the function. Select your answer from the pull-down list.
a. Act as a solvent for carrying other substances b. Form blood clots c. Buffer pH d. Carry hemoglobin-bound oxygen e. Defend against disease 1. Erythrocytes 2. Plasma 3. Platelets 4. Leukocytes |
A =
B= Platelets C = Plasma D = Eryth E = Lenkocy |
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16. Which of the following are characteristics of blood cell development? Choose 2 answers
A. Each type of blood cell is produced in equal numbers. B. Control of red blood cell production is based on the ability to meet oxygen demand. C. The entire developmental process for mature red blood cells takes two days. D. Blood cells differentiate from stem cells and can change form anytime during hematopoiesis. E. Development occurs in the red bone marrow. |
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17. Order the events that occur during hemostasis from first (1) to last (6). Select your answer from the pull-down list.
a. Platelet plug forms in the damaged area. b. Platelets release serotonin causing spasms in blood vessels. c. Prothrombin activator converts prothrombin to thrombin. d. Thrombin joins fibrinogen molecules into long threads of fibrin. e. A mesh of fibrin threads traps red blood cells, forming a clot. f. Clot retracts and the edges of the blood vessel are pulled closer together. 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. |
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18. Type A blood cells are accidentally given to a patient with type B blood during the patient's first blood transfusion. What reaction is the likely consequence from this transfusion? Select one.
A. Anti-B antibodies in the donor's plasma cause agglutination of the patient's red blood cells. B. Anti-A antigens on the patient's red blood cells cause lysis of the donor's red blood cells. C. Anti-B antigens on the donor's red blood cells cause lysis of the patient's red blood cells. D. Anti-A antibodies in the patient's plasma cause agglutination of the donor's red blood cells. |
D. Anti-A antibodies in the patient's plasma cause agglutination of the donor's red blood cells.
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19. A mother with anti-Rh+ antibodies gives birth to her second child. The baby is born with Hemolytic Disease of the Newborn (HDN), resulting in anemia.
Why did this complication occur? Select one. A. The mother was Rh+, and the fetus was Rh+. B. The mother was Rh", and the fetus was Rh". C. The mother was Rh", and the fetus was Rh+. D. The mother was Rh+, and the fetus was Rh". |
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20. Match each structural characteristic with the blood vessel it describes. Select your answer from the pull-down list.
a. Skeletal muscle pump b. Largest lumen c. Thickest tunica media in walls d. Valves e. One-cell-layer thick walls Sphincter 1. Veins 2. Capillaries 3. Arteries |
A = Arteries
B= Viens C = Arteries D = Arteries E = Capillaries F = Vien |
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21. Match each organ or structure with the major artery responsible for its blood supply. Select your answer from the pull-down list.
a. Arms b. Liver c. Head d. Legs e. Kidney 1. Common hepatic 2. Renal 3. Superior mesenteric 4. Axillary 5. Carotid 6. Femoral |
A = Axillary
B= Common Hepatic C = Carotid D = Femoral E = Renal |
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22. How does the circulatory system help maintain a constant pH in extracellular fluids? Select one.
A. Blood transports carbon dioxide away from its cellular sources to be exhaled through the lungs. B. Amino acids from protein metabolism are neutralized in the blood with basic salts. C. Water concentration in the plasma changes in response to hydrogen ion concentration fluctuations. D. Oxygen dissolved in the plasma buffers changes in sodium ion concentration. |
C. Water concentration in the plasma changes in response to hydrogen ion concentration fluctuations.
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23. How do the anatomical structures of the heart facilitate the movement of blood? Choose 2 answers
A. Intact heart valves allow blood to flow in only one direction. B. The sinoatrial node coordinates cardiac contractions, ensuring that the atria contract before the ventricles. C. The thick walls of the superior ventricles help fill the inferior chambers. D. The fibrous pericardium lining the heart enhances the smooth flow of blood. E. The stretching of the pulmonary valves decreases cardiac contraction. |
A. Intact heart valves allow blood to flow in only one direction. B. The sinoatrial node coordinates cardiac contractions, ensuring that the atria contract before the ventricles. |
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24. Which of the following are characteristics of the early diastolic period of the cardiac cycle? Choose 3 answers
A. Semilunar valves close to prevent backflow. B. Blood flows from the left ventricle into the aorta. C. Atrioventricular valves open. D. The atrioventricular valves are closed. E. Ventricular pressure is greater than atrial pressure. F. Ventriclular pressure drops and the ventricles begin to fill with blood. |
A. Semilunar valves close to prevent backflow. C. Atrioventricular valves open. F. Ventriclular pressure drops and the ventricles begin to fill with blood. |
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25. Blood has entered the superior vena cava. Trace the path of a blood droplet from the first (1) to last (5) structure it passes through from the superior vena cava to the lungs. Select your answer from the pull-down list.
a. Right atrium b. Tricuspid valve c. Right ventricle d. Pulmonary valve e. Pulmonary arteries 1,2,3,4,5 |
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26. Identify the structures that expired air passes through from first (1) to last (7) as it exits the lungs. Select your answer from the pull-down list.
a. Alveolus b. Alveolar duct c. Respiratory bronchiole d. Terminal bronchiole e. Tertiary bronchi f. Main bronchi g. Trachea Put in order 1,2,3,4,5,6,7 |
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27. What are functions of the larynx? Choose 3 answers
A. Provide sensory input for a cough reflex B. Drain the middle ear C. Play a major role in speech production D. Direct air and food into the proper channels E. Protect the superior opening of the pharynx |
C. Play a major role in speech production
D. Direct air and food into the proper channels E. Protect the superior opening of the pharynx |
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29. How does oxygen move from the alveoli into the blood? Choose 2 answers
A. Diffuses from the air in the alveoli into the blood B. Is carried by transporter proteins from the alveoli into the blood C. Changes to CO2 in the alveoli and then moves into the blood D. Is pulled by osmosis from the alveoli into the bloodstream E. Crosses simple squamous cells of the alveolar and capillary walls |
A. Diffuses from the air in the alveoli into the blood E. Crosses simple squamous cells of the alveolar and capillary walls |
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30. How do the muscles responsible for inspiration change the intrathoracic volume? Select one.
A. Contraction increases the volume. B. Contraction decreases the volume. C. Partial contraction decreases the volume. D. Relaxation increases the volume. |
A. Contraction increases the volume.
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31. Classify each description as an element of either internal or external respiration. Select your answer from the pull-down list.
a. Oxygen is released from hemoglobin. b. Carbon dioxide is collected in the blood. c. Gases are exchanged in alveoli. d. Carbon dioxide moves from the alveoli into the bronchioles. e. Gases are exchanged between tissue and blood. 1. Internal Respiration 2. External Respiration |
A = Internal
B= External C = Internal D = Internal E = Internal |
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32. Which of the following are considered non-respiratory air movements? Choose 3 answers
A. Swallow B. Breath C. Sneeze D. Cough E. Cry |
A. Swallow D. Cough E. Cry |
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33. Which of the following statements correctly describe epithelial membranes? Choose 3 answers
A. Serous membranes occur in pairs. B. Mucous membranes line body cavities which open to the outside. C. Synovial membranes secrete thin, clear serous fluid. D. Cutaneous membranes secrete large amounts of protective mucus. E. The dermis underlies the cutaneous membrane. |
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35. What appendages of the skin play a role in thermoregulation? Choose 2 answers
A. Cilia B. Eccrine glands C. Sebaceous glands D. Sweat glands E. Nails |
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36. What is a function of bones? Select one.
A. Store proteins B. Protect organs C. Excrete uric acid D. Digest calcium E. Produce vitamin D |
A. Store Proteins
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37. How does bone development respond when osteoclasts are stimulated more than osteoblasts? Select one.
A. Cartilage is degraded faster than it is built. B. Cartilage is built faster than bone is degraded. C. Bone is built faster than it is degraded. D. Bone is degraded faster than it is built. E. Cartilage is built faster than it is degraded. |
D. Bone is degraded faster than it is built
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38. Classify each axial skeletal bone as being found in either the head or the neck. Select your answer from the pull-down list.
a. Hyoid b. Atlas (C1) c. Parietal d. Axis (C2) e. Sphenoid f. Occipital 1. Head 2. Neck |
A = Neck
B= Neck C = Head D = Neck E = Head F = Head |
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40. Match each description with the appropriate muscle tissue type. Select your answer from the pull-down list.
a. Fusiform, uninucleate cells b. Long, cylindrical cells that are multinucleate and striated c. Attached to bones d. Cells under voluntary control e. Located in the walls of hollow visceral organs f. Branching chains of cells that are uninucleate and striated g. Located in the walls of heart 1. Skeletal 2. Cardiac 3. Smooth |
A = Cardiac
B= Smooth C = Skeletal D = Skeletal E = Smooht F = Cardiac G= Cardiac |
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41. What events occur during contraction of skeletal muscle fibers? Choose 3 answers
A. Myosin pulls actin fibers toward the center of the sarcomere. B. ATP (adenosine triphosphate) is pumped out of the muscle cell. C. Myosin binds to actin filaments in the presence of calcium ions. D. Calcium (Ca2+) ions are released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. E. Sodium (Na+) ions trigger the binding of actin filaments to myosin. |
A. Myosin pulls actin fibers toward the center of the sarcomere. C. Myosin binds to actin filaments in the presence of calcium ions. D. Calcium (Ca2+) ions are released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. |
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43. What structure is part of the lymphatic system? Select one.
A. Tonsils B. Bursae C. Hair follicles D. Meninges |
A. Tonsils
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44. How does the lymphatic system transport lymph back into the bloodstream? Choose 3 answers
A. Lymph moves through microscopic capillaries away from the heart. B. The right lymphatic duct empties its content directly to the subclavian vein. C. Lymph travels in a system of vessels that mirrors the arterial circulation. D. The right lymphatic duct empties directly into the inferior vena cava. E. Lymph moves through large and small vessels towards the heart. F. The thoracic duct delivers lymph into the venous system. |
B. The right lymphatic duct empties its content directly to the subclavian vein. E. Lymph moves through large and small vessels towards the heart. F. The thoracic duct delivers lymph into the venous system. |
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45. Match each anatomic location to the associated lymph node that drains it. Select your answer from the pull-down list.
a. Groin b. Right hand c. Face d. Left leg e. Shoulder 1. Axillary node 2. Inguinal node 3. Cervical node |
A = Inguinal Node
B= Axillary Node C = Cervical Node D = Inguinal Node E = Axillary Node |
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46. How do the organs of the lymphatic system prevent and respond to bacterial infections? Choose 3 answers
A. Mucosa-associated lymphatic tissue (MALT) protects the upper-respiratory and digestive tracts from foreign bacteria. B. The spleen produces specific antibodies in response to different bacteria. C. Peyer's patches contain macrophages that capture and destroy bacteria. D. Tonsils trap and remove bacteria entering the pharynx. E. 1 ] Lymph nodes constantly filter bacteria out of the bloodstream. F. □ Lymph nodes release hormones that act to destroy specific bacteria. G. 1 The thymus gland filters bacteria from the blood. |
B. The spleen produces specific antibodies in response to different bacteria. C. Peyer's patches contain macrophages that capture and destroy bacteria. E. 1 ] Lymph nodes constantly filter bacteria out of the bloodstream. |
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47. Which of the following processes are controlled by hormonal regulation? Choose 3 answers
A. Basal metabolic rate B. Memory formation C. Auditory transduction D. Calcium level in the blood E. Skeletal muscle growth |
A. Basal metabolic rate
D. Calcium level in the blood E. Skeletal muscle growth |
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48. Which of the following describe mechanisms of hormone action? Choose 3 answers
A. Affecting strictly the sites where they are released B. Attaching to a receptor on or in the target cell C. Secreting occurs continuously into the bloodstream+A16:A29 D. Affecting specific target tissues or target organs E. Increasing or decreasing the rate of a metabolic process |
C. Secreting occurs continuously into the bloodstream+A16:A29 D. Affecting specific target tissues or target organs E. Increasing or decreasing the rate of a metabolic process |
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49. How does the pancreas regulate the metabolism of glucose? Choose 2 answers
A. By producing glucose inhibitors, which prevent development of diabetes B. By producing enzymes, which breakdown glucose C. By producing insulin, which carries glucose out of the cell D. By producing glucagon, which raises blood glucose levels E. By producing insulin, which is necessary for glucose uptake |
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51. Match each hormone with its corresponding function. Select your answer from the pull-down list.
a. Luteinizing hormone (LH) b. Adrenocorticotropic (ACTH) c. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) d. Growth hormone (GH) 3. Prolactin (PRL) 1. Triggers ovulation of the egg from the ovaries 2. Regulates the activity of the adrenal cortex 3. Stimulates production of milk in the breasts 4. Stimulates cells to increase in size and multiply 5. Inhibits urine production, increases blood pressure 6. Stimulates the absorption of glucose from the bloodstream |
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52. Which of the following statements accurately describe the negative feedback mechanism? Choose 3 answers
A. Increased hormone levels inhibit hormone release. B. As a hormone level rapidly increases in the blood, the release of that hormone increases. C. Releasing hormones in the hypothalamus are decreased as hormone levels in the blood increase. D. Blood levels of ions and nutrients have no effect on hormone release. E. Hormone secretion can be controlled by internal stimuli. |
A. Increased hormone levels inhibit hormone release. C. Releasing hormones in the hypothalamus are decreased as hormone levels in the blood increase. E. Hormone secretion can be controlled by internal stimuli. |
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53. A patient with diabetes mellitus has low insulin levels due to an inability to produce sufficient insulin. What are the results of these low insulin levels? Choose 2 answers
A. Blood glucose will decrease. B. Glucose will remain outside of cells. C. Glucagon will be released. D. Blood glucose will increase. E. Glycogen will be produced. |
B. Glucose will remain outside of cells. D. Blood glucose will increase. |
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54. Match each organ with the abdominopelvic quadrant in which it is normally found. Select your answer from the pull-down list.
a. Stomach b. Appendix c. Gall bladder d. Sigmoid colon e. Liver 1. Right upper quadrant 2. Right lower quadrant 3. Left upper quadrant 4. Left lower quadrant |
A = Upper Righ
B= Lower Left C = Lower Left D = Lower Left E = Upper Right |
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55. Which of the following accurately describe the functions that differentiate chemical digestion and mechanical digestion? Choose 3 answers
A. Chemical digestion involves pancreatic enzymes, while mechanical digestion involves segmentation. B. Chemical digestion involves hydrolysis reactions, and mechanical digestion involves mixing of food by the tongue in the oral cavity. C. Chemical digestion involves bile enzymes, while mechanical digestion involves the movement of food by cilia. D. Chemical digestion involves the elimination of indigestible residues, while mechanical digestion occurs only in the stomach. E. Chemical digestion breaks apart molecules, while mechanical digestion breaks larger pieces of food into smaller ones. |
A. Chemical digestion involves pancreatic enzymes, while mechanical digestion involves segmentation.
B. Chemical digestion involves hydrolysis reactions, and mechanical digestion involves mixing of food by the tongue in the oral cavity. E. Chemical digestion breaks apart molecules, while mechanical digestion breaks larger pieces of food into smaller ones. |
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56. Which of the following digestive organs may be malfunctioning in an individual having difficulty digesting proteins? Choose 3 answers
A. Gall bladder B. Stomach C. Small intestine D. Ascending colon E. Pancreas F. Large intestine |
A. Gall bladder
D. Ascending colon F. Large intestine |
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57. What tissues are continuous with the walls of the alimentary canal's serosa? Select one.
A. Surface epithelium and constrictor muscles B. Longitudinal muscle and squamous epithelium C. Circular muscle layer and surface epithelium D. Parietal peritoneum and mesentery |
C. Circular muscle layter and surface epithelium
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58. How does the salivary gland facilitate swallowing food? Choose 5 answers
A. Lysozyme from saliva increases chemical digestion. B. Mucus from saliva helps to form a bolus. C. Saliva lubricates the mouth. D. Salivary amylase begins dissolving food in the mouth. E. Saliva raises mouth temperature. F. Salivary amylase helps break down starch. G. Bolus makes chewing and swallowing easier. |
C. Saliva lubricates the mouth. D. Salivary amylase begins dissolving food in the mouth. E. Saliva raises mouth temperature. F. Salivary amylase helps break down starch. G. Bolus makes chewing and swallowing easier. |
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59. Which of the following is a characteristic of the renal hilus? Select one.
A. Medial indentation where vessels enter and exit the kidney B. Structure responsible for urine formation C. Fibrous and transparent mass enclosing the kidneys D. Structure that helps to hold kidneys in position E. Fatty mass surrounding both kidneys |
A. Medial indentation where vessels enter and exit the kidney
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60. How do nephrons in kidneys facilitate urine formation? Choose 2 answers
A. Glomeruli filter fluid out of the blood. B. Tubule cells have membrane carriers that create uric acid and creatinine. C. Filtration occurs through an active and selective process. D. Useful substances from filtrate are reabsorbed beginning in proximal tubule. E. Tubular reabsorption occurs in the interlobular arteries. F. Filtration occurs in the renal tubule and glomerular capsule. |
A. Glomeruli filter fluid out of the blood. D. Useful substances from filtrate are reabsorbed beginning in proximal tubule. |
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61. How is backflow of urine prevented? Select one.
A. Urethral sphincters keep urine from flowing back into the kidneys. B. Smooth muscle in the urethra prevents urine from flowing back into the bladder. C. Valve-like folds in the bladder prevent urine from flowing back into urethra. D. One-way valves in calyces prevent urine from flowing into the medulla. |
C. Valve-like folds in the bladder prevent urine from flowing back into urethra. |
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62. What is the role of the hepatic portal system? Select one.
A. Drains the digestive organs, spleen, and pancreas and directs blood to the liver B. Directs blood from the liver to digestive organs, spleen, and pancreas C. Directs blood from the kidney to digestive organs, spleen, and pancreas D. Drains the lungs, heart, and vena cava and directs blood to the kidney |
A. Drains the digestive organs, spleen, and pancreas and directs blood to the liver
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63. What structure produces the majority of fluid volume in semen? Select one.
A. Ductus deferens B. Prostate gland C. Seminal vesicles D. Bulbourethral gland |
B. Prostate gland
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64. Put the structures sperm encounters in order as it travels to the body's exterior from first (1) to last (6). Select your answer from the pull-down list.
a. Rete testis b. Seminiferous tubules c. Ductus deferens Epididymis d. Spongy urethra 1,2, 3,4, 5 |
A = Seminiferous Tubles
B= Rete Testis C = Epididymis D = Ductus Deferens E = Spongy Urethra |
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65. Which of the following are secondary sex characteristics in females? Choose 3 answers
A. Decrease of fat deposits B. Development of the breasts C. Onset of menses D. Narrowing of the pelvis E. Increased volume of skeletal muscles F. Enlargement of uterine tubes |
B. Development of the breasts D. Narrowing of the pelvis F. Enlargement of uterine tubes |
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66. Which of the following are considered male secondary sex characteristics? Choose 3 answers
A. Increased skin coloration B. Larynx enlargement C. Enlargement of skeletal muscles D. Deepening of the voice E. Decreased hormone levels |
B. Larynx enlargement
C. Enlargement of skeletal muscles D. Deepening of the voice |
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67. Which of the following represent the order of structures an ova encounters from the ovary to the uterus? Select one.
A. Ovary -> Infundibulum -> Fallopian tube -> Fimbriae Uterus B. Ovary Fallopian tube -> Infundibulum -> Fimbriae -> Uterus C. Ovary -> Fallopian tube -» Fimbriae -»Infundibulum -> Uterus D. Ovary -> Fimbriae Fallopian tube Infundibulum -> Uterus E. Ovary -» Fimbriae -» Infundibulum —> Fallopian tube -> Uterus |
D. Ovary -> Fimbriae Fallopian tube Infundibulum
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68. Which of the following characteristics are true of spermatogenesis? Choose 3 answers
A. The final product is motile (self-propelled). B. Following puberty, it continues throughout life. C. Spermatids are the primitive stem cells that begin the process. D. The final product of the process is 2n (46 chromosomes). E. The entire process takes between 64 and 72 days. |
C. Spermatids are the primitive stem cells that begin the process.
D. The final product of the process is 2n (46 chromosomes). E. The entire process takes between 64 and 72 days. |
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69. Which of the following describes the secretory phase of the menstrual cycle? Select one.
A. Ovulation occurs at the end of this phase. B. The endometrium becomes thick and well vascularized. C. Average blood loss is approximately 1/4 to 1/2 a cup. d. The corpus luteum produces rising levels of progesterone. |
d. The corpus luteum produces rising levels of progesterone.
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70. Match each process with the hormone responsible for stimulating it. Select your answer from the pull-down list.
a. Development of external genitalia b. Onset of ovulation c. Widening of pelvis d. Enlargement of breasts e. Increase in size and activity of endometrial glands f. Enlargement of uterus and uterine tubes 1. Follicle-stimulating hormone 2. Estrogens Progesterone 3. Luteinizing hormone |
A = Estrogens
B= Luteinizing Hormone C = Estrogens D = Estrogens E = Lutienzing Hormone F = Progesterone |
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71. A patient's skin became very dry and cracked around the same time the patient caught a cold. How does the patient's skin condition relate to catching a cold? Choose 3 answers
A. Eccrine glands have not been producing enough fluid, preventing defense mechanisms from working properly. B. Cold viruses cause the body to stop producing sweat and chemical secretions. C. Lack of chemical secretions from sebaceous glands allows viruses to enter the body. D. Skin's outer layer is no longer continuous enough to keep virus from entering the body. E. Dry skin is seen during cold weather when the largest number of contagious viruses is active. F. Dry, cracked skin lacks enough melanin to fight off the infection. |
A. Eccrine glands have not been producing enough fluid, preventing defense mechanisms from working properly.
D. Skin's outer layer is no longer continuous enough to keep virus from entering the body. E. Dry skin is seen during cold weather when the largest number of contagious viruses is active. |
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72. How does red bone marrow produce blood cells that function in the body's immune response? Select one.
A. Neutrophils derived from megakaryocytes induce white blood cell proliferation. B. Erythropoietin production leads to white blood cell proliferation. C. Hemocytoblasts gives rise to white blood cells. D. Thrombopoietin production leads to white blood cell proliferation. |
C. Hemocytoblasts gives rise to white blood cells.
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73. How do white blood cells help protect the body against pathogens? Choose 2 answers
A. Neutrophils from lymphoid stem cells inactivate inflammatory chemicals. B. T lymphocytes fight tumors and viruses and activate B lymphocytes. C. Basophils are agranulocytes that are avid phagocytes. D. Platelets derived from monocytes protect the body against acute infections. E. Lymphocytes play an important role in the production of antibodies. |
B. T lymphocytes fight tumors and viruses and activate B lymphocytes. E. Lymphocytes play an important role in the production of antibodies. |
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74. Classify each immune response as either antibody-mediated or cell-mediated. Select your answer from the pull-down list.
a. Activates upon exposure to an infected cell b. Creates immunity specific to an antigen c. Activates upon exposure to an extracellular antigen d. Can be active or passive immunity e. Is effective against toxins f. Can have primary and secondary responses 1. Cell-mediated response 2. Antibody-mediated response |
A = Cell-mediated Response
B= Antibody-mediated Response C = Cell-mediated Response D = Cell-mediated Response E = Cell-mediated Response F = Antibody-mediated Response |
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75. How do the components of the lymphatic system protect the body from disease? Choose 3 answers
A. Trap and remove bacteria entering the throat B. Use cilia to propel debris-laden mucus away from organs C. Force lymph through lymph nodes to be screened by cells of the immune system D. Store phagocytic cells and lymphocytes E. Filter lymph in the spleen for bacteria, viruses, and other debris F. Develop immunocompetent T cells |
A. Trap and remove bacteria entering the throat B. Use cilia to propel debris-laden mucus away from organs F. Develop immunocompetent T cells |
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76. What are the roles of the homeostatic control system? Choose 2 answers
A. Allows for large fluctuations of blood pH B. Monitors and responds to changes in the environment C. Relays information to and from the control center D. Modulates skeletal muscle reflex activity E. Uses negative feedback to regulate blood clotting |
B. Monitors and responds to changes in the environment
E. Uses negative feedback to regulate blood clotting |
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77. Which of the following accurately identify how the lymphatic system interacts with other systems of the body? Choose 3 answers
A. The spleen destroys aged red blood cells and removes debris from the blood. B. Lymph nodes contain lymphocytes that are important modulators of the immune system. C. Lymphatic vessels pick up plasma fluids that have leaked from the vascular system. D. Lymphatic vessels trap and remove foreign pathogens entering the throat during respiration. E. The thymus is responsible for storing iron, which is necessary for the proper function of the circulatory system. F. Peyer's patches filter lymph that comes from the digestive system. |
A. The spleen destroys aged red blood cells and removes debris from the blood. B. Lymph nodes contain lymphocytes that are important modulators of the immune system. D. Lymphatic vessels trap and remove foreign pathogens entering the throat during respiration. |
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78. Which of the following show the correct sequence of interactions between the nervous system and endocrine systems? Choose 2 answers
A. The parasympathetic nervous system releases hormones to cause increased muscle mass. B. The sympathetic nervous system releases hormones that increase thirst. C. The sympathetic nervous system increases epinephrine release during stressful situations. D. The parasympathetic nervous system causes release of epinephrine to increase skin pigmentation. E. Stretching of the uterus stimulates release of oxytocin from the pituitary, which causes contractions. |
A. The parasympathetic nervous system releases hormones to cause increased muscle mass. E. Stretching of the uterus stimulates release of oxytocin from the pituitary, which causes contractions. |
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79. Why is the blood-brain barrier necessary? Select one.
A. Prevents glucose from entering brain tissue B. Prevents exposure to systemic chemical changes in the blood C. Prevents the exchange of respiratory gases D. Prevents fat-soluble molecules from entering brain tissue |
B. Prevents exposure to systemic chemical changes in the blood
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80. A person is resting after eating a big meal. Why is such rest important to the digestive system? Select one.
A. Increased digestion during rest is a result of parasympathetic nervous system activity. B. Resting stimulates the sympathetic nervous system to dilate blood vessels in the digestive tract. C. Resting stimulates the parasympathetic nervous system to constrict blood vessels in the digestive tract. D. Increased digestion during rest is a result of sympathetic nervous system activity. |
B. Resting stimulates the sympathetic nervous system to dilate blood vessels in the digestive tract.
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82. How do the digestive and cardiovascular systems provide nutrients to cells? Choose 2 answers
A. Blood, carrying absorbed nutrients from the digestive system, is delivered to cells of the body by the cardiovascular system. B. Entire proteins, used in many cellular processes and structures, are transported from the digestive system into the bloodstream. C. The majority of solid food particles are absorbed from the large intestine into the blood. D. Food is broken into the smallest components by enzymes in the digestive system and delivered to cells by the cardiovascular system. E. The digestive system provides oxygen to the blood to be used in body tissues for cellular respiration. |
A. Blood, carrying absorbed nutrients from the digestive system, is delivered to cells of the body by the cardiovascular system. E. The digestive system provides oxygen to the blood to be used in body tissues for cellular respiration. |
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83. Match each function with the corresponding waste removal process. Select your answer from the pull-down list.
a. Removal of urine from the bladder b. Removal of urea from the blood c. Removal of ammonia from the cells d. Removal of nitrogen from the blood e. Removal of concentrated carbon dioxide from the blood 1. Respiratory expiration 2. Micturition Systemic 3. circulation Renal filtration |
A = Micturition
B= Renal Fitration C = Respiratory expiration D = Systemic Circulation E = Respiratory Expiration |
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84. Which of the following describe how nutrients and gases enter or leave the capillaries? Choose 3 answers
A. Red blood cells through vascular walls B. Proteins through cellular clefts C. Lipid-soluble substances through passive diffusion D. Carbon dioxide through concentration gradient E. Fluid through fenestrated capillaries |
B. Proteins through cellular clefts C. Lipid-soluble substances through passive diffusion D. Carbon dioxide through concentration gradient |
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85. What are some of the problems that can occur if the placenta fails to properly form? Choose 3 answers
A. The fetus will grow too large for natural birth and will need to be delivered via cesarean section. B. Pubic symphysis will not widen to allow for birth. C. The amnion enlarges, endangering the mother. D. Oxygen and nutrients will not be delivered to the embryo. E. Levels of estrogen and progesterone will not be high enough to maintain endometrium. |
B. Pubic symphysis will not widen to allow for birth.
D. Oxygen and nutrients will not be delivered to the embryo. E. Levels of estrogen and progesterone will not be high enough to maintain endometrium. |
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86. Which descriptions summarize the changes and biological activity of a zygote after fertilization but before implantation? Choose 3 answers
A. Cleavage and free flotation in the cavity of the uterus B. Meiosis followed by cell wall thickening and expansion C. Dependence on secretions of the endometrial glands for metabolic needs D. Cooperation with the tissues of the mother's uterus to form the placenta E. Development into a fluid-filled ball of approximately 100 cells |
D. Cooperation with the tissues of the mother's uterus to form the placenta
E. Development into a fluid-filled ball of approximately 100 cells |
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87. How is the gastrointestinal system of a woman affected by pregnancy? Choose 2 answers
A. Decrease in motility of digestive tract causes constipation. B. Increased amounts of relaxin cause heartburn. C. Heartburn decreases because stomach is displaced. D. Fetal metabolic wastes are dumped into the small intestine. E. Increased production of estrogen and progesterone causes morning sickness. |
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89. What central nervous system structure forms late in fetal development and is necessary for maintaining body temperature? Select one.
A. Substantia nigra B. Hypothalamus C. Adrenal gland D. Cerebral cortex |
B. Hypothalamus
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90. What are some processes that occur in the nervous system during childhood? Choose 3 answers
A. The brain reaches its maximum weight. B. Few new neurons form after birth. C. The nervous system continues to mature through myelination. D. The nervous system is formed after birth. E. Neuromuscular coordination progresses in a proximal to distal direction. |
A. The brain reaches its maximum weight.
C. The nervous system continues to mature through myelination. D. The nervous system is formed after birth. |
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91. Which of the following body system changes take place during adolescence? Choose 3 answers
A. Androgens activate oil glands in the skin. B. Hypothalamus regulates the release of reproductive hormones. C. Musculoskeletal system grows at an increased rate. D. Muscle function and coordination decrease. E. Rate of new neuron production increases. |
A. Androgens activate oil glands in the skin.
B. Hypothalamus regulates the release of reproductive hormones. C. Musculoskeletal system grows at an increased rate. |
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92. How can aging affect the urinary system? Choose 3 answers
A. Increased occurrence of nocturia B. Decreased urgency and frequency of uriniation C. Atherosclerotic damage to kidneys D. Increased bladder size and production of more urine E. Decreased nephron efficiency |
B. Decreased urgency and frequency of uriniation C. Atherosclerotic damage to kidneys E. Decreased nephron efficiency |
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93. How does atherosclerosis impact the functioning of the cardiovascular system? Choose 3 answers
A. May cause hypertension B. Decreases cardiac output C. Increases risk of heart attack D. Lowers blood pressure E. Causes the arterial wall to fray |
B. Decreases cardiac output
C. Increases risk of heart attack E. Causes the arterial wall to fray |
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95. Classify each landmark on the body as either anterior or posterior. Select your answer from the pull-down list.
a. Orbital b. Umbilical c. Vertebral d. Olecranal e. Antecubital f. Acromial 1. Anterior 2. Posterior |
A = Anterior
B= Anterior C = Posterior D = Posterior E = Anterior F = Posterior |
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96. Which list contains structures anterior and superficial to the heart? Select one.
A. Diaphragm, external oblique muscles, and lungs B. Scapulae, latissimus dorsi, and vertebrae C. Stomach, kidney, and pancreas D. Areola, sternum, and pectoral muscles |
A. Diaphragm, external oblique muscles, and lungs
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97. Match each description with the body plane it describes. Select your answer from the pull-down list.
A cut dividing the body into even right and left sides A cut dividing the body into anterior and posterior sections A cross-sectional cut A horizontal cut dividing the body into superior and inferior parts A cut dividing the body into uneven right and left sides 1. Midsagittal plane 2. Transverse plane 3. Frontal plane 4. Sagittal plane |
A = Midsagittal Plane
B= Frontal Plane C = Transverse Plane D = Transverse Plane E = Sagital Plane |
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98. What are some differences between the ventral and dorsal body cavities? Choose 4 answers
A. The dorsal cavity holds the abdominal cavity. B. The dorsal cavity holds the cranial cavity and the spinal cavity. C. The ventral cavity is anterior to the dorsal cavity. D. The ventral cavity contains structures that are inferior to the dorsal cavity. E. The ventral cavity contains the major organs of the nervous system. F. The dorsal cavity is smaller than the ventral cavity. |
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