• Shuffle
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Alphabetize
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Front First
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Both Sides
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Read
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
Reading...
Front

Card Range To Study

through

image

Play button

image

Play button

image

Progress

1/101

Click to flip

Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;

Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;

H to show hint;

A reads text to speech;

101 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Analytical specificity (define)
Ability of an assay to measure an analyte in the presence of potentially interfering substances
Analytical sensitivity (define)
How much change in an analyte is needed for a particular assay to detect that change
Analytical accuracy (define)
Comparison between the measurement of an analyte in question and a true value or gold standard
Analytical precision (define)
Reproducibility of a test
Correlation study (define)
Used to compare measurements of an analyate between different instruments or methodologies
9 general attributes that affect a reference interval
- Age
- Sex
- Species
- Breed

- Diet
- Exercise
- Excitement
- Medications

- Collection and processing of sample
How is a reference interval established?
Testing at least 120 individuals from different populations
- May have to use less, around 60 though, for vet med.
What is an ideal reference interval?
Values obtained in the past from same patient
What amount of 'normal' animals might have values outside the reference interval?
2.5%
Three things being evaluated during Quality Control
- Instrument
- Assay method
- Operator
Reagent (define)
Used to measure amount, concentration, or activity of a particular substance
Control (define)
Solutions designed to determine precision and accuracy of an instrument
Calibrator (define)
Solutions designed to adjust or establish instrument settings for a particular assay
Diagnostic sensitivity (define)
Ability of a test to correctly identify individuals with a disease
Diagnostic specificity (define)
Ability of a test to correctly identify individuals without a disease
Prevalence (define)
Total numbers of cases of a disease in existence at a certain time in a designated population
Relationship of prevalence to PPV and NPV
As prevalence increases, PPV increases
- Vice versa for NPV
Formula for diagnostic sensitivity
[TP / (TP + FN)] x 100
Formula for diagnostic specificity
[TN / (TN + FP)] x 100
Positive predictive value (define)
Probability that an animal that tested positive for a disease, actually has the disease
Negative predictive value (define)
Probability that a animal that tested negative for a disease does not have that disease
Incidence (define)
Number of new cases of a specific disease occurring within a certain period
Positive predictive value (formula)
[TP / (TP + FP)] x 100
Negative predictive value (formula)
[TN / (TN + FN)] x 100
Hematopoiesis (define)
Formation and development of blood cells
3 granulocytes
- Neutrophils
- Basophils
- Eosinophils
4 locations of fetal hematopoiesis
- Yolk sac (first location of blood production)
- Liver
- Spleen
- Bone marrow
3 sites of post-natal hematopoiesis
- Bone marrow
- Spleen (extramedullary)
- Liver (extramedullary)
When does extramedullary hematopoiesis occur?
When demand outpaces the ability of bone marrow to produce
Two primary compartments of bone marrow
- Vascular compartment
- Hematopoietic compartment
3 primary hematopoietic cell lineages
- Stem cells
- Burst forming units (BFUs)
- Colony forming units (CFUs)
2 cells that BFUs create
- Erythrocytes
- Megakaryocytes
5 cells that CFUs create
- Erythrocytes
- Megakaryocytes
- Moncytes
- Eosinophils
- Basophils
2 differences between multipotential and pluripotential stem cells
Multipotential can renew indefinitely; gives rise to pluripotential precursor cells
- Pluripotential can also renew, but not to the same extent

Multipotential is CD34+
Pluripotential is CD34+, CD38+
What are committed precursor cells?
Precursor cells that lack capacity of unlimited self-renewal and are restricted in their differentiation potential
- Includes BFUs and CFUs
What is the platelet series? (6)
CFU - GEMM
V
BFU - Meg
V
CFU-Meg
V
Megakaryoblast
V
Megakaryocyte
V
Platelets
Erythroid series (erythropoiesis)
CFU - GEMM --> BFU - E --> CFU - E --> Rubriblast --> Prorubricyte --> Rubricyte --> Metarubricyte --> Reticulocyte --> Erythrocyte
Granulocyte series (granulopoiesis)
CFU - GM --> CFU - G --> Myeloblast --> Promyelocyte --> Myelocyte --> Metamyelocyte --> Band cell --> Segmented cell
Monocyte series (monocytopoiesis)
CFU - GM --> CFU - G --> Monoblast --> Promonocyte --> monocyte -->-->--> Macrophage (in tissue)
How long does thrombopoesis take from megakaryoblast to mature platelets?
4 - 5 days
How long does erythropoiesis take from the rubriblast to the reticulocyte stage?
4 - 5 days
What is the last stage of erythropoiesis that's capable of cell division?
Rubricyte
How much of the erythropoietic series should be rubricytes and metarubricytes?
80 - 90%
What indicates a left shift in erythropoietis?
Increase in rubriblasts and prorubricytes
How long does granulocytopoiesis take from the myeloblast to mature segmented cell stage?
4 - 6 days
Two 'compartments' involved with granulocytopoiesis
- Proliferation-mitotic compartment (mitotic pool)
- Storage-maturation compartment (storage pool)
4 stages that occur in the proliferation-mitotic compartment in granulocytopoeisis
CFU --> myeloblast --> promyelocyte --> myelocyte
3 stages that occur in the storage-maturation compartment in granulocytopoeisis
Metamyelocyte --> band cell --> segmented cell
Which stages of granulocytopoiesis are capable of division?
CFU --> myeloblast --> promyelocyte --> myelocyte
6 reasons for bone marrow evaluation
- Low numbers of cells
- High numbers of cells
- Abnormal cells
- Suspicion of neoplasia or metastasis
- Suspicion of systemic infection
- Assessment of iron stores
What species does not store iron in their bone marrow?
Cats
What must be run concurrently with a bone marrow evaluation?
CBC
What's the major growth factor that regulates erythropoiesis?
Erythropoietin
How does erythropoietin work?
Acts on CFU-E stage to prevent apoptosis of progenitor cells
Three important growth factors in granulocytopoiesis
- IL-3
- Granulocyte-macrophage Colony Stimulating Factor (GM-CSF)
- Granulocyte Colony Stimulating Factor (G-CSF)
What does Granulocyte Colony Stimulating Factor (G-CSF) do?
Stimulates neutrophil production and function
What does IL-3 do?
Expands progenitor or precursor pools in bone marrow to increase leukocyte function
What 3 cell lines does IL-3 affect?
- Megakaryocyte
- Erythroid
- Myeloid
What does Granulocyte-macrophage Colony Stimulating Factor (GM-CSF) do?
Stimulates production and function of granulocytes and macrophages
4 growth factors being used therapeutically
- Thrombopoietin
- Erythropoietin
- IL-11
- G-CSF
2 types of bone marrow biopsies
- Aspiration biopsy
- Core biopsy
What is an aspiration biopsy used for?
Cytological evaluation
What is a core biopsy used for?
Histopathological evaluation
What bone marrow biopsy technique would you use to determine cellular morphology?
Aspiration
What bone marrow biopsy technique would you use to determine overall cellularity?
Core biopsies
3 locations for bone marrow collection in dogs
- Iliac crest
- Proximal femur
- Proximal humerus
4 locations for bone marrow collection in horses
- Iliac crest
- Tuber coxae
- Sternum
- Ribs
4 locations for bone marrow collection in ruminants
- Iliac crest
- Tuber coxae
- Sternum
- Rib
2 locations for bone marrow collection in cats
- Proximal femur
- Proximal humerus
Hyperplasia (define)
Orderly increase in production of normal cells due to increased demand
Leukemia (define)
Uncontrolled, disorderly production of cells independent of demand
Myelodysplasia (define)
Marrow disorder characterized by maturation defects, abnormal morphology in several cell lines, and ineffective hematopoiesis.
Myelofibrosis (define)
Replacement of bone marrow by fibrous tissue
When should myelofibrosis be suspected? (2)
- When repeated aspiration attempts fail
- When low cellularity and spindle-shaped cells are present in aspirates
How is a definitive Dx of myelofibrosis obtained?
Histologic evaluation of a core biopsy of marrow
What should the M:E ratio be in most species?
1:1 to 3:1
What are the two components of the M:E ratio?
M: leukocyte precursors (except lymphocytes)

E: nucleated erythroid precursors
What should the M:E ratio be interpreted in the context of?
A CBC
Three causes of a increased M:E ratio
- Increased myeloids
- Decreased erythroids
- Both
What stain is used to confirm hemosiderin?
Prussian Blue
Prognosis of myelofibrosis
Poor
7 types of 'other cells' found in bone marrow
- Lymphoid cells
- Plasma cells
- Stem Cells
- Stromal cells
- Mast cells
- Osteoclasts
- Mitotic figures
5 abnormal cellular findings in bone marrow
- Increase in blast cells
- Increase in lymphoid cells
- Increase in plasma cells
- Increase in mast cells
- Metastatic neoplastic cell populations
What color is active bone marrow?
Red
Two causes of active bone marrow
- Increased demand
- Increased peripheral loss
Be sure to look over all the 'Typical Causes' of hyperplasias and hypoplasias on pages 33 - 34

"Just have an idea, don't need to memorize"
Be sure to look over all the 'Typical Causes' of hyperplasias and hypoplasias on pages 33 - 34

"Just have an idea, don't need to memorize"
What's the difference between an effective and ineffective hyperplasia?
Effective hyperplasia is an expected response to a stimulus

Ineffective hyperplasia is an unexpected response (be it lack of peripheral cellularity or what have you)
What causes an effective erythroid hyperplasia?
Erythropoietin stimulation
How does an ineffective erythroid hyperplasia present?
Increased cellularity in bone marrow, but may not have corresponding peripheral increase
What is an effective granulocytic hyperplasia generally seen with?
Ongoing stimulation with G-CSF or GM-CSF
What is an ineffective granulocytic hyperplasia characterized by?
Neutropenia in peripheral circulation with a concurrent granulocytic hyperplasia in marrow
What is an erythroid hypoplasia characterized by?
Selective decrease in erythroid percursors resulting in nonregenerative anemia
What is a myeloid or granulocytic hypoplasia characterized by?
Decreased numbers of myeloid precursors
What is an megakaryocytic hypoplasia characterized by?
Decreased number of immature and mature megakaryocytes and megakaryoblasts
Myelophthisis (define)
Replacement of normal hematopoietic tissue by a proliferation of abnormal cells
Myelitis (define)
Inflammation of bone marrow
Bone marrow necrosis (define)
Refers to bone marrow in which necrosis is the primary or predominant abnormality
2 general causes of myelofibrosis
- Sequelae to a generalized bone marrow damage (ex radiation, toxin, ischemia)
- Sequelae to neoplasia
3 general causes of myelophthisis
- Leukemia
- Myelofibrosis
- Inflammatory osteomyelitis
General cause of myelitis
Infection
4 general causes of bone marrow necrosis
- Toxicants
- Hypoxia
- Feline panleukopenia
- Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)