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20 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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A-24. What causes left sided heart failure and what are its consequences?
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1.) Ischemic HD 2.) Arterial HTN 3.) Valvular disease
Leads to: pulm congestion (dyspnea/orthopnea); renal hypoperfusion (salt retention) |
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A-24. What causes right sided heart failure and what are its consequences?
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1.) Left sided HF 2.) lung disease 3.) primary pulm HTN
Leads to: increased venous pressure (edema, liver congestion, ascites) |
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A-24. What are the causes of Acute and Subacute endocarditis?
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Acute: Staph. aureus; Streptococci
Subacute: Strep. viridans; gram -ve bacilli |
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A-24. What are the key features of Fibrinous Pericarditis?
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Transmural MI, Dressler Syndrome, "bread and butter" appearence
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A-24. C & C acute rheumatic vs. rheumatic heart disease
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Acute: 1-4 weeks after tonsillitis; common in 5-15yo
RHD: occurs many years after rheumatic fever and often asymptomatic; Fibrotic, deformed, calcified lines of closure on valve leaflets --> mitral valve>aortic valve |
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A-24. What are the key features of Emphysema and Chronic Bronchitis?
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Emphysema: "pink puffers," barrel chest; panacinar, a-1 antitrypsin deficiency, low lobes
CB: "blue bloaters," chronic irritation/infection, hypertrophy of submucosal glands |
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A-24. What is the REID Index equation?
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Glands (B)/Wall (A): ratio between the thickness of submucosal mucus secreting glands and the wall thickness b/t epithelium and cartilage of the bronchi
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A-24. What are the key features of Hypersensitivity Pneumonitis?
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Acute: type III - fever, cough, dyspnea, leukocytosis
Chronic: type IV - peribronchial granulomas Farmer's lung, pigeon breeder's lung, etc |
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A-24. What are the main causes of pulmonary edema?
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Decreased oncotic pressure, LSHF, mitral stenosis, Pulm vein obstruction, increased hydrostatic pressure, lymp obstruction, microvascualr injury
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A-24. Lobar pneumonia is caused by....?
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Pneumococcus and Klebsiella
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A-24. What are the non-smoking related benign lung tumors?
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Adenoma, Leiomyoma, Hamartoma
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A-24. What's the diference between nephritic and nephrotic syndrome?
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Nephritic: hematuria, RBC casts, post strep GN
Nephrotifc: severe proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, hyperlipidemia, edema |
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A-24. Which GN pathologies are associated with subepi/endothelial deposits?
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Diffuse Proliferative: subepithelial
Membranous: subepithelial deposits of immune complexes Membrano-proliferative: Subendothelial or intra-membranous deposits of immune complexes |
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A-24. Whick urolithiasis like acidic and/or alkaline environments?
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Alkaline: calcium, Mg-NH3-Phospahte
Acidic: uric acid, cystine |
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A-24. Which VDs cause painless and/or painful chancres?
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Painful: genital herpes (HSV1 & 2), Chancroid (H. ducreyi)
Painless: C. trachomatis, T. pallidum |
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A-24. Yolk sac germ cell tumors (testicles) has what key features?
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Most common in children, serum AFP increased, very aggressive
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A-24. What ovarian germ cell tumor is also known for increased AFP?
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Endodermal Sinus Tumor
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A-24. What are the risk factors for endometrial carcinoma?
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>40yo, early menarche, late menopause, nulliparity, obesity
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A-24.C & C complete vs. partial hydatidiform moles.
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Complete: no embryo or placenta, 46,XX of paternal origin only
Partial: embryo and placenta present, tri or tetraploid karyotype |
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A-24. C & C fibrocystic changes and breast cancer.
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Fibro Changes: often bilat, mult nodules, menstral variation, may regress during pregnancy
Breast Cancer: often unilateral, single mass, no cyclic variations |
