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50 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Which of the following require an ARTR? |
A tail number change, an MEL change that is operationally limiting, or a reduction in takeoff fuel (among other reasons) all require an ARTR
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During domestic operations, an alternate must be listed for each destination airport in the flight release. However, no alternate is required for a destination airport if for at least one (1) hour before to one (1) hour after the estimated time of arrival at the destination airport, the weather reports or forecasts, or any combination of these indicate which of the following?
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The ceiling will be at least 2000′ above the airport elevation and the visibility will be at least 3 miles
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The dispatcher must designate two alternates for your destination under what conditions? |
When the destination forcast weather conditions are at destination minimums and the alternate forcasted weather conditions are at alternate minimums, one additional alternate must be designated. |
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A takeoff alternate may be identified in your flight release. If it is, for two engine aircraft, the departure alternate must be within one hour or 300 NM. For three or more engine aircraft, the departure alternate must be within two hours or 600 NM. When is a takeoff alternate required? |
When the weather at the departure airport is below CAT I landing minimums |
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If an airport with at least two operational navigational facilities, each providing a straight-in approach procedure to different suitable runways is used as an alternate, the forecast ceiling and visibility (at the ETA) must be at or above what minima? |
Add 200′ to higher MDA(H) or DA(H) of the two approaches used. Add 1/2 SM or 800m (700m outside the United States) to the higher authorized landing minimum of the two approaches used |
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If the destination weather goes below minimums while enroute, are you required to immediately divert to your designated alternate? |
No. The flight may continue to the destination unless the Captain or Flight Control determines the flight cannot be conducted safely. Consider factors such as alternate weather, fuel onboard and weather trends at both the destination and alternate when deciding if the flight is safe to continue. Weather below minimums at the destination generally does not signify an unsafe condition if the aircraft has fuel to proceed from the destination to the alternate |
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While enroute, if the alternate airport weather forecast is amended to indicate weather will be below alternate minimums at the time the aircraft would arrive at the alternate airport, what is required? |
Flight Control must issue an ARTR for a new alternate and it must be recorded on the flight release |
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The term “Island Reserve” refers to a two hour fuel reserve planned on flights where no alternate is available. Flights to the following airports are authorized to use island reserve fuel reserves: Agana, Guam Island PGUM/GUM Honolulu, HI PHNL/HNL Nadi, Fiji NFFN/NAN Sydney, Australia YSSY/SYD On island reserve flights, the following rules for fuel consumption apply: • To fly to and land at the airport to which released • To fly for an additional two hours at normal fuel consumption What weather limitations apply specifically to these routes? |
The weather at the destination airport at the estimated time of arrival will be greater than a 1000′ ceiling and three miles visibility and a Flight Movement Forecast (FMF) for the destination airport is not authorized |
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Regarding altimetry procedures when departing an airport, crews must brief and maintain their transition altitude awareness to prevent leveling off at a flight level (which is based on QNE) with QNH still set in the altimeters. The standard procedure is to change from QNH to QNE (STD) upon leaving the transition altitude. Which of the following is correct concerning altimeter procedures passing the transition altitude? |
When the transition altitude occurs very quickly after takeoff, or when climbing to an assigned flight level close to the transition altitude, the Captain may deviate from the standard altimeter change procedure described above to the extent necessary to assure compliance with assigned altitudes |
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Regarding altimetry procedures when arriving at an airport, crews must brief and maintain theirtransition level awareness to prevent leveling off at an altitude (or conducting an approach orlanding) with QNE still set in the altimeters. The standard procedure is to change from QNE(STD) to QNH upon leaving the transition level. Which of the following is correct concerningaltimeter procedures passing the transition level?
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When the transition level is below FL100, or when descending to an assigned altitude close to the transition level, the Captain may deviate from the standard altimeter change procedure described above to the extent necessary to assure compliance with assigned altitudes |
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In addition to the callouts to be performed when passing either the transition altitude or transition level, both crewmembers are also responsible for which of the following? |
Both crewmembers are responsible for ensuring that all altimeters are set correctly and all altitudes crosschecked |
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Do not initiate turns below what altitude unless complying with Air Traffic Control (ATC) or noise abatement directions? |
400′ Above Ground Level (AGL) |
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Concerning the procedures to be followed anytime an RNAV SID is being used for departure, which of the following is correct? |
For Line-Up/Takeoff, if takeoff instructions are to depart via an RNAV path, the clearance will direct the flight to fly the required RNAV path to the initial waypoint on the SID. A typical takeoff clearance will state, for example, “UPS 123, RNAV to MPASS, Runway 26L, cleared for takeoff”. After verifying that the correct runway and departure are loaded and the correct lateral navigation mode is available and ready for use after takeoff, the expected pilot response is, “UPS 123, RNAV to MPASS, Runway 26L, cleared for takeoff” |
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Regarding RVSM minimum altimetry system requirements, which of the following equipment is required to be operating prior to entering RVSM airspace? |
Two independent primary altimeter systems, one automatic altitude hold system, one altitude alerting device and the transponder (altitude reporting) |
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Concerning RVSM Phraseology, if you need to report to ATC that you are unable to maintain RVSM due to severe turbulence or equipment degraded below RVSM requirements, what is the correct phraseology? |
"Unable RVSM due Turbulence” or “Unable RVSM due Equipment” as appropriate |
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Standard Arrival (STAR) procedures often contain both lateral and vertical restrictions. When being cleared for an arrival, pay particular attention to whether or not just the lateral, or both the lateral and vertical profiles, are to be flown. Which of the following is correct regarding the specific phraseology to be used by ATC and flight crews during arrival and approach? |
“Cleared XXX arrival.” This clearance provides authorization to fly the lateral route. Altitude assignments will be issued by ATC. “Cleared XXX arrival and profile.” This clearance provides authorization to fly the arrival as published, including the vertical constraints depicted on the procedure |
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Regarding stabilized approaches, an approach is considered stable when the following conditions are met: • Aircraft is in the landing configuration and the landing checklist has been completed • Airspeed is within +10 or -5 knots of computed final approach speed* • Sink rate is 1000′ per minute or less and stable** • Aircraft is on a stable vertical path that will result in landing within the touchdown zone • Engine thrust is stabilized at a level that results in target speed (as listed above) • Aircraft is aligned with the lateral confines of the runway by 200′ Above Field Elevation (AFE) NOTE: *Airspeed must be within 5 knots of target by 500′ AFE. NOTE: **Vertical speed up to 1200′ per minute may be acceptable under approach conditions that require higher airspeeds/groundspeeds due to non-normal aircraft system configuration. All approaches must be stabilized by what distance above field elevation? |
All approaches must be stabilized by 1000′ AFE. During an instrument approach, crews are encouraged to stabilize the approach prior to 1000′ AFE |
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When you accept traffic information and instructions to follow a heavy jet in Visual Meteorological Conditions, you are responsible for providing your own wake turbulence separation. When you accept a visual approach behind a heavy jet during IFR operations, you are responsible for providing your own wake turbulence separation. Your acceptance of a clearance to follow an aircraft in VMC conditions is acknowledgement to ATC of what two requirements? |
That you see the aircraft and can maintain visual separation |
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Because heavy turbojet aircraft and the B757 produce strong wake turbulence, crewmembers of those aircraft should follow which of the following guidelines to minimize the effect of their wake turbulence on others? |
Fly the ILS glide path or a three degree glidepath, remain on the approach course or extended runway centerline, cross the runway threshold 50′ above TDZE and land within the touchdown zone
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Flight crews may accept a visual approach if what minimum weather conditions exist? |
Ceiling: 1000′, Visibility: 3 SM and maintain at least 1000′ above, 500′ below and 2000′ horizontal separation from all clouds |
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A Category (CAT) I precision approach is an Instrument approach with which of the following minima? |
A Decision Altitude (DA), or Minimum Descent Altitude (MDA) not lower than 200′ Height Above Touchdown (HAT) with either a visibility not less than ½ Statute Mile (SM)/(800m), or a Runway Visual Range (RVR) not less than 1800′ (550m) |
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When executing a CAT I ILS approach in visibility reported or expected to be at or below 3/4 mile or 4000 RVR, the auto coupler must be used, if operable. • B757/767, MD11, B747-400: An autoland is recommended • A300: An autoland is recommended if the runway is authorized for CAT II/III operations If the auto coupler is inoperative or the approach must be hand flown for any reason, what else must be done? |
The Captain must fly the approach |
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Regarding both precision and non-precision approaches, what is the requirement concerning ceiling and visibility to begin a CAT I approach? |
Adequate visibility is the only requirement to begin an approach. Ceiling is not a requirement to begin an approach unless explicitly stated on the approach chart. The ceiling can be zero. If adequate visibility is reported at or above charted visibility, the approach can be commenced |
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LAHSO will be conducted only to runways with approved LAHSO lighting configurations. What is LAHSO lighting? |
A set of six pulsating white lights across the runway at the hold short point |
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Which of the following reports must always be made to ATC or FSS facilities without their specific request? |
When on other than published routes, the pilot should include the presently assigned routing on initial contact with each air traffic controller (i.e., “Houston Center, UPS 751, Level 240, Heading 050.”) |
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What source code will be used to make the post flight logbook write-up stating “CPDLC used during the flight“ whenever the CPDLC is used to communicate with Air Traffic Control? |
P |
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What navigation equipment must a flight have prior to oceanic entry? |
One operative FMC, two operable IRUs and two operable MCDUs |
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How do you unlock the other two CRPs when one CRP shows “PANEL FAIL” on its display? |
Pull the circuit breaker for the CRP displaying “PANEL FAIL” |
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When carrying BCF, where must you look to crosscheck the total fuel quantity on board with the fuel matrix and flight planned fuel? |
The fuel synoptic display (then add the fuel number in white and the ballast in cyan) |
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What is the crosswind component of the following landing winds? Landing in KSDF on 35L winds are 316 at 35kts |
18 kts |
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What conditions require using wet data for runway calculations? |
Active precipitation is present, or visibility is less than 3/4 mile or RVR less than 4000 |
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Which of the following system controllers are directed by the Environmental System Controller (ESC)? |
Cabin pressure controllers, manifold failure controller |
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Which of the following conditions will cause the AVNCS FAN OVRD to initiate the override process and illuminate the AVNCS FAN OVRD switch? |
Low flow through the avionics, cabin inflow is too low for pressurization and cabin altitude >10,000′ |
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With the Air system in AUTO and smoke detected on the main cargo deck, pushing the Cabin Air Switch to OFF does what? |
Closes the main cargo deck conditioned air shutoff valve and reduces to single pack operation |
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Below what altitude will pushing the go-around switch in flight with flaps down or slats extended engage the FD go-around mode? |
2500 AGL |
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What is changed by LSAS to prevent an overspeed? |
Pitch |
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When windshear is detected on approach, what must be done to activate guidance? |
Push the GA button or advance the throttles above 95% |
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What is the max allowable tolerance between cross-side and standby altimeters at FL250? |
Cross-side 60′ Standby 250′ |
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To prevent possible damage, fuel feed is continued to the APU whether from a tank 2 boost pump or the DC start pump after a shutdown has been commanded for how long? |
90 seconds |
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During a normal APU start; starter operation, fuel scheduling, ignition and surge bleed airflow are controlled by? |
Electronic Control Unit (ECU) |
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When the electrical power source is available and selected ON, what is the power source priority for the AC tie bus? |
External power, any IDG |
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Below what engine speed will disconnecting an IDG cause damage to the IDG input shaft and seal? |
Ground idle |
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Why does the Level 3 CRG FIRE LWR ____ checklist directs you to turn the associated cargo flow switch to OFF? |
To prevent restoration of ventilation to the compartment when the smoke or overheat condition is no longer detected |
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What altitude are all TCAS voice warnings inhibited below? |
500′ AGL (+/-100′) |
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Tail fuel management is only allowed if the fuel quantity exceeds what level at termination of refueling? |
60,000 lbs. |
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Fuel in main tanks 1 and 3 must be above what level for cold fuel recirculation to occur? |
13,500 |
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Which of the following is true when the fuel DUMP switch is activated? |
Dump switch illuminates amber, all transfer pumps turn on and all crossfeed valves open |
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For engine 2, what prevents reverse thrust increase above idle until the Nosewheel Ground Sensing switch has closed and the reverser is more than 90% deployed? |
FADEC |
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Automatic control of the ignition system is provided by? |
Miscellaneous Systems Controller |
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When are Level 3 alerts and associated MASTER WARNING lights inhibited during landing? |
They are not inhibited during landing |
