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50 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
The definitive diagnosis of central
malignancy of the jawbone is made on A. clinical examination. B. radiographic translucency and loss of trabeculation. C. exfoliative cytology. D. biopsy. E. All of the above. |
D. biopsy
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Which of the following epithelial changes
is most likely to be precancerous? A. Acanthosis. B. Hyperkeratosis. C. Parakeratosis. D. Dysplasia. |
D. Dysplasia.
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A tourniquet test gives information as to
A. clot retraction time. B. capillary fragility. C. bleeding time. D. coagulation time. E. platelet activity. |
B. capillary fragility.
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The most common clinical finding in the
diagnosis of an acute periapical abscess is A. mobility of the tooth. B. pain on percussion. C. discoloration of the crown. D. presence of a cellulitis. E. lymph node enlargement |
B. pain on percussion.
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Smooth, irregular, red patches surrounded
by a white border on the dorsal surface of the tongue is indicative of A. fissured tongue. B. geographic tongue. C. black hairy tongue. D. red raspberry tongue. |
B. geographic tongue.
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The characteristic oral lesion(s) of
pemphigus is/are A. vesicles and bullae. B. Fordyce's granules. C. white plaques. D. hairy tongue. E. candidiasis (candidosis). |
A. vesicles and bullae.
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Typical history of a mucocele is
A. a slowly growing tumor mass. B. a pain immediately before eating. C. a trauma, swelling, rupture, disappearance, recurrence. D. an ulcerated area on buccal mucosa. E. frequent bleeding. |
C. a trauma, swelling, rupture,
disappearance, recurrence. |
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A distinctive clinical entity originating as
a proliferative response of the soft tissue of the oral mucosa to a non-specific irritant is called A. cellulitis. B. abscess. C. pyogenic granuloma. D. "canker sore". E. None of the above. |
C. pyogenic granuloma.
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Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis affects
MAINLY the A. attached gingivae. B. gingival papillae. C. alveolar mucosa. D. buccal mucosa. E. epithelial attachment |
B. gingival papillae.
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In a 10-year old child with a normal mixed
dentition and healthy periodontal tissues, removal of the labial frenum (frenectomy) is indicated when a diastema is present and A. the frenum is located at the mucogingival junction. B. the papilla does not blanch when tension is placed on the frenum. C. the frenum is located on the attached gingiva. D. the papilla blanches when tension is placed on the frenum. |
D. the papilla blanches when tension is
placed on the frenum. |
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Median palatine cysts are classified as
A. developmental. B. residual. C. idiopathic. D. odontogenic. |
A. developmental.
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A patient with xerostomia complains that
he has to sip water when chewing food. Which salivary gland(s) is most likely responsible for the lack of lubrication? A. Submandibular. B. Labial. C. Parotid. D. Sublingual. |
A. Submandibular.
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A diabetic patient collapses during dental
treatment and you suspect that the cause is hypoglycemia. The patient is still conscious. Your immediate treatment is A. a subcutaneous injection of 10~units soluble insulin. B. a subcutaneous injection of 5~units soluble insulin. C. a drink of oral glucose or sugar. D. intravenous glucose - 25g. |
C. a drink of oral glucose or sugar.
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A patient returns with persistent bleeding
5 hours after a tooth has been removed. The most appropriate management is to A. give 10 mg of Vitamin K intramuscularly. B. have patient bite on gauze saturated with epinephrine. C. place absorbable gelatin sponge in the socket and suture. D. refer the patient for bleeding and coagulation tests. |
B. have patient bite on gauze saturated
with epinephrine. |
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The best method of treatment of a nondisplaced
fracture of the body of the mandible in an edentulous patient is A. K-wire insertion without immobilization. B. open reduction and lower border wiring without immobilization. C. open reduction and lower border wiring plus immobilization. D. use of splint or lower denture with circumferential wiring. |
D. use of splint or lower denture with
circumferential wiring. |
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Which of the following is NOT an
indication for the removal of impacted mandibular third molars? A. Recurrent pericoronitis. B. Crowding of incisors. C. Pain. D. Resorption of the distal aspect of the second molar. |
B. Crowding of incisors.
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Patients with a history of ankle swelling,
shortness of breath and orthopnea are probably suffering from A. asthma. B. emphysema. C. congestive heart failure. D. constrictive pericarditis. |
C. congestive heart failure.
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A patient is not able to close her left eye,
wrinkle her forehead or smile on the left side. The most likely diagnosis is A. contralateral subarachnoid hemorrhage. B. fracture of the base of the skull. C. Horner's syndrome. D. acute mastoiditis. E. facial nerve paralysis (Bell's palsy). |
E. facial nerve paralysis (Bell's palsy).
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A healthy 66 year old patient who had a
myocardial infarct eight years previously requires an extraction. Your treatment is to A. admit the patient to hospital for extraction with local anesthesia. B. admit the patient to hospital for extraction with general anesthesia. C. extract the tooth in your office using preoperative sedation and local anesthesia without a vasoconstrictor. D. treat the patient as you would a normal patient. |
C. extract the tooth in your office using
preoperative sedation and local anesthesia without a vasoconstrictor. |
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In a patient with liver disease, a possible
complication is A. syncope or shock. B. postoperative infection. C. prolonged bleeding. D. allergic reaction to the anesthetic solution. |
C. prolonged bleeding.
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An antipyretic drug
A. reduces fever. B. provides analgesia. C. causes loss of consciousness. D. creates heat sensitivity. E. counters the tendency for epileptic seizures |
A. reduces fever.
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Which of the following antibiotics may be
cross-allergenic with penicillin? A. Neomycin. B. Cephalexin. C. Clindamycin. D. Erythromycin. E. Tetracycline. |
B. Cephalexin.
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The most common systemic side effect of
erythromycin is A. gastrointestinal. B. dermatologic. C. hematologic. D. cardiovascular |
A. gastrointestinal.
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Which of the following drugs is used for
preoperative sedation? A. Propoxyphene. B. Phenylbutazone. C. Diazepam. D. Atropine. |
C. Diazepam.
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Thiopentone sodium (Pentothal) provides
all of the following advantages EXCEPT A. smooth pleasant induction. B. good sleep production. C. rapid recovery. D. acceptability for both young and old. E. adequate length of operating time. |
E. adequate length of operating time.
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Patient nausea during nitrous oxide
administration is an indication that the patient A. is nervous. B. has not eaten for some time. C. is allergic to nitrous oxide. D. has received the nitrous oxide too quickly. |
D. has received the nitrous oxide too
quickly. |
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The use of conscious sedation for a
restorative procedure in an office environment A. requires the services of an anesthetist. B. is contraindicated in children. C. precludes the use of local anesthesia. D. requires effective local anesthesia. E. may be used in conjunction with narcotics. |
D. requires effective local anesthesia.
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The left infraorbital nerve block
anaesthetizes A. all maxillary teeth on the left side. B. the maxillary premolar on the left side, canine and incisor teeth. C. the left maxillary canine and incisor teeth only. D. the entire left maxillary sinus. E. the entire left naso-lacrimal duct. |
B. the maxillary premolar on the left
side, canine and incisor teeth. |
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The first sensation lost after administration
of a local anesthetic is A. pain. B. touch. C. pressure. D. proprioception. |
A. pain.
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Which of the following local anesthetics is
subject to inactivation by plasma esterases? A. Procaine. B. Lidocaine. C. Prilocaine. D. Mepivacaine. E. Bupivacaine. |
A. Procaine.
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Protracted use of tetracycline may produce
symptoms of vitamin K deficiency because tetracycline A. is detoxified by the liver. B. combines chemically with vitamin K. C. inhibits growth of intestinal bacteria. D. interferes with the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin. |
C. inhibits growth of intestinal bacteria.
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The most important therapeutic measure to
be taken in a case of barbiturate poisoning is to A. alkalinize the urine. B. aspirate stomach contents. C. administer a CNS stimulant. D. assure adequate respiration. |
D. assure adequate respiration.
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The therapeutic index of a drug is the ratio
of A. the effective dose to the toxic dose. B. half the toxic dose to half the effective dose. C. the maximum tolerated dose to the minimum effective dose. D. the lethal dose for 50 of animals to the effective dose for 50 of animals. |
D. the lethal dose for 50 of animals to
the effective dose for 50 of animals. |
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The short action of certain barbiturates is
due to A. rapid redistribution. B. rapid renal excretion. C. rapid metabolism. D. build up of tolerance. E. conjugation with serum proteins |
A. rapid redistribution.
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Which of the following does NOT relieve
pain? A. Codeine. B. Methadone. C. Meperidine. D. Hydromorphone. E. Chloral hydrate. |
E. Chloral hydrate.
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Administration of succinylcholine to a
patient deficient in serum cholinesterase would most likely result in A. convulsions. B. hypertension. C. prolonged apnea. D. acute asthmatic attack. |
C. prolonged apnea
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A major secondary therapeutic use of the
phenothiazines is as an A. antiemetic. B. antidepressant. C. anticonvulsant. D. antihypertensive |
A. antiemetic.
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penicillin therapy,
A. bacteria should be tested for penicillin-sensitivity. B. you should assume that a gramnegative organism is the causative agent. C. penicillin allergy should be suspected. D. the dose of penicillin should be increased |
B. you should assume that a gramnegative
organism is the causative agent. |
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Which antibiotic is chiefly bactericidal?
A. Penicillin. B. Erythromycin. C. Tetracycline. D. Chloramphenicol. E. Clindamycin. |
A. Penicillin.
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The principal difference between
potassium, procaine and benzathine salts of penicillin G is their A. potency. B. toxicity. C. duration of action. D. antibacterial spectrum. E. diffusion into the cerebrospinal fluid. |
C. duration of action.
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During drug-receptor interaction, local
anesthetics interfere with the transport of which of the following ions? A. Sodium. B. Calcium. C. Chloride. D. Potassium. E. Magnesium. |
A. Sodium.
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Which of the following drugs does NOT
have a tendency to produce blood dyscrasia? A. Codeine. B. Indomethacin. C. Phenylbutazone. D. Chloramphenicol. |
A. Codeine.
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Atropine acts as a/an
A. sympatheticomimetic. B. anticholinergic. C. antispasmodic. D. antiemetic. |
B. anticholinergic.
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All of the following are possible effects of
acetylsalicylic acid except A. reduction of fever. B. shortening of bleeding time. C. suppression of inflammatory response. D. bleeding from the gastrointestinal tract. |
B. shortening of bleeding time.
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Which properties increase the tendency of
a drug to cross membranes? A. Non-ionized and high lipid solubility. B. Non-ionized and low lipid solubility. C. Ionized and low lipid solubility. D. Ionized and water solubility |
A. Non-ionized and high lipid
solubility |
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A natural alkaloid obtained from opium is
A. Hydromorphone. B. Meperidine. C. Methadone. D. Codeine. E. None of the above |
D. Codeine.
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In facial injury management, the most
important first aid measure is to A. control the bleeding. B. prevent shock. C. establish and maintain an airway. D. control infection. |
C. establish and maintain an airway.
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Which of the following drugs is used in
treating opioid-dependent individuals? A. Codeine. B. Methadone. C. Alphaprodine. D. Pentazocine. E. Meperidine. |
B. Methadone
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Bradycardia is a term that describes a heart
rate of A. less than 60 per minute. B. 61-80 per minute. C. 81-100 per minute. D. over 100 per minute |
A. less than 60 per minute.
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A dento-alveolar abscess most frequently
originates from (a) A. post-extraction infection. B. trauma. C. periodontal cyst. D. pulpal necrosis |
D. pulpal necrosis
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