2010 Released Qs And Ans34

Front 1

Which of the following, if left untreated, is
most likely to result in a periapical lesion?
A. Internal resorption.
B. Reversible pulpitis.
C. Acute suppurative pulpitis.
D. Chronic hyperplastic pulpitis.
E. Diffuse calcification of the pulp.

Back 1

C. Acute suppurative pulpitis.

Front 2

In X-ray equipment, kilovoltage controls
1. contrast.
2. speed of electrons.
3. amount of radiation produced.
4. penetrating power of radiation.
5. temperature of the cathode filament.

Back 2

1. contrast.
2. speed of electrons.
4. penetrating power of radiation.

Front 3

Which of the following should be done
prior to pin hole placement in an extensive
amalgam preparation?
1. Examine the radiograph.
2. Determine the subgingival anatomic
contours.
3. Remove caries and unsupported
enamel.
4. Place a pilot hole at the dentinoenamel
junction.

Back 3

1. Examine the radiograph.
2. Determine the subgingival anatomic
contours.
3. Remove caries and unsupported
enamel.

Front 4

Using pins to retain amalgam restorations
increases the risk of
1. cracks in the teeth.
2. pulp exposures.
3. thermal sensitivity.
4. periodontal ligament invasion.

Back 4

E. All of the above.

Front 5

In pin-retained restorations, the pin holes
should be parallel to the
A. long axis of the tooth.
B. nearest external surface.
C. pulp chamber.
D. axial wall.

Back 5

B. nearest external surface.

Front 6

The use of cavity varnish under an
amalgam restoration will
1. have a bactericidal effect.
2. decrease marginal leakage.
3. stimulate secondary dentine
formation.
4. decrease tooth discolouration.

Back 6

2. decrease marginal leakage.
4. decrease tooth discolouration.

Front 7

Enlargement of the thyroid gland can be
caused by
A. insufficient fluoride.
B. excess iodine.
C. insufficient iodine.
D. excess calcium.
E. excess sodium.

Back 7

C. insufficient iodine.

Front 8

Cements used as cavity liners
A. provide a barrier to the passage of
irritants from restorative materials.
B. reduce sensitivity of freshly cut
dentin.
C. provide thermal insulation to the
pulp.
D. All of the above.

Back 8

D. All of the above.

Front 9

Which of the following conditions is
characterized by abnormally large pulp
chambers?
A. Amelogenesis imperfecta.
B. Regional odontodysplasia.
C. Dentinogenesis imperfecta.
D. Dentinal dysplasia Type I.

Back 9

B. Regional odontodysplasia.

Front 10

Which of the following has the highest
rate of recurrence?
A. Odontogenic keratocyst.
B. Nasoalveolar cyst.
C. Median palatal cyst.
D. Incisive canal cyst.

Back 10

A. Odontogenic keratocyst.

Front 11

Erratic and inconsistent electric pulp test
results can be explained by
A. the presence of multiple canals in
various stages of pulp pathosis.
B. failure to isolate and dry the tooth.
C. pulpal calcification.
D. poor contact between the electrode
and the tooth.
E. All of the above.

Back 11

E. All of the above.

Front 12

Hyperplastic lingual tonsils may resemble
which of the following?
A. Epulis fissuratum.
B. Lingual varicosities.
C. Squamous cell carcinoma.
D. Median rhomboid glossitis.
E. Prominent fungiform papillae.

Back 12

C. Squamous cell carcinoma.

Front 13

In the bisecting angle principle of intraoral
radiography, the radiopacity that can
obliterate the apices of maxillary molars is
the
A. maxillary sinus.
B. palatine bone and the zygoma.
C. orbital process of the zygomatic
bone.
D. zygoma and the zygomatic process of
the maxilla.

Back 13

D. zygoma and the zygomatic process of
the maxilla.

Front 14

Radiographically, the lamina dura is a
A. thick layer of bone forming the inner
surface of the alveolus.
B. thin radiolucent line around the roots
of the teeth.
C. thick layer of cortical bone.
D. thin radiopaque line around the roots
of the teeth.

Back 14

D. thin radiopaque line around the roots
of the teeth.

Front 15

The anatomical landmarks used to help
establish the location of the posterior
palatal seal of a maxillary complete
denture include the
A. pterygomaxillary notches and the
fovea palatinae.
B. pterygomaxillary notches and the
posterior nasal spine.
C. posterior border of the tuberosities
and the posterior border of the
palatine bone.
D. anterior border of the tuberosities,
the palatine raphe and the posterior
border of the palatine bone.

Back 15

C. posterior border of the tuberosities
and the posterior border of the
palatine bone.

Front 16

If an impression were taken with a
mercaptan rubber base material of teeth
exhibiting severe external undercuts a
stone model should be poured
A. immediately.
B. after 30 minutes.
C. after 24 hours.
D. None of the above.

Back 16

B. after 30 minutes.

Front 17

Irreversible hydrocolloid materials are best
removed from the mouth by
A. a quick snap.
B. a slow teasing motion.
C. twisting and rocking.
D. having the patient create a positive
pressure.

Back 17

A. a quick snap.

Front 18

To improve denture stability, mandibular
molar teeth should normally be placed
A. over the crest of the mandibular
ridge.
B. buccal to the crest of the mandibular
ridge.
C. over the buccal shelf area.
D. lingual to the crest of the mandibular
ridge.

Back 18

B. buccal to the crest of the mandibular
ridge.

Front 19

Upon setting, a mixture of plaster of Paris
and water will exhibit
A. loss in compressive strength.
B. expansion.
C. gain in moisture content.
D. contraction.

Back 19

B. expansion.

Front 20

Prevention of gingival irritation by a major
connector of a removable partial denture is
accomplished by
A. using split palatal bars.
B. reducing the size of the connector.
C. ensuring maximum distribution of
occlusal forces.
D. providing relief between the
connector and the gingiva.

Back 20

D. providing relief between the
connector and the gingiva.

Front 21

Extreme resorption of an edentulous
mandible can bring the alveolar ridge to
the level of the attachment of the
A. buccinator, styloglossus and
geniohyoid muscles.
B. mylohyoid, buccinator and
styloglossus muscles.
C. superior constrictor, mylohyoid and
buccinator muscles.
D. mylohyoid, buccinator and
genioglossus muscles.

Back 21

D. mylohyoid, buccinator and
genioglossus muscles.

Front 22

Following orthodontic alignment, relapse
of the mandibular incisors cannot
A. be predicted from characteristics of
the original malocclusion.
B. occur if the second or third molars
are removed.
C. occur if retainers are worn until the
mandibular growth is complete.
D. occur if a supracrestal fiberotomy is
performed.

Back 22

A. be predicted from characteristics of
the original malocclusion.

Front 23

In patients with cleft palates there may be
A. an increase in supernumerary teeth.
B. an increase in congenitally missing
teeth.
C. a higher incidence of crown defects.
D. All of the above.

Back 23

D. All of the above.

Front 24

When uprighting a molar to be used as a
bridge abutment, consideration must be
given to the
A. local periodontium.
B. vertical changes due to tipping of the
molar.
C. residual space for a pontic.
D. use of fixed appliances for optimum
control.
E. All of the above.

Back 24

E. All of the above.

Front 25

Before performing surgery on a patient
who is taking warfarin, which of the
following should be evaluated?
A. Bleeding time.
B. Clotting time.
C. Prothrombin time.
D. Coagulation time.

Back 25

C. Prothrombin time.

Front 26

Normal sulcular epithelium in man is
1. nonkeratinized.
2. squamous.
3. stratified.
4. nonpermeable.

Back 26

1. nonkeratinized.
2. squamous.
3. stratified.

Front 27

The arrangement and character of the
principal fibres of the periodontal ligament
are modified by
A. tooth morphology.
B. occlusal function.
C. cementum.
D. alveolar bone.

Back 27

B. occlusal function.

Front 28

Tachycardia is a term which describes a
pulse rate of
A. less than 50.
B. less than 60.
C. less than 70.
D. more than 70.

Back 28

D. more than 70.

Front 29

Juvenile periodontitis
A. is associated with gram-negative
anaerobic flora.
B. is associated with gram-positive
anaerobic flora.
C. is associated with root caries.
D. has a definite predilection toward
males.

Back 29

A. is associated with gram-negative
anaerobic flora.

Front 30

The severity of the course of periodontal
disease depends upon the
A. resistance of the host.
B. virulence of the organism.
C. number of organisms present.

Back 30

A. resistance of the host.
B. virulence of the organism.
C. number of organisms present.

Front 31

Which of the following has/have
analgesic, antipyretic and antiinflammatory
effects?
A. Acetominophen.
B. Acetylsalicylic acid.
C. Bradykinin.
D. A. and B.
E. None of the above.

Back 31

B. Acetylsalicylic acid.

Front 32

The depth of penetration of any object by
x-rays is determined by
1. milliamperage.
2. density of the object.
3. exposure time.
4. kilovoltage.

Back 32

2. density of the object.
4. kilovoltage.

Front 33

Increased radiographic density is caused
by
A. decreased mA.
B. decreased kV.
C. decreased target-object distance.
D. increased object-film distance.
E. None of the above.

Back 33

C. decreased target-object distance.

Front 34

Which of the following will increase
image sharpness on radiographs?
A. Small focal spot.
B. Long source-film distance.
C. Short object-film distance.
D. All of the above.

Back 34

D. All of the above.

Front 35

Filters are placed in the path of the x-ray
beam to
A. increase contrast.
B. reduce film density.
C. reduce exposure time.
D. reduce patient radiation dose.

Back 35

D. reduce patient radiation dose.

Front 36

The amount of radiation to a patient can be
reduced by
1. using a high speed film.
2. using an aluminum filter.
3. using low kVp.
4. increasing target-film distance.
5. decreasing target-film distance.

Back 36

1. using a high speed film.
2. using an aluminum filter.
4. increasing target-film distance.

Front 37

Which of the following modifications to
the standard procedure for mixing gypsum
products will increase the compressive
strength of the set material?
A. Adding a small amount of salt to the
water before mixing.
B. Decreasing the water/powder ratio by
a small amount.
C. Using warmer water.
D. Decreasing the mixing time.

Back 37

B. Decreasing the water/powder ratio by
a small amount.

Front 38

Which of the following properties apply to
glass ionomer cements?
1. Chemical bonding to etched dentin.
2. Non-irritating to pulpal tissue at
moderate depth.
3. Anticariogenic because of fluoride
release.

Back 38

D. All of the above.

Front 39

Particulate hydroxyapatite, when placed
subperiostially,
1. is highly biocompatible.
2. has a low incidence of secondary
infection following surgery.
3. has a tendency to migrate following
insertion.
4. induces bone formation throughout
the implanted material.

Back 39

E. All of the above.

Front 40

World epidemiological data indicates that
periodontal disease is the most likely
cause of tooth loss in the following age
group:
A. 10 - 20 years.
B. 20 - 30 years.
C. 30 - 50 years.
D. 65 - 75 years.
E. over 75 years.

Back 40

D. 65 - 75 years.

Front 41

A characteristic sign of aggressive
periodontitis in an adolescent (juvenile
periodontitis) is
A. marginal gingivitis.
B. painful, burning gingivae.
C. hyperplastic gingivitis.
D. drifting of the teeth.

Back 41

D. drifting of the teeth.

Front 42

To ensure maximum marginal strength for
an amalgam restoration the cavosurface
angle should
A. approach 45 degrees.
B. approach 90 degrees.
C. be bevelled.
D. be chamfered.

Back 42

B. approach 90 degrees.

Front 43

For an acid-etched Class III composite
resin, the cavosurface margin of the cavity
can be bevelled to
1. eliminate the need for internal
retention.
2. improve convenience form.
3. aid in finishing.
4. increase the surface area for etching.

Back 43

4. increase the surface area for etching.

Front 44

Planing the enamel at the gingival
cavosurface of a Class II amalgam
preparation on a permanent tooth
A. should result in a long bevel.
B. is contraindicated because of the low
edge strength of amalgam.
C. is unnecessary since the tooth
structure in this area is strong.
D. should remove unsupported enamel
which may fracture.
E. should result in a sharp
gingivoproximal line angle.

Back 44

D. should remove unsupported enamel
which may fracture.

Front 45

The area of the tooth that is most sensitive
during cavity preparation is
A. dentin.
B. cementum.
C. cementoenamel junction.
D. dentinoenamel junction.

Back 45

D. dentinoenamel junction.

Front 46

Which of the following clinical findings
will give the most favourable prognosis
for successful direct pulp capping?
1. No hemorrhage at the exposure site.
2. The exposure is small.
3. The tooth is hypersensitive to heat.
4. The exposure site is uncontaminated.

Back 46

2. The exposure is small
4. The exposure site is uncontaminated.

Front 47

Which of the following is/are (a) useful
guide(s) in determining a patient’s
occlusal vertical dimension?
1. Appearance.
2. Phonetics.
3. Observation of the rest position.
4. Pre-extraction profile records.

Back 47

E. All of the above.

Front 48

In taking an interocclusal wax record in a
protrusive position, the dentist should
examine the wax record to insure that
A. the incisal edges of the anterior teeth
have made contact.
B. the patient has not closed in a lateral
position.
C. all cusps have penetrated the wax
record and are in contact with the
opposing teeth.
D. there is no perforation of the wax
record.

Back 48

B. the patient has not closed in a lateral
position.

Front 49

Reduction of free-way space in complete
denture construction will
1. impair aesthetics.
2. cause the dentures to click.
3. traumatize the underlying supporting
tissues.
4. induce generalized soreness over the
ridges.

Back 49

E. All of the above.

Front 50

The retention form of a full crown
preparation can be improved by
1. reducing its taper.
2. increasing its length.
3. utilizing grooves or boxes.
4. polishing the preparation.

Back 50

1. reducing its taper.
2. increasing its length.
3. utilizing grooves or boxes.