2010 Released Qs And Ans30

Front 1

Laboratory examination of the blood of a
patient with an acute bacterial infection
would show
A. lymphocytosis.
B. leukocytosis.
C. monocytosis.
D. leukopenia.
E. eosinophilia.

Back 1

B. leukocytosis.

Front 2

The microorganisms of dental caries are
1. streptococcus mutans.
2. staphylococcus aureus.
3. lactobacillus acidophilus.
4. B-hemolytic streptococci.

Back 2

1. streptococcus mutans.
3. lactobacillus acidophilus.

Front 3

Radiographically, the anterior palatine
foramen may be mistaken for
1. an incisive canal cyst.
2. a median alveolar cyst.
3. a radicular cyst.
4. a naso-alveolar cyst.
5. a globular maxillary cyst.

Back 3

1. an incisive canal cyst.
3. a radicular cyst.

Front 4

Which of the following is/are NOT
usually affected by hereditary ectodermal
dysplasia?
A. Salivary glands.
B. Teeth.
C. Sweat glands.
D. Hair.
E. Fingernails.

Back 4

A. Salivary glands.

Front 5

Which of the following is NOT associated
with infectious mononucleosis?
A. Pharyngitis.
B. Lymphadenopathy.
C. Petechiae of the palate.
D. Gingival enlargement.
E. Fatigue.

Back 5

D. Gingival enlargement.

Front 6

The term used to describe epithelial
changes including nuclear
hyperchromatism, loss of increased
nuclear to cytoplasmic ratio and abnormal
mitoses is
A. acanthosis.
B. hyperkeratosis.
C. dysplasia.
D. parakeratosis.
E. hyperparakeratosis.

Back 6

C. dysplasia.

Front 7

Which of the following would you use to
determine the status of the pulp of a tooth
with a porcelain jacket crown?
1. Radiographic appearance.
2. The electric pulp tester.
3. Percussion and palpation.
4. History and subjective symptoms.
5. Thermal stimulus.

Back 7

1. Radiographic appearance.
3. Percussion and palpation.
4. History and subjective symptoms.

Front 8

Which one of the following would be of
greatest value in determining the etiology
of an oral ulceration?
A. History of the oral lesion.
B. Cytological smear.
C. Systemic evaluation.
D. Laboratory tests.

Back 8

A. History of the oral lesion.

Front 9

A patient with congestive heart failure
may have
1. epistaxis.
2. shortness of breath.
3. exophthalmos.
4. pitting edema of the ankles.

Back 9

2. shortness of breath.
4. pitting edema of the ankles.

Front 10

A 12 year old boy has a history of severe
sore throat followed by migratory
arthralgia and swollen joints of the
extremities. This history is suggestive of
A. acute herpetic gingivostomatitis.
B. osteoarthritis.
C. chronic polyarthritis.
D. rheumatic fever.
E. rheumatoid arthritis.

Back 10

D. rheumatic fever.

Front 11

A pontic replacing a mandibular first
molar should be designed so that it(s)
1. gingival surface is concave and
adapts closely to the ridge.
2. has open gingival embrasures.
3. conceals the porcelain to metal
junction on its gingival surface.
4. gingival surface is convex in all
directions.

Back 11

2. has open gingival embrasures.
4. gingival surface is convex in all
directions.

Front 12

A patient suddenly becomes pale and
sweaty after an injection of 4ml of
lidocaine 2% with epinephrine l:l00,000.
The radial pulse is slow and steady. The
respiration is slow. The blood pressure is
80/60. What is the most probable
diagnosis?
A. A toxic reaction to lidocaine.
B. A toxic reaction to epinephrine.
C. An allergic reaction to the local
anesthetic.
D. Incipient syncope.
E. An impending adrenal insufficiency.

Back 12

D. Incipient syncope.

Front 13

A patient returns with persistent bleeding
5 hours after a tooth has been removed.
Your first step is to
A. inject the area with local anaesthetic.
B. give 10 mg of Vitamin K intramuscularly.
C. have patient bite on gauze saturated
with epinephrine.
D. examine to locate source of bleeding.
E. refer the patient for bleeding and
coagulation tests.

Back 13

D. examine to locate source of bleeding.

Front 14

A periapical infection of a mandibular
third molar may spread by direct extension
to the
1. parapharyngeal space.
2. submandibular space.
3. pterygomandibular space.
4. submental space.

Back 14

2. submandibular space.
4. submental space.

Front 15

The most likely complication associated
with the extraction of an isolated maxillary
second molar is
A. a dry socket.
B. nerve damage.
C. fracture of the malar ridge.
D. fracture of the tuberosity.

Back 15

D. fracture of the tuberosity.

Front 16

A patient presenting with diplopia,
exophthalmos, nasal bleeding and
swelling, may suffer from a fracture of the
A. neck of the condyle.
B. body of the mandible.
C. zygomatic bone.
D. maxillary tuberosity.

Back 16

C. zygomatic bone.

Front 17

Bacterial infection may be confirmed by
1. white blood cell count.
2. hemoglobin level.
3. erythrocyte sedimentation rate.
4. platelet count.

Back 17

1. white blood cell count.
2. hemoglobin level.
3. erythrocyte sedimentation rate.

Front 18

A physical sign of impending syncope is
A. pallor.
B. elevation of blood pressure.
C. fast pulse.
D. All of the above

Back 18

A. pallor.

Front 19

For an acute bacterial infection, the most
valuable laboratory test(s) is/are the
1. hemoglobin level.
2. white blood cell count.
3. red blood cell count.
4. culture and sensitivity test.

Back 19

2. white blood cell count.
4. culture and sensitivity test.

Front 20

A 20-year old male presents with a threeday
history of an acute generalized
gingivitis. He has malaise, fever and
bilateral cervical lymphadenopathy. A
blood examination reveals
Hb: 8.9g/100ml
Platelets: 82,000/mm3
Red blood cell count: 3,900,000/mm3
White blood cell count: 870,000/mm3
Normal Values:
Hb: 14-18g/100ml
Platelets: 150,000-400,000/mm3
Red blood cell count: 4-5million/mm3
White blood cell count: 5,000-
10,000/mm3
The most likely diagnosis is
A. thrombocytopenic purpura.
B. acute myelogenous leukemia.
C. infectious mononucleosis.
D. acute necrotizing ulcerative
gingivitis.

Back 20

B. acute myelogenous leukemia.

Front 21

Ludwig's angina may cause death by
A. heart failure.
B. asphyxia.
C. convulsions.
D. paralysis of muscles of respiration.
E. pyemia.

Back 21

B. asphyxia.

Front 22

If an odontogenic infection involves the
pterygomandibular space, the most
obvious clinical sign will be
A. trismus.
B. facial swelling.
C. swelling in the submandibular area.
D. rise in body temperature above 39C
(102ºF).

Back 22

A. trismus.

Front 23

It is difficult to obtain satisfactory
anesthesia in the presence of infection near
the injection site because
A. the swelling causes increased
pressure on the nerves.
B. increased blood supply carries the
anesthetic solution away too fast.
C. acidity of the infected tissue inhibits
action of the anesthetic agent.
D. alkalinity of the infected tissue
inhibits action of the anesthetic
agent.

Back 23

C. acidity of the infected tissue inhibits
action of the anesthetic agent.

Front 24

The major stimulator of respiration is
A. low blood pressure.
B. high percentage of blood oxygen.
C. low percentage of blood carbon
dioxide.
D. high percentage of blood carbon
dioxide.

Back 24

D. high percentage of blood carbon
dioxide.

Front 25

The most common complication of a
venipuncture is
A. syncope.
B. hematoma.
C. thrombophlebitis.
D. embolus.

Back 25

B. hematoma.

Front 26

Antihistamines act by
A. increasing the action of histaminase.
B. altering the formation of histamine.
C. blocking the actions of histamine by
competitive inhibition.
D. interfering with the degradation of
histamine.

Back 26

C. blocking the actions of histamine by
competitive inhibition.

Front 27

Tetracyclines
1. have no side effects.
2. may increase susceptibility to
superinfections.
3. are safe to use during pregnancy.
4. have a wide spectrum of antibacterial
activity.

Back 27

2. may increase susceptibility to
superinfections
4. have a wide spectrum of antibacterial
activity.

Front 28

Which valve is most commonly affected
by rheumatic heart disease?
A. Aortic.
B. Pulmonary.
C. Tricuspid.
D. Mitral.

Back 28

D. Mitral.

Front 29

A therapeutic advantage of penicillin V
over penicillin G is
A. greater resistance to penicillinase.
B. broader antibacterial spectrum.
C. greater absorption when given orally.
D. slower renal excretion.
E. None of the above.

Back 29

C. greater absorption when given orally.

Front 30

Trismus is most frequently caused by
A. tetanus.
B. muscular dystrophy.
C. infection.
D. mandibular fracture.

Back 30

C. infection.

Front 31

Acetaminophen in therapeutic doses
1. retards platelet function.
2. has strong anti-inflammatory
properties.
3. produces CNS stimulation.
4. has antipyretic properties.

Back 31

4. has antipyretic properties.

Front 32

Short-acting barbiturates are metabolized
mainly in the
A. liver.
B. kidneys.
C. small intestine.
D. pancreas.
E. spleen.

Back 32

A. liver.

Front 33

Which antibiotic is chiefly bactericidal?
A. Penicillin.
B. Erythromycin.
C. Tetracycline.
D. Chloramphenicol.
E. Clindamycin.

Back 33

A. Penicillin.

Front 34

Which drug is most adversely affected by
ingestion of antacids?
A. Cephalexin.
B. Erythromycin.
C. Tetracycline.
D. Sulfisoxazole.
E. Penicillin V.

Back 34

C. Tetracycline.

Front 35

All of the following are possible effects of
acetylsalicylic acid except
A. reduction of fever.
B. shortening of bleeding time.
C. suppression of inflammatory
response.
D. bleeding from the gastrointestinal
tract.

Back 35

B. shortening of bleeding time.

Front 36

Which of the following does NOT
influence the rate of induction during
inhalation anesthesia?
A. Pulmonary ventilation.
B. Blood supply to the lungs.
C. Hemoglobin content of the blood.
D. Concentration of the anesthetic in the
inspired mixture.
E. Solubility of the anesthetic in blood.

Back 36

C. Hemoglobin content of the blood.

Front 37

Systemic or topical cortisone therapy is
used in the treatment of
A. necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis.
B. erythema multiforme.
C. submaxillary cellulitis.
D. ptyalism (excessive saliva).
E. herpes simplex.

Back 37

B. erythema multiforme.

Front 38

Which of the following would you
prescribe for an anxious dental patient
with a peptic ulcer?
A. Reserpine.
B. Scopolamine.
C. Silica gel.
D. Diazepam.
E. Calcium carbonate.

Back 38

D. Diazepam.

Front 39

Unconsciousness in syncope results from
A. electrolyte imbalance.
B. neurogenic shock.
C. cerebral hyperemia.
D. cerebral hypoxia.

Back 39

D. cerebral hypoxia.

Front 40

The most effective drug for relief of
angina pectoris is
A. morphine.
B. digitalis.
C. quinidine.
D. nitroglycerine.
E. pentobarbital sodium

Back 40

D. nitroglycerine.

Front 41

The inorganic ion that is implicated in
primary hypertension is
A. sodium.
B. fluoride.
C. potassium.
D. magnesium.

Back 41

A. sodium.

Front 42

Displacement of mandibular fractures is
dependent upon
1. direction of fracture line.
2. proprioceptor nerve action.
3. muscle pull.
4. tooth in line of fracture.
5. direction of blow.

Back 42

1. direction of fracture line.
3. muscle pull.
5. direction of blow.

Front 43

In a standard dental cartridge (carpule)
containing 1.8ml 2% lidocaine with
epinephrine 1/100,000, the amount of
vasoconstrictor is
A. 18.0 mg.
B. 0.018 mg.
C. 1.8 mg.
D. 0.18 mg.
E. 180.0 mg.

Back 43

B. 0.018 mg.

Front 44

Vestibuloplasty is a preprosthetic surgical
procedure used to
A. facilitate reliable impression making.
B. provide adequate posterior inter-arch
space.
C. allow placement of teeth over the
residual ridge.
D. increase the supporting surface area

Back 44

D. increase the supporting surface area

Front 45

In a standard inferior alveolar nerve block,
which muscle is penetrated by the needle?
A. Buccinator.
B. Mylohyoid.
C. Superior constrictor.
D. Masseter.
E. Medial (internal) pterygoid.

Back 45

A. Buccinator

Front 46

Epinephrine in a local anaesthetic solution
will
1. prevent rapid absorption of the
anaesthetic.
2. assist haemostasis at the site of
injection.
3. prolong the action of the anaesthetic
agent.
4. assist in post-operative healing.

Back 46

1. prevent rapid absorption of the
anaesthetic.
2. assist haemostasis at the site of
injection.
3. prolong the action of the anaesthetic
agent.

Front 47

A 57 year old man received 10mg of
diazepam intravenously. He becomes
unresponsive to verbal stimuli, and his
respirations are depressed to 10 per
minute. Appropriate treatment is to
A. administer ephedrine.
B. observe the patient.
C. force the patient to drink coffee.
D. support respiration with oxygen.

Back 47

D. support respiration with oxygen.

Front 48

The chief mechanism by which the body
metabolizes short-acting barbiturates is
A. oxidation.
B. reduction.
C. hydroxylation and oxidation.
D. sequestration in the body fats.

Back 48

C. hydroxylation and oxidation.

Front 49

Early anoxia is characterized by
1. cyanosis.
2. bradycardia.
3. tachycardia

Back 49

1. cyanosis.
3. tachycardia

Front 50

An apprehensive 77-year old patient,
weighing approximately 60kg, requires the
removal of several mandibular teeth under
local anaesthesia. The appropriate
modality to manage the anxiety is
A. 20mg of diazapam, intravenously.
B. 20mg of diazapam, orally.
C. 100mg of secobarbital, orally.
D. nitrous oxide and oxygen.

Back 50

D. nitrous oxide and oxygen.