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50 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
Radiographically, the opening of the
incisive canal may be misdiagnosed as a 1. branchial cyst. 2. nasopalatine cyst. 3. nasolabial cyst. 4. periradicular cyst. |
2. nasopalatine cyst.
4. periradicular cyst. |
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On a bite-wing radiograph of posterior
teeth, which of the following is most likely to be misdiagnosed as proximal caries? A. Cemento-enamel junction. B. Marginal ridge. C. Carabelli cusp. D. Calculus. E. Cemental tear. |
A. Cemento-enamel junction.
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A well circumscribed 3mm radiolucent
lesion is present in the apical region of the mandibular second premolar. The tooth responds normally to vitality tests. The radiolucency is most likely A. a periradicular periodontitis. B. a dentigerous cyst. C. a rarefying osteitis. D. the mental foramen. |
D. the mental foramen.
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A patient complains of acute pain 24 hours
after the insertion of a restoration in a tooth with no preexisting periapical pathology. The tooth is vital and tender to percussion. The radiograph will show A. an apical radiolucency. B. acute osteitis. C. root resorption. D. condensing osteitis. E. normal lamina dura. |
E. normal lamina dura.
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Which drug is most adversely affected by
ingestion of antacids? A. Cephalexin. B. Erythromycin. C. Tetracycline. D. Penicillin V. |
C. Tetracycline.
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A cold stimulus applied to a tooth will
produce a hypersensitive response if the tooth A. is nonvital. B. has a periodontal pocket. C. has a hyperemic pulp. D. has chronic proliferative pulpitis. |
C. has a hyperemic pulp.
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The most appropriate radiographic
examination for a 4 year old without visible or clinically detectable caries or anomalies, and with open proximal contacts is A. maxillary and mandibular anterior occlusals. B. a pair of posterior bite-wings. C. maxillary and mandibular posterior periapicals. D. no radiographic examination. |
D. no radiographic examination.
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One week after an amalgam restoration is
placed in the mandibular first premolar, the patient returns complaining of a sharp pain of short duration when eating or drinking something cold. Teeth respond normally to electric pulp testing and heat and the radiographs are normal. The most likely diagnosis is A. hypercementosis. B. reversible pulpitis. C. pulpal microabscess. D. acute periradicular periodontitis. |
B. reversible pulpitis.
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A 12 year old child presents with
characteristic tetracycline discoloration of the maxillary and mandibular incisors and permanent first molars. The probable age at which this child received tetracycline therapy was A. 6 years. B. 4 years. C. 1 year. D. before birth. |
C. 1 year.
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A 6 year old patient has a larger than
average diastema between the maxillary central incisors. The radiographic examination shows a mesiodens. In order to manage the diastema, you should extract the mesiodens A. after its complete eruption. B. once the patient has reached the age of 12. C. only if it develops into a cystic lesion. D. as soon as possible. |
D. as soon as possible.
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In children, the most common cause of a
fistula is a/an A. acute periradicular abscess. B. suppurative periradicular periodontitis. C. acute periodontal abscess. D. dentigerous cyst. |
B. suppurative periradicular
periodontiti |
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A large carious exposure occurs on a
permanent first molar of a 7 year old. There is no periapical involvement and the tooth is vital. The treatment should be to A. cap the exposure with calcium hydroxide and place zinc-oxide and eugenol. B. perform a pulpotomy and place calcium hydroxide. C. perform a pulpectomy. D. extract the tooth and place a space maintainer. |
C. perform a pulpectomy.
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In a 4 year old child, the primary central
incisor has discoloured following a traumatic injury. The treatment of choice is A. pulpotomy. B. pulpectomy. C. observation. D. extraction. |
C. observation.
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The most appropriate treatment following
the extraction of a first primary molar in a 4 year old child is A. regular assessment of arch development. B. to perform space analysis. C. insertion of a space maintainer. D. extraction of the contra-lateral molar. E. extraction of the opposing molar. |
C. insertion of a space maintainer.
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A Le Fort I or Guerin fracture is a
A. fracture of the zygomatic arch. B. horizontal fracture of the maxilla. C. fracture of the malar complex involving the floor of the orbit. D. pyramidal fracture of the maxilla. E. craniofacial dysjunction. |
B. horizontal fracture of the maxilla.
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Which of the following will impede
healing following the surgical closure of an oroantral fistula? 1. Poor flap design. 2. Excessive tissue tension. 3. Blowing the nose. 4. Sinus infection. |
E. All of the above.
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An 8 year old patient with all primary
molars still present exhibits a cusp-to-cusp relationship of permanent maxillary and mandibular first molars. The management of this patient should be to A. plan serial extractions for more normal adjustment of the occlusion. B. refer the patient to an orthodontist for consultation. C. place a cervical headgear to reposition maxillary molars. D. disk the distal surfaces of primary mandibular second molars to allow normal adjustment of permanent molars. E. observe. |
E. observe.
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To prevent mesial drift of a permanent
first molar, the ideal time to place a distal extension space maintainer is A. as soon as the tooth erupts through the gingival tissue. B. after the permanent second molar has erupted. C. immediately after extraction of the primary second molar. D. as soon as the extraction site of the primary second molar has completely healed. |
C. immediately after extraction of the
primary second molar. |
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Immediately following a posterior superior
alveolar block injection, the patient's face becomes quickly and visibly swollen. The immediate treatment should be to A. use pressure followed by cold packs over the swelling. B. use hot packs over the swelling. C. refer the patient to a hospital. D. administer 100mg hydrocortisone intravenously. E. administer diphenhydramine hydrochloride (Benadryl®) 50mg intravenously. |
A. use pressure followed by cold packs
over the swelling. |
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Epinephrine should NOT be used as a
vasoconstrictor for patients with uncontrolled A. hyperthyroidism. B. hyperparathyroidism. C. myxedema. D. asthma. |
B. hyperparathyroidism.
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A known insulin-dependent diabetic
patient feels unwell following the administration of a local anesthetic and becomes pale and sweaty. This condition does not respond to placing the patient in a supine position. The most likely cause is A. syncope. B. adrenal insufficiency. C. hyperglycemia. D. hypoglycemia. E. carotid sinus reflex. |
D. hypoglycemia.
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Generally, glass ionomer cements contain
A. zinc oxide and distilled water. B. zinc oxide and polyacrylic acid. C. fluoroaluminosilicate powder and orthophosphoric acid. D. fluoroaluminosilicate powder and polyacrylic acid. |
D. fluoroaluminosilicate powder and
polyacrylic acid. |
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A fracture in an all-ceramic crown may be
caused by 1. inadequate ceramic thickness. 2. sharp line angles in the tooth preparation. 3. excessive occlusal load. 4. use of an inappropriate luting material. |
E. All of the above.
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Which of the following conditions would
NOT require antibiotic premedication before endodontic therapy? A. Valvular heart disease. B. Cardiac prosthesis. C. Persistent odontogenic fistula. D. Immunosuppressive therapy. E. Organ transplant. |
C. Persistent odontogenic fistula.
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Under normal conditions, the most
definitive test to confirm the loss of pulp vitality is A. applying warm gutta percha to the crown. B. cutting into the dentin without anesthetic. C. applying ethyl chloride to the crown. D. performing a radiographic examination of the tooth. E. performing an electric pulp test. |
B. cutting into the dentin without
anesthetic. |
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A radiopaque area within the alveolar
process containing several rudimentary teeth suggests a/an A. periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia. B. ameloblastoma. C. compound odontoma. D. complex odontoma. E. Pindborg tumor. |
C. compound odontoma.
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The usual adult dosage of codeine
administered orally is A. 500-1000mg. B. 250-500mg. C. 30-60mg. D. 2-5mg. |
C. 30-60mg.
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The minimum time to wait before placing
composite restorations after the completion of a bleaching (whitening) treatment is A. 1 to 2 hours. B. 24 to 48 hours. C. 1 to 2 weeks. D. 4 to 5 weeks. |
C. 1 to 2 weeks
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A 45 year old patient has 32 unrestored
teeth. The only defects are deeply stained grooves in the posterior teeth. Clinical examination reveals no evidence of caries in the grooves. The treatment of choice is A. application of pit and fissure sealants. B. preventive resin restorations. C. conservative Class I amalgams. D. prophylactic odontotomy. E. no treatment. |
E. no treatment.
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For a cast gold restoration, a gingival
bevel is used instead of a shoulder because a bevel 1. protects the enamel. 2. increases retention. 3. improves marginal adaptation. 4. increases the thickness of gold. |
1. protects the enamel.
3. improves marginal adaptation. |
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Which type of malocclusion should be
corrected as early as possible? A. Class II division 1 associated with an anterior open bite. B. Class II division 2 associated with an increased anterior overbite. C. Class III associated with an anterior open bite. D. Cross-bite associated with a functional shift of the mandible from initial contact to maximum intercuspation. E. Anterior open bite associated with a lip or digit sucking habit. |
D. Cross-bite associated with a
functional shift of the mandible from initial contact to maximum intercuspation. |
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Assuming there is adequate tooth structure
remaining, composite resins can be used as a core material for endodontically treated teeth to be crowned provided A. the resin has a high contrast colour with tooth structure. B. there is an adequate ferrule. C. the resin is autopolymerizing. D. subsequent crown margins are not located on cementum. |
B. there is an adequate ferrule.
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A child has received a successful inferior
alveolar nerve block using 1.5ml of lidocaine 2% with 1:100000 epinephrine. However, during placement of a rubber dam clamp on the first permanent molar, the child complains that the “tooth ring” is hurting. Which of the following is the most appropriate management? A. Wait 15 minutes until more profound anesthesia is achieved. B. Anesthetize the lingual nerve with the remaining lidocaine. C. Anesthetize the long buccal nerve with the remaining lidocaine. D. Proceed with treatment without rubber dam. |
C. Anesthetize the long buccal nerve
with the remaining lidocaine. |
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Overlapping contacts on a bitewing
radiograph result from 1. malalignment of teeth. 2. incorrect vertical angulation of the xray beam. 3. incorrect horizontal angulation of the x-ray beam. 4. patient movement during the exposure. |
1. malalignment of teeth.
3. incorrect horizontal angulation of the x-ray beam. |
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The primary retention of a Class II gold
inlay is achieved by 1. adding an occlusal dovetail. 2. increasing the parallelism of walls. 3. lengthening the axial walls. 4. placing a gingival bevel. |
1. adding an occlusal dovetail.
2. increasing the parallelism of walls. 3. lengthening the axial walls. |
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The mesial furcation of maxillary
permanent first molars is best probed from the A. buccal. B. buccal or lingual. C. lingual. |
C. lingual.
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A 50 year old obese patient with type 2
diabetes takes oral hypoglycemics. He is frequently skipping meals in order to reduce his weight. During his 8:30 a.m. appointment, his speech becomes slurred and he is less alert than usual. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of this patient? A. 175ml of diet cola. B. 15g of glucose as tablets or in solution. C. 175ml unsweetened orange juice. D. Dismissal of the patient to have his breakfast. |
B. 15g of glucose as tablets or in
solution. |
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Vitamin D is activated in the
A. skin upon ultraviolet radiation from the sun. B. liver upon hydroxylation. C. kidney upon hydroxylation. D. intestinal mucosa upon absorption. |
C. kidney upon hydroxylation.
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Gingival response to plaque
microorganisms in elderly patients is A. exaggerated due to an altered host immune response. B. exaggerated due to a change in the type of infecting microorganism. C. decreased due to circulatory changes. D. decreased due to an altered host immune response. |
A. exaggerated due to an altered host
immune response. |
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Which of the following agents is most
effective in cold testing? A. Ice water. B. Air jet. C. CO2 (dry ice). D. Ethyl chloride. |
C. CO2 (dry ice).
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Which of the following bone lesions of the
mandible is/are malignant? 1. Osteosarcoma. 2. Osteochondroma. 3. Ewing's tumor. 4. Fibrous dysplasia. |
1. Osteosarcoma.
3. Ewing's tumor. |
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What is the most likely cause of a
maxillary denture dislodging when the patient opens wide or makes extreme lateral excursions? A. Insufficient posterior palatal seal. B. Poor denture base adaptation. C. Labial frenum impingement. D. Coronoid process interference. E. Pronounced midpalatal raphe. |
D. Coronoid process interference.
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Which of the following dental procedures
could be performed with minimal risk for a 35 year old patient with a severe bleeding disorder? A. Mandibular block anesthesia. B. Supragingival calculus removal. C. Incisional biopsy. D. Subgingival restoration. |
A. Mandibular block anesthesia.
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The diagnostic information for a 10 year
old patient with a mildly prognathic mandible and 0mm overjet and 0mm overbite should include A. photographs, cephalometric and panoramic radiographs. B. family history, photographs, cephalometric and panoramic radiographs. C. family history, photographs, cephalometric, panoramic and periapical radiographs. D. photographs, cephalometric, panoramic and periapical radiographs. |
C. family history, photographs,
cephalometric, panoramic and periapical radiographs. |
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Incomplete tooth fracture
A. can readily be diagnosed using transillumination. B. most commonly involves the supporting cusps. C. is associated with medium to largesized restorations. D. elicits dull, prolonged pain on chewing. |
C. is associated with medium to largesized
restorations. |
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The etiologic agent for necrotizing
ulcerative gingivitis (NUG) is A. bacterial. B. viral. C. fungal. D. protozoan. |
A. bacterial.
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Patients with known prion diseases such
as Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease are characterized by A. the disease being transmissible through air or casual contact with an infected patient. B. needing no additional sterilization precautions in the management of the patient. C. the disease usually being fatal within one year. D. having an incubation time of 3-6 months for the disease. |
C. the disease usually being fatal within
one year. |
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Twenty-four hours following the simple
extraction of tooth 4.7, a patient presents with severe bleeding from the extraction site. The most likely cause of this bleeding is a/an A. disturbance of the hemostatic plug. B. infection of the socket. C. undiagnosed coagulopathy. D. dry socket. |
A. disturbance of the hemostatic plug.
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During the administration of local
anesthesia, positive aspiration of blood will occur most often in a/an A. mental or incisive block. B. posterior superior alveolar block. C. inferior alveolar block. D. anterior superior alveolar block. E. long buccal nerve block. |
B. posterior superior alveolar block.
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A patient complains of the discolouration
of an unrestored maxillary central incisor. Radiographically, the pulp chamber and the root canal space are obliterated, there is no evidence of caries and the periodontal ligament space appears normal. An external bleaching procedure has not been successful. The most appropriate management would be to A. perform root canal treatment and nonvital bleaching. B. perform root canal treatment and fabricate a post retained porcelain fused to metal crown. C. perform root canal treatment and fabricate a porcelain veneer. D. fabricate a porcelain fused to metal crown. E. fabricate a porcelain veneer. |
E. fabricate a porcelain veneer.
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