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50 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
In a xerostomic patient, which salivary
gland(s) is/are most likely responsible for the lack of saliva production? A. Accessory. B. Labial. C. Parotid. D. Sublingual and submandibular. |
D. Sublingual and submandibular.
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Oral signs and/or symptoms of vitamin B2
(riboflavin) deficiency may include 1. glossitis. 2. angular cheilitis. 3. pain. 4. erythematous oral mucosa. |
E. All of the above.
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A patient complains of the discolouration
of an unrestored upper central incisor. Radiographically, the pulp chamber and the root canal space are obliterated, there is no evidence of caries and the periodontal ligament space appears normal. The most appropriate treatment would be to A. perform root canal treatment and nonvital bleaching. B. perform root canal treatment and fabricate a post retained porcelain fused to metal crown. C. perform root canal treatment and fabricate a porcelain veneer. D. fabricate a porcelain fused to metal crown. E. fabricate a porcelain veneer. |
E. fabricate a porcelain veneer.
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The most appropriate management for a
tooth with a history of previous trauma that now exhibits apical resorption is A. observation over 6 months to monitor the progression of resorption. B. complete instrumentation and medication with intracanal calcium hydroxide. C. immediate instrumentation and obturation followed by apical curettage. D. extraction, apical resection, retrofilling and replantation. E. extraction and replacement with a fixed or removable prosthesis. |
B. complete instrumentation and
medication with intracanal calcium hydroxide. |
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Which of the following isare (an)
indication(s) for the removal of impacted mandibular third molars? 1. Recurrent pericoronitis. 2. Prevention of crowding of mandibular incisors. 3. Pain. 4. They are impacted. |
1. Recurrent pericoronitis.
3. Pain. |
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The most important factor in determining
the dosage of systemic fluoride supplementation is A. daily water consumption. B. climate. C. water fluoride concentration. D. total daily fluoride intake. E. patient age. |
E. patient age.
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A 70 year old insulin-dependent patient
has just completed a 7 day course of ampicillin for a respiratory infection. He presents with signs and symptoms consistent with a diagnosis of oral candidiasis. Which of the following drugs is/are appropriate to manage this condition? 1. Fluconazole. 2. Nystatin. 3. Ketoconazole. 4. Clindamycin. |
1. Fluconazole.
2. Nystatin. 3. Ketoconazole. |
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A 34 year old male patient complains of
night sweats, weight loss, malaise, anorexia and low-grade fever. Clinical examination shows a nodular, ulcerated lesion on the palate. The most likely diagnosis is A. viral hepatitis. B. infectious mononucleosis. C. tuberculosis. D. actinomycosis. |
C. tuberculosis.
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Aging pulps show a relative increase in
1. fibrous elements. 2. cell numbers. 3. calcification. 4. vascularity. |
1. fibrous elements.
3. calcification. |
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Isthmus fracture during function in a
recently placed proximal-occlusal silver amalgam restoration (with occlusal extension through the occlusal fissure system), is most likely due to a preparation with A. inadequate isthmus depth. B. inadequate isthmus width. C. a stepped buccal or lingual wall. D. subgingival proximal extension. |
A. inadequate isthmus depth.
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Pins for cusp replacement should ideally
be placed A. within enamel. B. at the dentino-enamel junction. C. a minimum of 0.5-1.0mm from the dentino-enamel junction. D. a minimum of 1.5-2.0mm from the dentino-enamel junction. |
C. a minimum of 0.5-1.0mm from the
dentino-enamel junction. |
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The most important factor contributing to
the long term success of the restoration of an endodontically treated tooth is the A. type of post utilized. B. remaining coronal tooth structure. C. presence of extracoronal coverage. D. type of core material used. |
B. remaining coronal tooth structure.
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Conventional glass ionomer cements
A. elicit less pulp response than zincoxide and eugenol cements. B. do not require a protective liner, such as calcium hydroxide in a deep preparation. C. have a lower modulus of elasticity than zinc phosphate cements. D. bond mechanically to calcium in enamel and dentin. E. are superior to zinc phosphate cement for luting porcelain (all ceramic) crowns. |
C. have a lower modulus of elasticity
than zinc phosphate cements. |
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A small hinge articulator was used for the
fabrication of a cast gold onlay for tooth 4.6. Which of the following movements will result in the greatest discrepancy between the articulator and the patient? A. Laterotrusive. B. Mediotrusive. C. Protrusive. D. Retrusive. |
B. Mediotrusive.
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Which of the following cements can
chemically bond to enamel? A. Zinc phosphate. B. Polycarboxylate. C. Calcium hydroxide. D. Reinforced zinc-oxide eugenol. |
B. Polycarboxylate.
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Which of the following are vital signs?
A. Pulse rate and respiration. B. Complete blood count. C. Pupil size and reactivity. D. Height and weight. |
A. Pulse rate and respiration
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Which of the following radiographs is
most appropriate for the diagnosis of a fracture of the maxilla? A. Panoramic radiograph. B. Anteroposterior radiograph of the skull. C. Periapical radiographs of maxillary teeth. D. Occlusal radiograph. |
A. Panoramic radiograph
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The protective role of junctional
epithelium is aided by its increased number of A. cell layers. B. intercellular spaces. C. cell-cell adhesions. D. collagen fibres. |
C. cell-cell adhesions.
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One of the mechanisms of bacterial
adherence to the dental pellicle is through A. positively charged bacteria with the pellicle. B. interaction of cations such as calcium. C. hydrophilic interactions. D. interaction of salivary anions. |
D. interaction of salivary anions.
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Post-immunization serological test results
for a health care worker who has completed the series of vaccinations against hepatitis B is informed that their anti-HBsAg is less than the value required for immunity. The health care worker should A. receive one additional vaccination followed by post-immunization testing. B. undergo the full series of hepatitis B vaccinations followed by postimmunization testing. C. refrain from performing any exposure-prone procedures for a period of 3-6 months followed by a full series of hepatitis B vaccinations. D. have liver function tests performed to assess liver damage from a previous hepatitis B infection. |
B. undergo the full series of hepatitis B
vaccinations followed by postimmunization testing. |
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Oral foci of infection are of greatest
concern in patients with which of the following conditions? A. Type 2 diabetes. B. Iron deficiency anemia. C. Hypertension. D. Rheumatic heart disease. |
D. Rheumatic heart disease.
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A daily dose of 80mg of acetylsalicylic
acid is used for its A. analgesic properties. B. antipyretic effect. C. antiplatelet action. D. anti-inflammatory function. |
C. antiplatelet action
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Which of the following could cause
clicking sounds during speech in denture wearers? A. Excessive vertical dimension. B. Nonbalanced occlusion. C. Excessive buccal flange thickness. D. Reduced vertical overlap (overbite). |
A. Excessive vertical dimension.
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Which of the following is a depressor of
the mandible? A. Temporalis. B. Lateral (external) pterygoid. C. Masseter. D. Medial (internal) pterygoid |
B. Lateral (external) pterygoid.
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The location and extent of subgingival
calculus is most accurately determined clinically by A. radiopaque solution used in conjunction with radiographs. B. disclosing solution. C. probing with a fine instrument. D. visual inspection. |
C. probing with a fine instrument.
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In an infrabony pocket, the epithelial
attachment is located A. within basal bone. B. coronal to alveolar bone crest. C. apical to alveolar bone crest. |
C. apical to alveolar bone crest.
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The most likely diagnosis for a child with
a painful, fiery-red, diffuse gingivitis is A. primary herpetic gingivostomatitis. B. aggressive periodontitis. C. idiopathic fibromatosis. D. aphthous stomatitis. |
A. primary herpetic gingivostomatitis.
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Which of the following is/are clinical
signs of gingivitis? 1. Loss of stippling. 2. Gingival hyperplasia. 3. Decreased pocket depth. 4. Bleeding on probing. |
4. Bleeding on probing.
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Regarding dental caries, which of the
following is correct? A. All carbohydrates are equally cariogenic. B. More frequent consumption of carbohydrates increases the risk. C. The rate of carbohydrate clearance from the oral cavity is not significant. D. Increased dietary fat increases the risk. |
B. More frequent consumption of
carbohydrates increases the risk. |
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Lidocaine (Xylocaine®) is an example of
a local anesthetic which is chemically classified as an A. amide. B. ester. C. aldehyde. D. ethamine. E. aminide. |
A. amide.
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Procaine (Novocaine®) is an example of a
local anesthetic which is chemically classified as an A. amide. B. ester. C. aldehyde. D. ethamine. E. aminide. |
B. ester.
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A protective mechanism of the dental pulp
to external irritation or caries is the formation of A. pulp stones. B. tertiary dentin. C. secondary cementum. D. primary dentin. |
B. tertiary dentin.
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Which of the following is NOT a
component of a dental cartridge containing 2% lidocaine with 1:100,000 epinephrine? A. Methylparaben. B. Water. C. Sodium metabisulphite. D. Sodium chloride. |
C. Sodium metabisulphite.
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Which of the following drugs is used in
the treatment of mild allergic reactions? A. Isoproterenol. B. Meperidine hydrochloride. C. Diphenhydramine hydrochloride. D. Propoxyphene. |
C. Diphenhydramine hydrochloride.
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When a radiographic examination is
warranted for a 10 year old child, the most effective way to decrease radiation exposure is to A. use a thyroid collar and lead apron. B. apply a radiation protection badge. C. use high speed film. D. decrease the kilovoltage to 50kVp. E. take a panoramic film only. |
A. use a thyroid collar and lead apron.
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If an alginate impression must be stored
for a few minutes before the cast is poured, it should be placed in A. water. B. 100% relative humidity. C. a 1% aqueous calcium sulfate solution. |
B. 100% relative humidity.
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An end result of ionizing radiation used to
treat oral malignancies is A. deformity of the jaws. B. reduced vascularity of the jaws. C. increased vascularity of the jaws. D. increased brittleness of the jaws. |
B. reduced vascularity of the jaws.
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Which of the following is most often
associated with a nonvital tooth? A. Chronic periradicular periodontitis. B. Internal resorption. C. Periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia. D. Hyperplastic pulpitis. |
A. Chronic periradicular periodontitis.
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Myxedema is associated with
A. insufficient parathyroid hormone. B. excessive parathyroid hormone. C. insufficient thyroid hormone. D. excessive thyroid hormone. |
C. insufficient thyroid hormone.
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Condensing osteitis in the periapical
region is indicative of a/an A. acute inflammation of the pulp. B. pulpal abscess. C. chronic inflammation of the pulp. D. early apical abscess formation. |
C. chronic inflammation of the pulp.
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A 15 year old presents with hypoplastic
enamel on tooth 1.5. All other teeth are normal. This was most probably caused by a/an A. vitamin D deficiency. B. generalized calcium deficiency. C. high fever encountered by the patient when he had measles at age 3. D. infection of tooth 5.5 during the development of tooth 1.5. E. hereditary factor. |
D. infection of tooth 5.5 during the
development of tooth 1.5. |
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Which of the following features would be
most indicative of a cracked tooth? A. Periapical radiolucency. B. Hypersensitivity to thermal stimuli. C. Pain upon biting pressure. D. Absent vitalometric response. |
C. Pain upon biting pressure.
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A 4 year old child has a normal
complement of deciduous teeth, but in appearance they are grayish and exhibit extensive occlusal and incisal wear. Radiographic examination indicates some extensive deposits of secondary dentin in these teeth. This condition is typical of A. cleidocranial dysplasia. B. amelogenesis imperfecta. C. neonatal hypoplasia. D. dentinogenesis imperfecta. |
D. dentinogenesis imperfecta.
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Root resorption of permanent teeth may be
associated with 1. excessive orthodontic forces. 2. chronic periradicular periodontitis. 3. traumatic injury. 4. periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia. |
1. excessive orthodontic forces.
2. chronic periradicular periodontitis. 3. traumatic injury. |
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Which of the following results from a
necrotic pulp? A. Dentigerous cyst. B. Lateral periodontal cyst. C. Chronic periradicular periodontitis. D. Pulp polyp. |
C. Chronic periradicular periodontitis.
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Which of the following is/are associated
with an unerupted tooth? 1. Odontogenic adenomatoid tumor. 2. Periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia. 3. Calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumor. 4. Cementoblastoma. |
1. Odontogenic adenomatoid tumor.
3. Calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumor. |
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An ankylosed tooth is usually
A. nonvital. B. associated with a root fracture. C. infraerupted. D. found in the permanent dentition. |
C. infraerupted.
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For which of the following pathological
conditions would a lower central incisor tooth be expected to respond to heat, cold and electric pulp test? A. Apical cyst. B. Acute apical abscess. C. Periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia. D. Chronic apical periodontitis. |
C. Periapical cemento-osseous
dysplasia. |
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The microscopic appearance of the central
giant cell granuloma of the jaws is similar to that of lesions which occur in A. hyperparathyroidism. B. Paget's disease. C. cleidocranial dysplasia. D. hyperpituitarism. |
A. hyperparathyroidism.
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An ameloblastoma can develop from the
epithelial lining of which of the following cysts? A. Periradicular. B. Dentigerous. C. Residual. D. Lateral periodontal. |
B. Dentigerous.
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