2010 Released Qs And Ans21

Front 1

Assuming daily maximums are not
exceeded, which of the following is/are
appropriate for pain management
following an emergency pulpectomy for
an adult with a history of severe asthma
and nasal polyps?
1. Naproxen 250mg, every 6 - 8 hours
p.r.n.
2. Acetylsalicylic acid 650mg every 4 -
6 hours p.r.n.
3. Ketorolac 10mg every 4 - 6 hours
p.r.n.
4. Acetaminophen 1000mg every 4 - 6
hours p.r.n.

Back 1

4. Acetaminophen 1000mg every 4 - 6
hours p.r.n.

Front 2

Saliva is most potent in minimizing the
effect of an acid challenge by its
A. lubrication function.
B. antimicrobial effect.
C. buffering action.
D. fluoride concentration.

Back 2

C. buffering action.

Front 3

A 24 year old patient has slightly retrusive
lips and inadequate attached lower labial
gingival. This patient requires labial
movement of lower incisors to eliminate
crowding and decrease overbite and
overjet. Which of the following is the
most appropriate management for this
patient?
A. Change the treatment to an extraction
type so lower incisors can be
retracted.
B. Inform the patient of the possibility
of bone dehiscence and gingival
recession during orthodontic
treatment and the need for
mucogingival surgery post-treatment.
C. Arrange for corrective mucogingival
surgery prior to the start of
orthodontic treatment.
D. Encourage the patient to practice
meticulous oral hygiene to prevent
the gingival recession.
E. Move the teeth more slowly and with
less force to minimize the amount of
gingival recession.

Back 3

B. Inform the patient of the possibility
of bone dehiscence and gingival
recession during orthodontic
treatment and the need for
mucogingival surgery post-treatment.

Front 4

A mandibular right second molar has
tipped mesially into the adjacent
edentulous space. Which of the following
tooth movements will most likely occur
when uprighted by fixed orthodontic
therapy (fixed appliance on teeth 4.7, 4.5,
4.4 and 4.3)?
1. Extrusion of the second molar.
2. Lingual tipping of the second molar.
3. Intrusion of the anchor unit.
4. Buccal tipping of the anchor unit.

Back 4

E. All of the above.

Front 5

A 52 year old patient presents with a
limitation of mouth opening. The patient
has loss of attached gingiva and multiple
areas of gingival recession. A panoramic
radiograph shows diffuse widening of the
periodontal ligament. The most likely
diagnosis is
A. scleroderma.
B. hyperparathyroidism.
C. cicatricial pemphigoid.
D. erythema multiforme.
E. advanced adult periodontitis.

Back 5

A. scleroderma.

Front 6

Which of the following presents with high
serum calcium levels, thinning of cortical
bone and giant cell osteoclasts in the jaw
and drifting teeth?
A. Hyperthyroidism.
B. Hyperparathyroidism.
C. Hypothyroidism.
D. Hypoparathyroidism.

Back 6

B. Hyperparathyroidism.

Front 7

Your patient is currently on warfarin.
Before a planned extraction of tooth 3.4,
the patient’s coagulation mechanism
should be evaluated using which test?
A. Bleeding time.
B. Partial thromboplastin time.
C. Prothrombin time.
D. Von Willebrand’s Factor.

Back 7

C. Prothrombin time.

Front 8

A 75-year old male patient whose wife
died 10 months ago presents for his recall
appointment. Looking wasted and
fatigued, he confirms he has lost about 6
kilograms in the last eight months but is
otherwise in good health. The most
appropriate management for this patient is
to
A. recommend that he drink three cans
of a nutritional supplement each day.
B. refer him to a qualified
dietician/nutritionist and follow up
after his appointment.
C. refer him back to his physician
requesting a more thorough
assessment.
D. provide him with a copy of Canada’s
Food Guide to Healthy Eating.

Back 8

C. refer him back to his physician
requesting a more thorough
assessment.

Front 9

Which of the following snacks has the
lowest cariogenic potential?
A. Tuna fish sandwich on whole wheat
bread, green salad, 2% milk.
B. Chicken sandwich on white bread,
diet cola, avocado.
C. Pretzels, potatoe chips, juice.
D. Hard-boiled egg, celery and carrot
sticks, diet cola.

Back 9

A. Tuna fish sandwich on whole wheat
bread, green salad, 2% milk.

Front 10

A mandibular fracture during normal
mastication is most likely to occur in a
patient with
A. osteoporosis.
B. a large intraosseous lesion.
C. an impacted tooth at the inferior
border.
D. advanced alveolar atrophy.

Back 10

B. a large intraosseous lesion

Front 11

Nystatin is the drug of choice for
A. aphthous stomatitis.
B. candidiasis.
C. periodontal abscess.
D. necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis
(NUG).

Back 11

B. candidiasis.

Front 12

The most appropriate treatment of chronic
sclerosing osteomyelitis of the mandible
includes
1. intravenous antibiotics followed by
long term oral antibiotics.
2. hyperbaric oxygen.
3. decortication.
4. radiotherapy.

Back 12

1. intravenous antibiotics followed by
long term oral antibiotics.
2. hyperbaric oxygen.
3. decortication.

Front 13

In periodontal disease, connective tissue
destruction results from direct action of
A. matrix metalloproteinases.
B. bacterial toxins.
C. cytokines.
D. organic acids.

Back 13

A. matrix metalloproteinases.

Front 14

Dental implants are
CONTRAINDICATED in patients who
1. are over age 80.
2. have unrepaired cleft palates.
3. are taking anticoagulants.
4. have uncontrolled diabetes mellitus.

Back 14

4. have uncontrolled diabetes mellitus.

Front 15

An 8 year old patient with all primary
molars still present exhibits a cusp-to-cusp
relationship of permanent maxillary and
mandibular first molars and good
alignment of the lower incisors. The
management of this patient should be to
A. refer for orthodontic consultation.
B. use a cervical headgear to reposition
maxillary molars.
C. disk the distal surfaces of primary
mandibular second molars.
D. place patient on appropriate recall
schedule.

Back 15

D. place patient on appropriate recall
schedule.

Front 16

Which antibiotic is
CONTRAINDICATED for a patient with
a history of a Type 1 anaphylactic reaction
to penicillin?
A. Azithromycin (Zithromax®).
B. Cephalexin (Keflex®).
C. Clindamycin (Dalacin®).
D. Erythromycin (Eryc®).

Back 16

B. Cephalexin (Keflex®)

Front 17

A smooth, elevated, red patch devoid of
filiform papillae, located in the midline of
the dorsum of the tongue immediately
anterior to the circumvallate papillae is
indicative of
A. benign migratory glossitis.
B. median rhomboid glossitis.
C. a granular cell tumor.
D. iron deficiency anemia.
E. a fibroma.

Back 17

B. median rhomboid glossitis.

Front 18

When probing a healthy gingival sulcus
with a 20g force, the tip of the periodontal
probe is most likely located
A. coronal to the junctional epithelium.
B. at the level of the junctional
epithelium.
C. at the level of the supra crestal fibers.
D. apical to the junctional epithelium.

Back 18

B. at the level of the junctional
epithelium.

Front 19

Which of the following “in office”
preventive procedures is most practical
and effective for an uncooperative 4-year
old patient from a non-compliant family?
A. Oral hygiene instruction.
B. Dietary counseling.
C. Fluoride varnish every six months.
D. Fluoride supplements.
E. Pit and fissure sealants on all primary
molars.

Back 19

C. Fluoride varnish every six months.

Front 20

A 25 year old female in her first trimester
of pregnancy presents with an acute dental
infection. Which of the following is
CONTRAINDICATED for this patient?
A. Prescription of a radiograph.
B. Prescription of penicillin V.
C. Extraction using 2% xylocaine with
1:100,000 epinephrine.
D. Acetylsalicylic acid for pain
management.

Back 20

D. Acetylsalicylic acid for pain
management.

Front 21

A patient receiving daily corticosteroid
therapy for the past six months requires
surgical extraction of tooth 3.8. Prior to
the surgery, this patient’s drug therapy
should be modified by
A. stopping corticosteroid therapy for
one week.
B. stopping corticosteriod therapy for
the day of operation.
C. increasing corticosteroid intake for
one week.
D. increasing corticosteroid intake for
the day of operation.

Back 21

D. increasing corticosteroid intake for
the day of operation.

Front 22

The risk of transmission of Hepatitis B
Virus (HBV) is greater than that of Human
Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) because
HBV is
1. more resistant than HIV.
2. transmissible through saliva.
3. in higher numbers in blood than
HIV.
4. autoclave resistant

Back 22

1. more resistant than HIV.
2. transmissible through saliva.
3. in higher numbers in blood than
HIV.

Front 23

With two rescuers performing
cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) on
an adult patient, how many external chest
compressions are given per minute?
A. 40
B. 60
C. 80
D. 100

Back 23

D. 100

Front 24

Which of the following teeth are at
greatest risk for developing root caries?
A. Mandibular incisors.
B. Mandibular posteriors.
C. Maxillary incisors.
D. Maxillary posteriors.

Back 24

B. Mandibular posteriors.

Front 25

Respiration is depressed by
A. lowered arterial CO2.
B. acidemia.
C. stretching of lung tissue.
D. increased peripheral chemoreceptor
activity.

Back 25

A. lowered arterial CO2.

Front 26

In the treatment of necrotizing ulcerative
gingivitis with associated
lymphadenopathy, which of the following
medications is the most effective?
A. An anti-inflammatory.
B. A topical antibiotic.
C. A systemic antibiotic.
D. An analgesic.

Back 26

C. A systemic antibiotic.

Front 27

Which of the following radiographic
investigations results in the lowest
effective dose?
A. An 18 film intraoral series.
B. A lateral cephalometric projection.
C. A panoramic radiograph.
D. A computer tomograph (CT) of the
mandible.

Back 27

B. A lateral cephalometric projection.

Front 28

Which of the following sweeteners used in
sugarless gum is most effective in
preventing caries?
A. Xylitol.
B. Sorbitol.
C. Mannitol.
D. Glycerol.

Back 28

A. Xylitol.

Front 29

Which of the following are possible
causes of Bell’s Palsy?
1. Incorrect injection technique.
2. Viral infection.
3. Inflammation of the facial nerve.
4. Surgical trauma.

Back 29

E. All of the above.

Front 30

During a normal chewing cycle, which of
the following has/have maximum EMG
activity when the teeth are in maximum
intercuspation?
1. Medial pterygoid muscles.
2. Masseter muscles.
3. Lateral pterygoid muscles.
4. Digastric muscles.

Back 30

1. Medial pterygoid muscles.
2. Masseter muscles.
3. Lateral pterygoid muscles.

Front 31

The most appropriate time to remove a
supernumerary tooth that is disturbing the
eruption of a permanent tooth is
A. as soon as possible.
B. after two thirds of the permanent root
has formed.
C. after the apex of the permanent root
has closed.
D. after the crown appears calcified
radiographically.

Back 31

A. as soon as possible.

Front 32

A patient presents with hypodontia,
conical teeth, fine, scanty, fair hair, and an
intolerance to hot weather. The most
likely diagnosis is
A. achondroplasia.
B. malignant hyperthermia.
C. ectodermal dysplasia.
D. cystic fibrosis.

Back 32

C. ectodermal dysplasia.

Front 33

Which of the following is a possible cause
for a low density radiograph (light film)?
A. Cold developer.
B. Over exposure.
C. Improper safety light.
D. Excessive developing time.

Back 33

A. Cold developer.

Front 34

Overlapping contacts on a bitewing
radiograph result from
1. malalignment of teeth.
2. incorrect vertical angulation of the xray
beam.
3. incorrect horizontal angulation of the
x-ray beam.
4. patient movement during the
exposure.

Back 34

1. malalignment of teeth.
3. incorrect horizontal angulation of the
x-ray beam.

Front 35

In a child with a high caries incidence, the
most appropriate cement for a band and
loop space maintainer is
A. zinc oxyphosphate.
B. glass ionomer.
C. zinc oxide and eugenol.
D. polycarboxylate cement.

Back 35

B. glass ionomer.

Front 36

The washing of hands must be performed
before putting on and after removing
gloves because it
1. reduces the number of skin bacteria
which multiply and cause irritation.
2. completely eliminates skin bacteria.
3. minimizes the transient bacteria
which could contaminate hands
through small pinholes.
4. allows gloves to slide on easier when
the hands are moist.

Back 36

1. reduces the number of skin bacteria
which multiply and cause irritation.
3. minimizes the transient bacteria
which could contaminate hands
through small pinholes.

Front 37

The risk of latex allergy increases with
a/an
1. increased exposure to latex.
2. history of spina bifida.
3. history of allergy to bananas,
chestnuts or avocado.
4. history of eczema.

Back 37

E. All of the above.

Front 38

Appropriate management for the relief of
symptoms of primary herpetic
gingivostomatitis in an
immunocompromised patient may include
1. Diphenhydramine elixir 12.5mg/5ml.
2. Triamcinolone acetonide in Orabase.
3. Acyclovir capsules 200mg.
4. Dexamethasone elixir 0.5mg/ml.

Back 38

1. Diphenhydramine elixir 12.5mg/5ml.
3. Acyclovir capsules 200mg.

Front 39

Gingival enlargement may result from the
administration of
1. nifedipine.
2. cyclosporine.
3. phenytoin sodium.
4. prednisolone.

Back 39

1. nifedipine.
2. cyclosporine.
3. phenytoin sodium

Front 40

The survey of the diagnostic cast that is
done as part of a removable partial denture
design procedure is needed to
1. determine the path of insertion of the
removable partial denture.
2. evaluate the retention potential of the
abutment teeth.
3. evaluate the modifications needed to
create parallel guiding planes.
4. locate the height of contour abutment
teeth.

Back 40

E. All of the above.

Front 41

Pontic design for a porcelain fused to
metal bridge should
1. provide for a rigid restoration.
2. allow for complete coverage of the
metal by the porcelain.
3. place the porcelain metal joint away
from the soft tissues.
4. control thermal conductivity.

Back 41

1. provide for a rigid restoration.
3. place the porcelain metal joint away
from the soft tissues.

Front 42

When designing a removable partial
denture, changing the tilt of the cast on the
surveyor alters the
1. path of insertion of the planned
removable partial denture.
2. the position of the survey line on the
cast.
3. the undercut and non-undercut areas.
4. the direction of forces applied to the
partial denture.

Back 42

1. path of insertion of the planned
removable partial denture.
2. the position of the survey line on the
cast.
3. the undercut and non-undercut areas.

Front 43

The best way to protect the abutments of a
Class I removable partial denture from the
negative effects of the additional load
applied to them is by
A. splinting abutments with adjacent
teeth.
B. keeping a light occlusion on the
distal extensions.
C. placing distal rests on distal
abutments.
D. using cast clasps on distal abutments.
E. regular relining of the distal
extensions.

Back 43

E. regular relining of the distal
extensions

Front 44

Which of the following could cause
clicking sounds during speech in denture
wearers?
1. A nonbalanced occlusion.
2. An excessive occlusal vertical
dimension.
3. A reduced horizontal overlap.
4. A lack of denture retention.

Back 44

2. An excessive occlusal vertical
dimension.
4. A lack of denture retention.

Front 45

Which of the following can increase the
chances of successful osseointegration of a
dental implant?
1. An atraumatic surgical approach.
2. The availability of dense cancellous
bone.
3. A good initial stability of the
implant.
4. Immediate loading of the implant.

Back 45

1. An atraumatic surgical approach.
3. A good initial stability of the
implant.

Front 46

If a polyvinyl siloxane material is used to
make the final impression for a maxillary
cast restoration, the impression tray must
1. be rigid.
2. have occlusal stops.
3. be coated with an appropriate
adhesive.
4. cover the hard palate.

Back 46

1. be rigid.
2. have occlusal stops.
3. be coated with an appropriate
adhesive

Front 47

Which of the following is an acceptable
means to obtain the gingival retraction that
is needed when using an elastomeric
impression material for making a final
impression in fixed prosthodontics?
1. Electrosurgery.
2. A moist retraction cord.
3. A copper band that is removed when
the impression is made.
4. Using a heavy body material in the
impression tray.

Back 47

1. Electrosurgery.
2. A moist retraction cord.
3. A copper band that is removed when
the impression is made.

Front 48

The shape of the distobuccal border of a
mandibular denture is determined by
1. the buccinator muscle.
2. the tendon of the temporal muscle.
3. the masseter muscle.
4. the external oblique ridge.

Back 48

1. the buccinator muscle.
3. the masseter muscle

Front 49

Which of the following could cause
phonetic problems for patients with
removable dentures?
1. Posterior teeth placed in a buccal
position.
2. Excessive bulk in the palatal area.
3. Anterior teeth that are too long.
4. Advanced ridge resorption.

Back 49

E. All of the above.

Front 50

Which of the following is/are desirable in
an overdenture abutment?
1. Absence of extensive restorations.
2. Pre-existing endodontic treatment.
3. A 1:1 crown to root ratio.
4. A large band of attached gingiva.

Back 50

2. Pre-existing endodontic treatment.
4. A large band of attached gingiva.