2010 Mock Exam

Front 1

1. With respect to the TPS organizational chart, which of the following statements is correct ?

a. Enterprise Resource Management Systems, Customer Service, and Enterprise Architecture fall under Information Technology Services.

b. Staff Planning, Corporate Planning, and Records Management Services, fall under Corporate Services.

c. Professional Standards, Audit and Quality Assurance, and the Crime Information Analysis Unit fall under Executive Command.

d. Communication Services, Video Services, and Mounted and Police Dog Services fall under Specialized Operations Command.

Back 1

c

Front 2

2. According to Service Procedure 15-16 (Uniform, Equipment and Appearance Standards), beards worn by male officers shall be no longer than __________ cm from the skin:

a. 2 cm

b. 1.3 cm

c. 2.5 cm

d. 3 cm

Back 2

a

Front 3

3. According to Service Procedure 01-01 (Arrest) which of the following statements is incorrect ?

a. Prior to entering a dwelling–house to execute an arrest warrant, members shall, whenever possible, obtain an endorsement on the arrest warrant under s. 529(1) CC, or an authorization warrant (Form 7.1) under s. 529.1 CC.

b. A police officer may continue the arrest (summary, dual, indictable 553 offences) of a person where the public interest is not satisfied or for any indictable offence other than dual procedure and 553 indictable offences. The criteria for satisfying the ‘public interest’ are set out in s. 497 CC.

c. The authorization to enter may include such restrictions and conditions as the issuing Justice believes reasonable to place on the arrest process.

d. Arrests authorized under the authority of an authorization warrant must take place by day unless specifically authorized on the warrant for night time entry.

Back 3

d

Front 4

4. According to Service Procedure 01-02 (Search of Persons), a Level 1 search is commonly referred to as a:

a. general search.

b. field search.

c. frisk search.

d. b and c.

e. None of the above.

Back 4

d

Front 5

5. Generally, consent searches apply when:

a. lawful authority exists to search.

b. consent for the search is informed and freely given.

c. the person to be searched is not under arrest.

d. a and b only.

Back 5

c

Front 6

6. With respect to Service Procedure 01-03 (Persons in Custody), it is the responsibility of the OIC to ensure which of the following items of information are posted within the cell area:

a. time arrested.

b. time placed in cell.

c. Arresting officers badge number.

d. All of the above.

e. a and b only.

Back 6

e

Front 7

7. You are the booking Sergeant at a division and a prisoner is paraded before you. The parading officers advise you that the prisoner is diabetic and produce a kit belonging to the prisoner containing sealed sterile syringes and insulin in a vile, labeled with the prisoners name, the name of the prescribing physician, the quantity of medication, and the date prescribed. The prisoner advises you that he is due to take his insulin. Which of the following is the correct action to take:

a. Allow the prisoner to take the medication under supervision and record this on the Prisoner Medication (TPS 470) form.

b. Give the prisoner a soft drink containing sugar, sweetened orange juice, a chocolate bar or candy containing sugar, and ensure that he is immediately transported to hospital.

c. Contact Telehealth Ontario for advice as to whether the individual is in need of immediate hospital care.

d. Ensure that the prisoner is transported to hospital for treatment by a physician.

e. None of the above.

Back 7

d

Front 8

8. According to Service Procedure 01-08, the Officer in Charge shall ensure that the first court appearance of an accused released on a Promise to Appear (form 10) is established as being _____ weeks from the date of the release.

a. 6 weeks.

b. 5 weeks.

c. 4 weeks.

d. 3 weeks.

e. None of the above.

Back 8

a

Front 9

9. Which of the following conditions is not one that an officer in charge (OIC) may compel an accused released from custody on an undertaking (Form 11.1) to agree to do ?

a. Abstain from attending any place specified in the undertaking.

b. Comply with any other condition specified in the undertaking that the OIC considers necessary to ensure the safety and security of any victim of or witness to the offence.

c. Observe a curfew.

d. Both b and c.
e. None of the above.

Back 9

c

Front 10

10. Who is responsible for serving the offence notice for a person brought into custody and charged with the offence of “Intoxicated in a public place” contrary to section 31(5) of the Liquor Licence Act ?

a. The officer who issues the offence notice.

b. The officer who arrested the accused.

c. The OIC.

d. The booking officer.

e. None of the above.

Back 10

c

Front 11

11. Which of the following situations is a reverse onus situation as defined by Service procedure 01-15 (Bail Hearings and Detention Orders) ?

a. An adult is charged with failing to comply with probation (sec 733.1 C.C.) and is before the courts on a charge of robbery contrary to sec 344 C.C.

b. A young person is charged with failing to comply with probation.

c. An adult is charged with possession of marihuana (under 30 grams) contrary to section 4 CDSA, while still before the courts on the same charge.

d. A young person is charged with fail to comply recognizance – sec 145(3) C.C., committed while he is before the courts on a charge of theft under $ 5000.

e. Both c and d.

f. All of the above.

Back 11

d

Front 12

12. Accountability for notifying the victim of an accused persons bail conditions in the case of a domestic violence situation falls on the:

a. OIC.

b. Case manager.

c. Officer delegated to conduct the notification.

d. Arresting Officer.

e. All of the above.

Back 12

a

Front 13

13. With respect to Service procedure 04-02 (Death investigations), in cases where the deceased is badly decomposed, which of the following persons have the authority to pronounce death ?

a. The coroner.

b. The first police officer on scene.

c. A qualified medical practitioner.

d. The base hospital physician through consultation with an on-scene paramedic.

e. All of the above.

Back 13

e

Front 14

14. According to Service procedure 04-02 (Death investigations), who is responsible for consulting with a member of the On-Call Homicide Squad Team when investigating the death of a child under five years of age:

a. The divisional detective.

b. The first officer on scene.

c. The supervisory officer.

d. The Officer in Charge.

e. The case manager.

Back 14

b

Front 15

15. You are detailed to notify next of kin of the death of a person in your division, however are unable to locate that person. At this point you shall:

a. Ensure this information is entered on the ECops occurrence.

b. Notify the divisional detective to continue the effort.

c. Notify the OIC.

d. Document the steps taken in your memorandum book.

e. All of the above.

Back 15

b

Front 16

16. Which of the following is the responsibility of the Officer in Charge when involved in a Level 2 Missing Persons investigation:

a. Ensure detectives are assigned to the investigation, where applicable.

b. Notify the Duty Inspector – Duty Desk.

c. Ensure a media relations officer is appointed, or where appropriate, request the assistance of the Public Information Unit in handling all media inquiries.

d. Both a and b.

e. All of the above.

Back 16

a

Front 17

17. With respect to Service Procedure 04-16 (Death in Police Custody), which of the following statements is incorrect ?

a. A supervisory officer when notified of a death in police custody shall notify the Duty inspector – Duty Desk.

b. The officer in charge when notified of a death in police custody shall ensure the attendance of an investigator from FIS.

c. The Officer in Charge – Duty Desk when notified of a death in police custody shall notify the Chief’s SIU Designate and the appropriate Deputy Chief of Police.

d. The Province’s Special Investigations Unit (SIU) mandate is invoked whenever an in-custody death occurs.

e. The SIU and FIS run parallel forensic investigations when there is a death in police custody.

Back 17

a

Front 18

18. With respect to Service Procedure 04-35 (Source management – Confidential Source), all of the following are required to be included in the memorandum book entries of a supervisory officer when notified by an officer of an intended meeting with a source, except:

a. the date, time, and location of the intended meeting.

b. The primary and secondary officers’ names and badge numbers.

c. The name of the source.

d. The Confidential Source number.

Back 18

c

Front 19

19. With respect to Service procedure 05-01 (Preliminary Homicide Investigation), which of the following statements is correct ?

a. All deaths involving a child under the age of five years are to be considered suspicious.

b. The first police officer on scene of a suspicious death or suspected homicide shall consult with a member of the On-Call Homicide Team.

c. The supervisory officer attending the scene of a suspicious death or homicide shall ensure the attendance of a divisional detective.

d. a and b only.

e. All of the above.

Back 19

e

Front 20

20. Which of the following is not a responsibility of the first police officer attending the scene of a confirmed hold-up ?

a. When a video is available and HUS officers are not available, obtain an XXVA number from Video Services.

b. Notify the Officer in Charge – Duty Desk.

c. Interview the victim.

d. If bait money has been given to the suspect, contact RMS-Ops to obtain an occurrence number and have the serial numbers of the bills entered onto CPIC.

e. Photocopy the hold-up note in the absence of HUS officers.

Back 20

b

Front 21

21. The officer in charge, when advised of a break and enter, shall ensure that:

a. the key holder is contacted and requested to attend the scene.

b. a supervisory officers attends.

c. A CPIC Alert message is generated, if appropriate.

d. The communications operator is advised of suspects or vehicles.

e. Divisional detectives attend the scene.

Back 21

a

Front 22

22. According to Service Procedure 05-04 (Domestic Violence), the decision to lay charges shall not be influenced by all the below factors except:

a. Likelihood of obtaining a conviction.

b. Refusal of the victim to provide a statement or account of the event.

c. Fear of reprisals by the accused.

d. Immigration status of the parties.

e. Disposition of previous calls for police service.

Back 22

b

Front 23

23. With respect to Service Procedure 05-04 (Domestic Violence), which of the following statements is incorrect:

a. an officer responding to an incident involving domestic violence may compel an accused’s appearance in court by way of an appearance notice (form 9) or criminal summons.

b. trespassing contrary to the Trespass to Property Act could fall under the definition of “domestic violence”.

c. When responding solo to a domestic violence call, the first officer to arrive on scene should be prepared to act prior to the arrival of a backup officer in emergent circumstances.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

Back 23

e

Front 24

24. With respect to Service Procedure 05-05 (Sexual Assault), all of the following facilities are designated as Sexual Assault Care Centres except:

a. St. Michael’s Hospital

b. St. Joseph’s Health Care Centre

c. Trillium Health Care Centre – Mississauga

d. Scarborough Hospital (Grace Division)

e. Hospital for Sick Children.

Back 24

a

Front 25

25. With respect to Service Procedure 05-05 (Sexual Assault), the police officer attending a sexual assault call shall do all of the following except:

a. record the physical and emotional condition of the victim in the officers memo book.

b. request that the victim postpone voiding wherever possible until after the medical examination.

c. Contact MCIS (Multilingual Community Interpreter Services) when interpreting services are required and include the applicable details in the report.

d. Obtain details of the occurrence and where appropriate, comment in the report on the validity or truth of the complaint.

e. Collect the Sexual Assault Evidence Kit (SAEK) only at the direction of a Divisional Sexual Assault Investigator or a SCU Sexual Assault Investigator.

Back 25

d

Front 26

26. A parent and her 8 year old child attend 52 Division and report that the child has been physically abused/assaulted by a caregiver in Barrie, Ontario. The suspect currently lives at the victim’s family home situated in 52 Division. According to Service Procedure 05-06 (Child Abuse), what is the proper course of action for this investigation ?

a. The matter is referred to a Childrens Aid Society (CAS) worker within the City of Toronto, to be investigated in conjunction with the Barrie Police Service.

b. The complainant is advised that the matter should be reported directly to the Barrie Police Service.

c. The investigation is assigned to a Designated Child Abuse Investigator within 52 Division.

d. The initial investigation is conducted by an officer from 52 Division and the information relating to it is forwarded to the Barrie Police Service.

e. None of the above.

Back 26

d

Front 27

27. According to Service Procedure 05-16 (Hate/Bias Crimes), the supervisory officer shall advise the _____________ of all the relevant facts.

a. Officer in Charge – Duty Desk.

b. Duty Inspector – Duty Desk.

c. Officer in Charge.

d. Divisional Detective Sergeant.

e. Hate Crime Coordinator.

Back 27

c

Front 28

28. According to Service Procedure 05-21 (Firearms), firearms and ammunition seized during an investigation will be surrendered to ____________ for further investigation and testing.

a. The Gun and Gang Task Force.

b. A Forensic Identification Officer.

c. The Centre for Forensic Sciences.

d. The Provincial Weapons Enforcement Unit.

e. Intelligence Services – Firearms Analysis Unit.

Back 28

a

Front 29

29. With respect to Service procedure 05-22 (Abuse of Elderly or Vulnerable Persons), the Officer In Charge upon reviewing a completed eCops report or CIPS case, relating to the abuse of elderly or vulnerable persons, shall ensure the reports are transmitted by facsimile transmission (fax) to:

a. The Elder Abuse Co-ordinator – Community Mobilization Unit.

b. The Enquiry Section, Records Management Services – Operations.

c. Victim Services.

d. Vulnerable Persons Section – Community Mobilization Unit

e. Officer in Charge – Duty Desk

Back 29

b

Front 30

30. With respect to Service procedure 05-28 (Gang-Related Investigations), it is the responsibility of the Officer in Charge when notified of a gang-related incident to ensure that a copy of any occurrence identifying a gang-related incident or a person’s membership or association to a gang offence is forwarded to:

a. The Divisional Gang Co-ordinator.

b. The Gun and Gang Task Force.

c. Intelligence Services – Urban Organized Crime.

d. The Divisional Crime Analyst.

e. The Divisional Detective Sergeant.

Back 30

a

Front 31

31. With respect to Service Procedure 05-32 (Kidnapping), upon being notified of a kidnapping or suspected kidnapping, the Officer in Charge shall ensure:

a. The OCE has been notified.

b. The DOC has been notified.

c. The SCU has been notified.

d. Both a and b.

e. All of the above.

Back 31

d

Front 32

32. With respect to Service Procedure 06-04 (Emotionally Disturbed Persons), in circumstances where the location of a person named on a Form-MHA is unknown, and every reasonable effort to locate that individual has been made, the officer shall complete an eCops occurrence entitled:

a. Emotionally Disturbed Person – Form _____ Held.

b. EDP – Form – MHA

c. Form ___ Held – Emotionally Disturbed Person

d. EDP – Refer to Employment Office

e. None of the above.

Back 32

b

Front 33

33. Under the Residential Tenancies Act, which of the following do not qualify as being “residential premises” as defined under the act:

a. A rooming house.

b. A hotel or motel.

c. Premises whose occupants are required to share a bathroom or kitchen facility with the owner/owner’s family, where the owner/owner’s family lives in the same building in which the premises is located.

d. Both b and c.

e. All of the above.

Back 33

d

Front 34

34. With respect to Service Procedure 07-05 (Collisions Involving Service Vehicles), the responsibility to determine if a member requires training or has committed an offence is that of:

a. The Unit Commander.

b. The Officer in Charge.

c. The Supervisory Officer assigned to investigate the collision.

d. The Traffic Officer investigating the collision.

e. The Unit commander – Professional Standards.

Back 34

c

Front 35

35. Breaches of confidentiality with respect to the EFAP Program are to be reported to:

a. The members Unit Commander.

b. A Supervisory officer.

c. The EFAP Committee

d. The Unit commander – EFAP

e. Both c and d.

Back 35

e

Front 36

36. With respect to Service Procedure 08-02 (Sickness Reporting), members who are off work for less than ________ working days as a result of a transient illness do not need to consult with Medical Advisory Services prior to returning to work, unless modification of their duties is required to effect the return or they are directed to do so by their unit commander or a member of Occupational Health and Safety – Medical Advisory (MAS).

a. 15

b. 12

c. 10

d. 7

e. 5

Back 36

c

Front 37

37. With respect to Service Procedure 08-02 (Sickness Reporting), the Officer in Charge when a member is unable to report for duty to complete a tour of duty due to sickness, shall ensure supervisors perform wellness visits after ________ consecutive days of absence or as directed by the Medical Advisor or an Occupational Health Nurse – Occupational Health and Safety.

a. 14

b. 10

c. 7

d. 5

e. 3

Back 37

e

Front 38

38. With respect to Service procedure 08-03 (Injury Reporting), the supervisor being notified by a member that he/she has been involved in a workplace accident shall fax a copy of the TPS 765 (Injured on Duty Report) to:

a. Compensation and Benefits – Benefits Analyst

b. Officer in Charge – Duty Desk

c. Occupational Health and Safety – Medical Advisory Services

d. Occupational Health and Safety – Workers’ Compensation Services.

e. Compensation and Benefits – Sick Bank.

Back 38

d

Front 39

39. According to Service Procedure 08-04 (Critical Incident Stress), a Defusing Session lasts for approximately:

a. 10 minutes

b. 30 minutes

c. 1 hour

d. 2 hours

e. 2.5 hours

Back 39

b

Front 40

40. According to Service Procedure 08-04 (Critical Incident Stress), the Officer in Charge (or Civilian Equivalent) upon becoming aware of a critical incident taking place shall notify:

a. The Unit Commander and OIC – Duty Desk.

b. The CIDT Co-Ordinator and the Officer in Charge – Duty Desk.

c. The Duty Inspector – Duty Desk and an on-call member of the Toronto Police Association (Association).

d. The Unit Commander and applicable Deputy Chief through the OIC – Duty Desk or Duty Inspector – Duty Desk.

e. The CIDT Co-Ordinator, Duty Inspector – Duty Desk, an on-call member of Public Information (if required), and an on-call member of the Toronto Police Association (Association).

Back 40

a

Front 41

41. With respect to Service Procedure 08-05 (Substance Abuse), a supervisor who determines that there are fitness for duty concerns in relation to a member shall:

a. Submit a TPS 901 (Policy, service, Conduct Report) to the Unit Commander prior to the completion of the tour of duty.

b. Submit a TPS 649 (Internal Correspondence) to the Director – Medical Advisory Services.

c. Submit a TPS 649 (Internal Correspondence) to the Unit Commander.

d. Provide heightened performance monitoring and management.

e. Ensure the member does not go out with the rest of the platoon on Wednesday nights.

Back 41

c

Front 42

42. With respect to Service Procedure 08-09 (Workplace Safety), which of the following injuries is not considered a critical injury:

a. Amputation of a finger.

b. Burns to a major portion of the body.

c. Fracture of an arm.

d. Substantial loss of blood.

e. Unconsciousness.

Back 42

a

Front 43

43. According to Service Procedure 08-10 (External Threats Against Service Members), ensuring that Service facilities are safe is the responsibility of:

a. The Unit Commander.

b. Intelligence Services – Threat Assessment.

c. Facilities Management.

d. Occupational Health and Safety.

e. Sex Crimes Unit – Behavioural Assessment Section

Back 43

d

Front 44

44. Business hours for the Drug Repository are:

a. 0700 to 1600 hrs.

b. 0730 to 1630 hrs.

c. 0700 to 2300 hrs.

d. 0600 to 1600 hrs.

e. 0700 to 1630 hrs.

Back 44

e

Front 45

45. How much notice (excluding weekends and statutory holidays) does the PEMU require to ensure delivery of property to the DLMS at a unit ?

a. 7 days

b. 48 hours

c. 72 hours

d. 24 hours

e. 5 days.

Back 45

b

Front 46

46. Who is responsible for contacting Health Canada – Sample Control Division, when a quantitative analysis is required for a drug investigation ?

a. The Case Manager.

b. The Drug Repository.

c. CDIU.

d. Toronto Drug Squad – Crime Analyst

e. Intelligence Services.

Back 46

c

Front 47

47. With respect to Service Procedure 09-06 (Property of Persons in Custody), if valuable property is retained by a prisoner, the Officer in Charge shall notify:

a. The transporting officer.

b. The Officer in Charge at the central lockup.

c. Court Services

d. The booker.

e. None of the above.

Back 47

a

Front 48

48. With respect to Service Procedure 10-01 (Emergency Incident Response), the Officer in Charge when notified of an emergency incident shall then notify:

a. The OIC – Duty Desk and request notification of the on-call member of the Public Safety & Emergency Management Unit.

b. The Supervisor – Communications Centre.

c. The Unit Commander - Public Safety & Emergency Management Unit.

d. The Officer in Charge of any unit affected by the incident.

e. The Unit Commander.

Back 48

e

Front 49

49. With respect to Service Procedure 10-01 (Emergency Incident Response), which of the following functions do not fall under the logistics function of the Incident Command Organizational Chart ?

a. Transportation.

b. Feeding.

c. Facilities.

d. Procurement.

e. Supply.

Back 49

d

Front 50

50. Which of the following forms part of the Toronto Police Service Vision Statement:

a. We are dedicated to delivering police services, in partnership with our communities.

b. We are committed to deliver police services, which are sensitive to the needs of the community.

c. We are dedicated to deliver police services, which are sensitive to the needs of the community.

d. We are committed to deliver police services, in partnership with our communities.

e. We are committed to deliver police services and endure this process, without eating our gun.

Back 50

b

Front 51

51. With respect to Service procedure 10-02 (Hazardous Materials), which of the following publications contains a list of hazardous materials by name and identification number:

a. Hazardous Materials Identification Catalogue.

b. Canadian Substance Identification Catalogue.

c. Index of Hazardous Materials.

d. North American Emergency Response Guidebook.

e. Emergency Service Hazardous Materials Manual.

Back 51

d

Front 52

52. With respect to Service procedure 10-03 (Bomb Threats and Explosions), an officer attending a call where a suspected explosive package/device is located, shall establish a perimeter in compliance with the safe distance chart. This chart is provided by:

a. Emergency Task Force – Explosives Disposal Unit (EDU).

b. Fire Services.

c. North American Ground Intelligence Center (NAGIC).

d. Technical Standards Safety Authority (TSSA).

e. None of the above.

Back 52

e

Front 53

53. A police officer attending an incident that requires the attendance of the ETF shall notify:

a. The Communications Operator.

b. A Supervisory officer.

c. The Officer in Charge.

d. The OIC – Duty Desk.

e. All of the above.

Back 53

a

Front 54

54. With respect to Service Procedure 10-09 (Evacuations), who is responsible for determining whether or not a building or area is to be evacuated in an emergency ?

a. The Evacuation Officer.

b. The OIC of the Police Command Centre (PCC).

c. The Incident Commander.

d. The first Supervisory Officer on scene.

e. The Senior Officer on scene - Toronto Fire Services.

Back 54

c

Front 55

55. With respect to emergencies and pursuits which take place on TTC property, it is possible for an officer to cut the power to a subway train. The power trips for this function are located at ____________:

a. TTC Transit Control Centre.

b. The Subway Platform.

c. On the raised catwalk.

d. At each blue light emergency alarm station.

e. None of the above.

Back 55

d

Front 56

56. The code number designated as a summon for police assistance on TTC property is:

a. 111

b. 117

c. 121

d. 113

e. None of the above.

Back 56

b

Front 57

57. Officers attend a local school where there is an active shooter within the school. In accordance with Service Procedure 10-13 (Threats to School Safety), the proper response to this situation is:

a. Establish a perimeter and await arrival of the ETF.

b. Establish a perimeter and take direction from the Incident Commander.

c. Establish a perimeter and take direction from the first responding supervisory officer.

d. Enter the school and stop the threat in accordance with training.

e. Both a and b.

Back 57

d

Front 58

58. With respect to Service Procedure 11-03 (Police Response at Labour Disputes), who is responsible for notifying the Industrial Liaison Officer – PSU when a labour dispute terminates:

a. The Supervisory Officer.

b. The OIC – Duty Desk

c. The Unit Commander.

d. The responding police officer.

e. The Officer in Charge.

Back 58

e

Front 59

59. When a member is notified after 2300 hrs of the preceding day that an off-duty court appearance is cancelled, the OIC or Detective Sergeant shall:

a. Determine if the member wishes to elect time or cash.

b. ensure a TPS 649 is immediately prepared and sent to Financial Management – Payroll requesting the appropriate entries on the Time Resource Management System (TRMS).

c. ensure a TPS 649 is immediately prepared and sent to the Unit Commander requesting the appropriate entries on the Time Resource Management System (TRMS).

d. ensure a TPS 649 is immediately prepared and sent to the unit administrative co-ordinator requesting the appropriate entries on the Time Resource Management System (TRMS).

e. Both a & c.

Back 59

e

Front 60

When a charge is laid against a police officer, suspension shall be initiated for all of the following offences, except:

a. sexual assault.

b. Robbery.
.
c. aggravated assault.

d. Perjury.

e. assault (domestic).

Back 60

d

Front 61

61. The supervisors report relating to a conduct complaint against a civilian member will be submitted on:

a. Any document authorized in a unit-specific policy and signed by the reporting supervisor;

b. TPS 649;

c. TPS 901;

d. TPS 931;

e. None of the above.

Back 61

a

Front 62

62. When suspending a civilian member from duties, one of the responsibilities of the supervisor/officer in charge is:

a. generate a TPS 931.

b. verbally suspend the member from duty.

c. Comply with the applicable sections of Procedure 13-09 (Civilian Discipline Process).

d. All of the above.

e. A & b only.

Back 62

d

Front 63

63. With respect to Service Procedure 13-11 (Unsatisfactory Work Performance), the time frame for a special review is:

a. 60 days, with additional review periods of 30 days in the event that a supervisor is unable to fully observe the conduct of the member as a result of illness or injury, up to a maximum of 60 days.

b. 90 days, with additional review periods of 30 days in the event that a supervisor is unable to fully observe the conduct of the member as a result of illness or injury, up to a maximum of 90 days.

c. 120 days, with additional review periods of 30 days in the event that a supervisor is unable to fully observe the conduct of the member as a result of illness or injury, up to a maximum of 120 days.

d. 30 days, with additional review periods of 30 days in the event that a 60 days, with additional review periods of 30 days in the event that a supervisor is unable to fully observe the conduct of the member as a result of illness or injury, up to a maximum of 60 days.

e. 60 days, with additional review periods of 30 days in the event that a supervisor is unable to fully observe the conduct of the member as a result of illness or injury, up to a maximum of 90 days.

Back 63

b

Front 64

64. A member served with an OHRC complaint, or allegation thereof is required to:

a. Submit a TPS 649 to the Unit Commander.

b. Submit a TPS 649 to the Unit Commander – DMU.

c. Submit a TPS 649 to Legal Services.

d. Submit a TPS 649 to the Unit Commander – Professional Standards.

e. None of the above.

Back 64

e

Front 65

With respect to Service Procedure 13-16 (Special Investigations Unit), serious injury shall initially be presumed when the injured party:

a. suffers a fracture to a limb, rib, vertebrae, or the skull.

b. suffers a loss of vision.

c. suffers a loss of hearing.

d. All of the above.

e. A & b only.

Back 65

d

Front 66

Under some circumstances, police officers are required to collect evidence at a scene where the SIU mandate is invoked.

a. True
b. False

Back 66

a

Front 67

67. Proving of firearms related to an investigation where the SIU mandate is invoked shall be done in the presence of:

a. The SIU Liaison officer.

b. A supervisory officer.

c. The SIU investigator.

d. The Chief’s SIU designate.

e. Both c & d.

Back 67

e

Front 68

68. An interview of a witness officer conducted by the SIU may not be recorded on audiotape or videotape without the consent of the witness officer.

a. True.

b. False.

Back 68

a

Front 69

Members will be evaluated by one supervisor who has supervised the member for a minimum period of:

a. 60 days

b. 6 months

c. 2 months

d. 1 year

e. None of the above.

Back 69

e

Front 70

The maximum period of time that an officer will be allowed to remain in the assignment of coach officer (unless a longer period of time is authorized in writing by the Unit Commander) is:

a. one year.

b. two years.

c. three years.

d. four years.

e. five years.

Back 70

c

Front 71

71. A member who uses force that results in an injury to a person shall:

a. Notify the Officer in Charge.

b. Notify the Communications Operator and request the attendance of a supervisory officer.

c. Immediately notify a supervisory officer.

d. Notify the OIC – Duty Desk.

e. Both a and b.

Back 71

e

Front 72

72. A Use of Force Report (UFR Form 1) is not required when used by a member to destroy an animal that is potentially dangerous or is so badly injured that humanity dictates that its suffering be ended.

a. True
b. False.

Back 72

b

Front 73

73. According to Service Procedure 15-02 (Injury/Illness Reporting), the Officer in Charge when identifying safety issues regarding members shall:

a. Notify the Unit Commander by internal correspondence.

b. Notify the Chair of the Joint Occupational Health and Safety Committee via internal correspondence.

c. Notify Medical Advisory Services via internal correspondence.

d. Notify the Unit Commander – Occupational Health and Safety via internal correspondence.

e. None of the above.

Back 73

d

Front 74

74. The Officer in Charge, when notified of an unintentional CEW use shall:

a. Provide comments and recommendations on the CEW report.

b. Generate a TPS 649 detailing the occurrence and submit it to the Unit Commander prior to the conclusion of the tour of duty.

c. Generate a TPS 901 and submit it to the Unit Commander prior to the conclusion of the tour of duty.

d. Smack the involved Sgt about the side of the head and remind him/her that they are still on probation.

e. None of the above.

Back 74

c

Front 75

Part B of the TPS 348 (Pursuit Report) must include;

a. the names and employee numbers of all officers involved in the pursuit.

b. road and weather conditions.

c. the duration of the pursuit.

d. the names and employee numbers of the pursuit supervisor and the available road supervisor.

e. methods used to terminate the pursuit.

Back 75

d

Front 76

Summer Dress options will be in effect during the period of:

a. when Daylight Savings Time is in effect.

b. May 01 to October 31.

c. April 01 to October 31.

d. May 01 to September 30.

e. None of the above.

Back 76

c

Front 77

A TPS 600 (Media Release) may include:

a. previous police contact with the accused or victim.

b. photographs, if appropriate.

c. the accused’s residential address.

d. the identity of caregivers in a child abuse case.

e. None of the above.

Back 77

b

Front 78

A Board Report shall be prepared requesting approval for a third party claim for damage or loss to private property, where the amount exceeds:

a. $ 50,000

b. $ 75,000

c. $ 100,000

d. $ 200,000

e. $ 500,000

Back 78

c

Front 79

79. According to Service Procedure 20-01 (Paid Duties), where a client has failed to provide the CPDO with at least 12 (twelve) hours notification of a cancelled paid duty, the client will be billed a _______ hour minimum charge only:

a. 3 .

b. 4.

c. 5.

d. 2.

e. 1.

Back 79

a

Front 80

80. Which of the following is not a goal of the Service Priority “Focusing on Child and Youth Safety”:

a. Reduce the impact and effects of bullying and cyber-bullying.

b. Increase safety in and around schools and promote student trust and confidence in police.

c. Provide youth with crime prevention and safety information, and encourage reporting.

d. Reduce youth crime, especially shootings, and illegal gun activity.

e. Focusing on violent crime, prevent and decrease the victimization of children and youth.

Back 80

d

Front 81

81. Which of the following statements is incorrect:

a. Members shall not allow family, social, or other relationships to influence their official conduct, judgement, or duty.

b. Members when making entries in any book, authorized form or other document connected with the duties of the Service shall record by hand in legible writing using black ink.

c. When returning prisoners, members shall not leave the City of Toronto to conduct an investigation without first having obtained the approval of the Officer in Charge, except when returning prisoners from fresh pursuit.

d. When on duty, supervisory and managerial personnel shall ensure that subordinates comply with all Service and Legislative Governance.

e. Sergeants shall visit members as frequently as possible to ensure they are performing their duties.

Back 81

b

Front 82

82. With respect to the “From the Chief” communication dated 2009-12-01, Chief Blair emphasizes that:

a. Police officers must hold themselves to a higher standard.

b. Preferential treatment for police officers undermines our relationship with those we serve and protect.

c. The Service will leave no stone unturned in the investigation of this matter.

d. If we lose the public trust, all is lost.

e. All of the above.

Back 82

b

Front 83

83. With respect to the “From the Chief” communication issued in relation to changes in the Suspect Apprehension Pursuit Procedure, Chief Blair states:

a. the part of the procedure relating to “reaching into a vehicle” will be addressed in a subsequent change to the procedure.

b. The Service is obligated to ensure that this procedure is consistent with Section 25 of the Criminal Code.

c. Discharging a firearm at the driver of the vehicle to stop the driver or reaching into the vehicle to disable it are inherently unsafe practices for both the officer and the public.

d. Officer safety is the paramount consideration in any Service Procedure.

e. All of the above.

Back 83

c

Front 84

84. The Collective Agreement provides that subject to the requirements of the Service, when a platoon is scheduled to work the two (2) week period encompassing the day shift (weeks 3 and 4 of the schedule) approximately _____ % more of the platoon will be allowed on leave for the two (2) week period:

a. 10

b. 2

c. 20

d. 5

e. None of the above.

Back 84

d

Front 85

85. The Collective Agreement provides states that during the prime summer period, supervisors shall draw a maximum of _______ weeks leave.

a. 2

b. 4

c. 5

d. 3

e. 6

Back 85

b

Front 86

86. According to Article 5:10 of the Collective Agreement, a member shall receive an additional ______ cents per hour for all hours worked during a shift which commences after 10:00 am and at or before 6:00 pm.

a. 30

b. 25

c. 20

d. 15

e. 10

Back 86

d

Front 87

87. A constable who has his/her reclassification withheld or deferred, will be reconsidered for reclassification in a further ___________ days.

a. 30

b. 45

c. 60

d. 90

e. None of the above.

Back 87

d

Front 88

88. With respect to an external conduct complaint, which of the following does not qualify for local resolution ?

a. Using profane language.

b. Neglect of Duty.

c. Failing to work in accordance with orders.

d. Failing to make a report or record an entry.

e. Deceit.

Back 88

e

Front 89

89. With respect to members in uniform, which of the following statements is correct:

a. Members shall not wear scarves.

b. Female members may wear stud earrings provided they are worn in both ears.

c. Members shall wear plain black or blue gloves except for traffic duties, parades, or designated functions.

d. Togas are an option during Police Week only.

e. None of the above.

Back 89

e

Front 90

90. With respect to Service Procedure 01-03 (Prisoners Property), when a decision is made that a prisoner will retain religious or personal items, the following action is to be taken:

a. A notation will be made in the memorandum book of the involved officer(s).

b. A notation will be made on the TPS 181 (Prisoner Transport Log).

c. A notation will be made in the prisoners property section of CIPS.

d. The Officer in Charge will notify the OIC of the Central Lock-up.

e. A notation will be made on the TPS 101 (Supplementary Record of Arrest), identifying the item(s) retained and the reason for the prisoner retaining this property.

Back 90

c

Front 91

91. With respect to Service Procedure 01-03 (Persons in Custody), when a prisoner does not wish to make a phone call(s), a notation will be made in the phone calls section of CIPS stating:

a. Call not Desired.

b. No Call desired.

c. Refused.

d. Declined.

e. None.

Back 91

b

Front 92

92. With respect to Service Procedure 01-03 (Persons in Custody), which of the following individuals are permitted to interview an adult person in custody:

a. Crown Attorney or assistant.

b. A spouse or adult friend.

c. A clergy member or spiritual advisor.

d. A private investigator involved in the investigation.

e. None of the above.

Back 92

a

Front 93

93. Which of the following is a symptom of alcohol withdrawal syndrome:

a. tremors (trembling or quivering).

b. Seizures.

c. Delerium tremens (DTs);

d. Obstructive Sleep Apnea.

e. A & b only.

Back 93

e

Front 94

94. Which of the following individuals is not a member of the Death Under Five Committee (DU5C):

a. Deputy Chief Coroner for the Province of Ontario.

b. A member of the Judiciary.

c. A Crown Attorney.

d. A police officer.

e. A pediatric forensic pathologist.

Back 94

b

Front 95

95. A Level 2 search for a missing person will be initiated when the missing person is:

a. Mentally challenged.

b. Over seventy (70) years of age or infirm.

c. Under sixteen (16) years of age.

d. A and b only.

e. All of the above.

Back 95

d

Front 96

96. According to the Toronto Police Service Organizational Chart, the Executive Officer falls under:

a. Executive Command.

b. Administrative Command.

c. The Chief of Police.

d. Specialized Operations Command.

e. Legal Counsel.

Back 96

c

Front 97

97. Which of the following does not fall under the category of deceit, as defined by the Police Services Act Ontario Regulation 328/04, Part V, Code of Conduct:

a. feigns or exaggerates sickness or injury to evade duty.

b. knowingly makes or signs a false statement in a record.

c. willfully or negligently makes a false, misleading or inaccurate statement pertaining to official duties.

d. without lawful excuse, destroys or mutilates a record or alters or erases an entry therein.

e. None of the above.

Back 97

a

Front 98

98. According to Article 1.3 of Service Governance, a member who becomes aware that another member has failed or apparently failed to follow a mandatory course of action prescribed in any Service Governance shall report the matter as soon as practicable to:

a. A Unit Commander.

b. A supervisor.

c. The Unit Commander of Professional Standards – Investigative Unit

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

Back 98

d

Front 99

99. According to Article 1.7 of Service Governance (Reporting of Conflict of Interest), members involved in situations or investigations where there are actual, apparent or potential conflicts of interest, either personally or through association with family members, shall as soon as practicable inform:

a. A supervisor.

b. A unit commander.

c. The Unit Commander of Professional Standards – Investigative Unit

d. Both A and b.

e. All of the above.

Back 99

d

Front 100

100. A member who is scheduled to conclude a tour of duty at 1600 hrs, but is required to work until 1620 hrs due to a call for service is entitled to be credited with overtime in the amount of:

a. Nil.

b. 1 hour.

c. 30 minutes.

d. 15 minutes.

e. 20 minutes.

Back 100

c

Front 101

101. According to Article 5:09 of the Uniform Collective Agreement, pay stubs shall be made available to all members in all units not later than _____________ on pay day.

a. 4:00 pm.

b. 7:00 am.

c. 9:00 am.

d. 12:00 pm.

e. 10:00 am.

Back 101

b

Front 102

102. With respect to external complaints made to the Office of Independent Police Review Directorate (OIPRD), which of the following statements is correct:

a. The OIPRD will screen out complaints they determine are over six(6) months from the date of the incident.

b. Supervisors are required to notify the subject officers of a complaint by way of a TPS 649.

c. Once a hearing has been commenced, a complainant cannot withdraw a complaint.

d. The OIPRD will notify the Chief of Police when a complaint is suitable for local resolution.

e. Investigation of a complaint will be done solely by the OIPRD.

Back 102

a

Front 103

103. Who is responsible for the safe conduct of a suspect apprehension pursuit ?

a. The individual police officer.

b. The Communications Operator – Dispatcher.

c. The Pursuit Supervisor.

d. Any authorized person monitoring the pursuit.

e. All of the above.

Back 103

e

Front 104

104. With respect to suspect apprehension pursuits, which of the following statements is incorrect ?

a. The use of a complete or partial roadblock may only be used with the authorization of a road supervisory officer and/or the pursuit supervisor.

b. A police officer may pursue or continue a pursuit where the police officer, prior to initiating a pursuit, has reasonable grounds to believe that a criminal offence or a provincial offence for which there exists the authority to arrest has been committed or is about to be committed.

c. Public safety is the paramount consideration factor in any decision to initiate, continue or abandon a pursuit.

d. A police officer operating an unmarked motor vehicle shall not engage in a pursuit unless a marked motor vehicle is not readily available and the police officer believes that it is necessary to engage in a pursuit.

e. Members should not attempt to disable an occupied vehicle by reaching into it.

Back 104

b

Front 105

105. According to Service Procedure 17-01 (News Media), the Office in Charge upon becoming aware of a newsworthy event shall notify:

a. The Unit Commander.

b. The Unit Commander of the Community Mobilization Unit and the Duty Desk.

c. The Duty Desk.

d. The Duty Desk and Public Information.

e. None of the above.

Back 105

d

Front 106

106. With respect to Service Procedure 18-04 (Third Party Claims for Damage to or Loss of Private Property), who is responsible for preparing a Board Report when required ?:

a. The supervisory officer who attends the scene or investigates the loss.

b. The Officer in Charge.

c. Financial Management.

d. The Unit Commander.

e. Labour Relations.

Back 106

c

Front 107

107. With respect to Service Procedure 20-01 (Paid Duties), which statement is correct:

a. When twelve (12) or more police officers are assigned to a paid duty, such officers shall, in addition to a sergeant/detective, be supervised by a paid duty staff sergeant/detective sergeant.

b. When ten (10) or more police officers are assigned to a paid duty, such officers shall, in addition to a sergeant/detective, be supervised by a paid duty staff sergeant/detective sergeant.

c. When fifteen (15) or more police officers are assigned to a paid duty, such officers shall, in addition to a sergeant/detective, be supervised by a paid duty staff sergeant/detective sergeant.

d. Where the number of police officers being supervised exceeds sixteen (16) staff/detective sergeants are entitled to an increased rate of pay.

e. When six (6) or more police officer are assigned to a paid duty, such officers shall be supervised by a paid duty sergeant/detective.

Back 107

b

Front 108

108. With respect to Service Procedure 20-01 (Paid Duties), a police officer prior to accepting a paid duty assignment shall not perform a paid duty or any number of paid duties exceeding _______ hours in a twenty four (24) hour period, where the twenty four (24) hour period commences at the start of the first paid duty:

a. 8.

b. 10.

c. 12.

d. 14.

e. 16.

Back 108

c

Front 109

109. With respect to Service Procedure 04-05 (Missing Persons), a Toronto Alert (CPIC Alert Message) shall be issued when:

a. the person is under sixteen (16) years of age.

b. the person has a serious medical condition.

c. the person has suicidal tendencies.

d. A and b only.

e. All of the above.

Back 109

e

Front 110

110. With respect to Service Procedure 04-02 (Death Investigations), the investigator heading an investigation or a police officer designated by the investigator shall attend the morgue and be physically present when a deceased is identified in which of the following situations:

a. Homicide, suspected homicide or other related criminal offences.

b. Cases where an inquest has been or is likely to be called.

c. Cases where identification must be made by way of fingerprints or DNA analysis.

d. a and b only.

e. All of the above.

Back 110

d