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147 Cards in this Set
- Front
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1. If the left ventricle of the heart fills with 200 mL of blood you can expect a(n) _______ in contractility and ventricular pressure will be on the _________ part of the passive “compliance” (P-vs-V) curve
A. increase, “flat” B. decrease, “flat” C. increased, severe downward (-) sloping D. decreased, severe upward (+) sloping |
D
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2. As increasing tension is applied to a skeletal muscle the characteristic curve in the length-velocity plane _______
A. shifts upward B shifts downward C. Is not a function of tension |
B
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3. Increased circulating norepinephrine (adrenaline) or increased sympathetic nerve activity causes _______ SVR, _______ heart rate, and ________ heart contractility.
A. increased, increased, increased B. increased, increased, decreased C. decreased, increased, decreased D. decreased, increased, increased E. none of the above |
A
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4. All of the following are capable of increasing body temperature EXCEPT
A. decreased sweat production B. diarrhea C. very low urine excretion D. shivering |
B
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5. When the feedback signal from the carotid baroreceptors (pressure receptors) in a normal person DECREASES rapidly the heart rate will
A. decrease and might oscillate around a new level B. increase and might oscillate with fixed frequency around a new level C. increase and vary somewhat randomly around a stable new level D. remain fixed in spite of this change in feedback |
B
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6. Decreases in Serum Na+, blood pressure or ECF volume will trigger a response from the kidney that will itself produce ________ that in turn will ultimately cause the production of ________ that itself will then _________ ADH and ________ blood pressure.
A. Angiotensin I, renin, decrease, decrease B. Renin, angiotensin II, increase, increase C. ACE, rennin, decrease, decrease D. Renin, angiotensin II, decrease, increase |
B
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7. A near-term (about to deliver) pregnant lady reclining on her back can cause __________ because _________.
A. increased cardiac output, venous blood is returned at a higher pressure B. decreased venous return, the aorta and inferior vena cava expand C. increased venous return, the superior vena cava is compressed D, decreased cardiac output, the aorta and vena cava are compressed |
D
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8. When there is more glucose supplied to glycolysis than the body needs, excess glucose is stored as
A. Androgens B. Pyruvic acid C. Lactic acid D. Glycogen |
D
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9. The formula for peripheral resistance (PR or TPR or SVR) is
A. blood pressure/(Stroke volume x Heart rate) B. contractility / stroke volume C. stroke volume x heart rate D. heart rate / blood pressure |
A
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10. In the blood pressure control system presented in class all of the following are “manipulated variables” EXCEPT
A. stroke volume B. blood pressure C. heart contractility D. vascular resistance |
B
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11. In a SIMULINK model how would you modulate the gain of a simple linear Y-vs-X transfer function?
A. Translate the curve upward on the Y-axis B. Translate the curve to the right or left on the X-axis C. Change the slope of the curve D. Add a constant to the Y-axis intercept |
C
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12. Fluid (mostly water) is pushed OUT of blood capillaries by
A. tissue pressure B. tissue osmotic pressure C. plasma oncotic pressure D. vascular hydrostatic pressure |
D
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13. You are continuously losing fluid from blood capillaries but it is recaptured because there is a non-penetrating substance in the blood vessels – predominantly:
A. Glucose B. Potassium C. Protein D. Red and white blood cells |
C
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14. When you give fluid without protein to a severely burned patient you effectively _____
A. decrease arterial hydrostatic pressure B. increase venous hydrostatic pressure C. increase tissue oncotic pressure D. decrease plasma oncotic pressure |
D
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15. When pyruvic acid (pyruvate) increases in the blood, the consumption of glucose __________ because of the feedback system called _______
A. decreases, molecular control B. decreases, end product inhibition C. increases, genetic enzyme control D. increases, generic feedback control |
B
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16. Plasma sodium concentration is about _____ and intracellular sodium is about _____ with units of
A. 145, 10, milliequivalents/liter B. 10, 145, milligrams C. 10, 145, milliequivalents/liter D. 145, 120, millimoles |
A
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17. Considering cell membrane transport mechanisms, when a person’s blood becomes acid (H+ increases) the critical ion, K+, in the blood will _______ and this can cause the heart to _______
A. decrease, increase contractility B. increase, decrease contractility C. increase, increase heart rate D. decrease, decrease contractility |
B
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18. The ion that is directly responsible for maintaining nerve and muscle resting potential is
A. Na+ B. K+ C. Ca++ D. Mg++ |
B
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19. In “Viagra” example given in class the amount of C-GMP in erectile tissue determines how much blood is present and therefore the degree of turgidity. The function of C-GMP in this context is to _________ while C-GMP is removed by the enzyme ________ so that inhibition of that enzyme leads to __________.
A. relax arterioles, anti-C-GMP, more turgidity B. dilate arterioles, phosphodiesterase -7, less turgidity C. relax arterioles, ATPase, less turgidity D. dilate arterioles, phosphodiesterase-5, more turgidity |
D
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20. The sympathetic nervous system activates ___ receptors in skin and muscle arterioles and causes ____
A. Alpha-1, vasoconstriction B. Beta-4, vasoconstriction C. Dopaminergic, vasodilation D. Cholinergic, no effect |
A
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21. The vagus nerve releases _____ in the heart and causes _____
A. norepinephrine, heart slowing B. acetycholine, heart slowing C. norepinephrine, heart speeding D. epinephrine, heart slowing |
B
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22. Including the terminal organ synapse, the sympathetic nervous system (NS) has _____ synapses outside the CNS while the parasympathetic NS has _____ synapses outside the CNS
A. 1, 2 B. 1, 3 C. 2, 2 D. 2, 1 E. 3, 1 |
C
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23. When you want to stop an asthma attack you would give a drug that stimulates ______ receptors. Such a drug is ______
A. alpha1, norcholine B. beta1, pirbuterol C. beta2, albuterol D. M1, AcH |
C
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24. Smooth muscle can contract forcefully over a much SMALLER range of length compared to skeletal muscle
A. True B. False |
B
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25. Filariasis leads to ____ that causes elephantiasis
A. excessive venous pressure B. excessive arterial pressure C. hyperosmolar ECF D. blockade of lymphatics |
D
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26. The volume of the vascular compartment, including blood cells, water and fibrinogen is about _____ (units)
A. 3500mL B. 5L C. 300 mL D. 28000 mL |
B
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27. Assuming that CO remains constant, blood velocity in a narrowed part of the aorta will be _____ than velocity in the normal part of the artery and velocity will be much ___ in capillaries
A. greater, smaller B. smaller, greater C. no different, greater |
A
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28. In the lactating breast the hormone ______ helps produce milk while the hormone ______ causes the “let down” of milk
A. ADH, ACTH B. oxytetracycline, prolactin C. prolactin, oxytocin D. ADH, oxytocin E. none of these |
C
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29. When we give an antiacetylcholinesterase to a person we effectively
A. Inhibit the release of ACh B. Causes ACh in synaptic junctions to decrease C. Causes ACh in synaptic junctions to increase D. Block ACh receptors |
C
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30. Tachycardia is always bad because of
A. a large myocardial spring constant B. inefficiency of the cardiac muscle contractile mechanism C. a velocity dependant force generator D. a very large fluid channels inside the cell |
C
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31. Someone who had his paravertebral sympathetic ganglionic chain damaged by a gunshot would
A. be partially paralyzed B. have hyperactive reflexes C. be vasodilated D. have high heart rate. |
C
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32. Which of the following is NOT a symptom of Neurocirculatory asthenia
A. Extrasystoles B. hypertension C. slow breathing (hypopnea) D. diarrhea |
C
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33. The heart is generating a mean aortic pressure of 100 pressure units. The large and small arteries together have a resistance of 5 units while the capillaries are modeled by 2 (two) 10 unit resistances in parallel. The veins returning blood to the heart have 0 resistance.
What is the cardiac output (use arbitrary units)? A. 1 B. 5 C. 10 D. 100 |
C
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34. In the question above - what is the blood pressure across the capillaries (use arbitrary units)?
A. 5 B. 10 C. 50 D. 100 |
C
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35. Blood pressure in arterial capillaries is about ______ while pressure at the level of the right atrium in a normal, standing person is about _______[Pay attention to UNITS!]
A. 60 mm Hg, 20 cm H2O B. 35 mm Hg, 7 mm Hg C. 40 cm H2O, 10 cm H2O D. 30 mm Hg, 60 mm Hg |
B
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1. The order (anatomical sequence) of pacemaker and conductile tissue in the heart, from atria to ventricles, is
A. Purkinje, His, SA, AV B. SA, AV, His, Purkinje C. AV, SA, Purkinje, His D. His, AV, Purkinje, SA |
B
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2. The P wave of the ECG is due to
A. Ventricle depolarization B. Ventricle repolarization C. Atrial depolarization D. Atrial repolarization |
C
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3. A normal aortic pressure wave starts rising from a pressure of about _____ and rises to a pressure of _______ at the peak of contraction.
A. 20, 80 B. 60, 80 C. 80, 120 D. 100, 140 |
C
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4. Blood pressure in arterial capillaries is about ______ while pressure at the level of the right atrium in a normal, standing person is about _______
A. 60 mmHg, 20 mmHg B. 35 mmHg, 7 mmHg C. 40 cm H2O, 10 cm H2O D. 30 mmHg, 60 mmHg |
B
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5. A vascular pressure transducer system that filters out high frequency Fourier components of an Aortic pressure waveform results in
A. Loss of major heart rate dependent peaks B. Loss of the P wave C. Loss of the dichrotic notch D. Enhancement of the radial artery pressure |
C
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are approximately ____
A. 15, 20, 60 B. 60, 40, 20 C. 100, 60, 30 D. 30, 100, 60 |
B or C
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7. By comparison with a normal heart, a heart with HIGH passive compliance will exhibit a much greater increase in pressure for a fixed volume increase.
A. True B. False |
B
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8. The length-tension characteristic for cardiac muscle shows that when the muscle is lengthened beyond its optimal length, the strength of active contraction ____________ .
A. increases B. decreases C. doesn’t change |
B
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9. When blood pressure drops heart rate usually increases. This is called ________ and the effect is mediated by _______
A. vagal reflex bradycardia, carotid chemoreceptors B. reflex tachycardia, carotid baroreceptors C. adaptive cardiac output reflex, aortic arch pressure receptors D. bradycardia of hypotension, lung stretch receptors |
B
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10. The dicrotic notch in the aortic root pressure waveform is a result of
A. the mitral valve closing B. the aortic valve closing C. the aortic valve opening D. the mitral valve opening |
B
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11. An erythrocyte (red blood cell) dropped into a hypotonic salt solution will
A. Swell and burst B. Shrink and expel hemoglobin C. Not change substantially |
A
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12. Polycythemia is a condition that involves the ______ and ______ and the result can be ____
A. Liver, kidney, low blood pressure B. Kidney, bone marrow, hypertension C. Kidney, spleen, hypertension D. Spleen, Kidney, hypotension |
B
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13. A normal hematocrit is about _____ % and it is (true/false) that blood donations are used only for red blood cell harvesting.
A. 30, true B. 50, false C. 70, true D. 80, false |
B
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14. Serum is
A. Platelets and red cells B. Plasma and red cells C. Plasma without fibrinogen D. Plasma without white cells |
C
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15. The law that is important in linking polycythemia to blood pressure problems is
A. Frank-Starling B. LaPlace’s C. Poisieulle’s D. Hooke’s |
C
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16. Cardiac muscle contraction proceeds from
A. The outer surface of the ventricle to the inside surface B. The inner surface of the ventricle to the outer surface |
B
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17. When the equivalent heart vector (dipole) of 10 mV exists such that one end is at the left shoulder and the other end is at the right shoulder what is the voltage in lead I of the ECG
A. The maximum possible voltage (10 mV) B. ½ of maximum possible voltage C. 0 D. ¼ of the maximum possible voltage |
A
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18. During isometric contraction of the left ventricle of the heart pressure is increasing in the heart with little change in volume until
A. ventricular pressure equals aortic systolic pressure B. the mitral valve opens C. the aortic valve closes D. The ventricular pressure exceeds aortic diastolic pressure |
D
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19. The heart cannot function properly in the absence of atrial contraction.
A. True B. False |
B
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20. The equation that can be used to predict coronary artery perfusion CAP is (given that CoVr= coronary vascular resistance, ABP = aortic blood pressure LVP=left ventricular pressure)
A. CAP = ABP*CoVr B. CAP = ABP/CoVr C. CAP = (ABP-LVP)/CoVr D. CAP = LVP/CoVr |
C
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21. Autoregulatory arteriolar dilation is mediated by
A. increased blood pressure B. decreased H+ C. increased H+ D. decreased CO2 |
C
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22. When you exercise vigorously blood flow changes in various compartment such that
A. Brain blood flow increases and muscle flow increases B. Brain blood flow remains constant and muscle flow increases C. muscle flow increases and abdominal flow increases D. muscle flow increases and skin flow decreases |
B
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23. Myogenic autoegulation means that when arteriolar blood pressure increases beyond the “autoregulation point” the smooth muscle in the arteriole
A. Dilates B. Constricts C. Completely obstructs arteriolar flow. |
B
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24. The correct major artery sequence from heart outward is
A. Aorta, brachial, subclavian, radial B. Brachial, aorta, radial, innominate C. Aorta, subclavian, axillary, radial D. Axillary, brachial, radial, subclavian |
C
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25. Venous pressure and therefore venous return to the heart can be influenced by
A. Gravity B. Muscle contractions, breathing C. Gravity. Muscle contraction, breathing D. Breathing |
C
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26. The vasomotor and respiratory control centers are primarily in the
A. cerebellum B. Cerebrum C. Thalamus D. Pons and medulla oblongata |
D
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27. In dog experiments when the baroreceptors are denervated the blood pressure
A. is well controlled within narrow limits B. is highly variable C. doesn’t change much |
B
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28. Considering cardiac PV loops (P = Y axis and V = X axis) when PRELOAD (venous return) increases and compliance and contractility remain constant the PV loop will get (wide refers to Volume, height refers to pressure)
A. taller and wider B. shorter and narrower C. wider with no change in height D. taller with no change in width |
C
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29. The PV loop of a baby 8 day old) is very _______ which means that his/her
Stroke volume is very ______ and therefore the heart rate must be ____ A. wide, large, high B. wide, large, low C. narrow, small, high D. narrow, small, low |
C
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30. A platelet is a structure that is necessary for the (initial/final) phase of ______
A. final, killing bacteria B. initial, killing viruses C. initial, blood clotting D. final, blood coagulation |
C
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31. Oxygen partial pressure in the air as enters the lung is 155 mmHg. Water vapor pressure is 47 mm Hg. When the air reaches the alveoli, you would expect the oxygen partial pressure to be:
A. Increased B. Decreased C. Unchanged |
B
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32. Accidentally, an aircraft was depressurized for a few minutes in a flight above 3,000 meters (9,800 ft) and the barometric pressure was 300 mmHg lower than atmospheric pressure (760 mmHg) at sea level, although the concentration of oxygen remains 20%. What is the partial pressure of oxygen in the aircraft under these conditions?
A. 10 mmHg B. 92 mmHg C. 460 mmHg |
B
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33. Which of the following causes relaxation of bronchial smooth muscle?
A. Beta 1 receptor stimulation B. Cholinergic stimulation C. Increased norepinephrine in the blood |
C
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34. A surfactant:
A. Is produced by Type I cells B. Is a phospholipid C. Increase surface tension inside of alveoli |
B
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35. The alveoli do not collapse under normal conditions, in part, due to:
A. small radius B. water surface tension C. negative inter-pleural pressure |
C
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36. Fluid may leak to the interstitial space in the lung because of positive capillary pressure, however the edema is prevented by:
A. Lymphatic pump B. Condensation C. Bronco-constriction |
A
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37. The nose filter air particles (in diameter)
A. Between 0.3-2 micrometers B. Bigger than 6 micrometers C. Smaller than 3 micrometers |
B
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38. An increase in capillary pulmonary pressure will most likely be produced by:
A. Pulmonary valve stenosis B. Decrease systemic blood pressure C. Mitral stenosis. |
C
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39. During a NORMAL respiratory cycle, alveolar pressure:
A. Can reach +1 mmHg during expiration B. Increases 5 mmHg during inspiration C. Remains unchanged, |
A
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40. The glottis is the upper entries of the
A. Trachea B. Pharynx C. Larynx |
C
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4. The FRC=_______and RV=_______ as determine by the following helium method parameters: Initial Concentration = 10%; Initial Volume= 1L, final concentration= 2.5%; ERV= 1L.
A. 4000-3000 B. 2000-1000 C. 3000-2000 D. 3000-3000 |
C
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5. VC-ERV=
A. FRC B. IC C. TLC D. RV |
B
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6. Spring pollen can trigger asthma crises (status asthmaticus) minutes after exposure by interacting directly with surface IgE expressed on:
A. Macrophage B. Mast cells C. T cells D. B cells |
B
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7. The partial pressure of CO2 (mmHg) in resting conditions is _____ in arterial blood and _____ in venous blood:
A. 40-46 B. 46-40 C. 46-46 D. 45-47 |
A or B
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8. Which of these gases maintains near-constant concentrations in alveoli, peripheral tissues and venous blood?
A. CO B. H2O vapor C. O2 D. CO2 |
B
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9. Lung Zone 2 is typical in:
A. Lung base B. Lung pathology C. Lung apex D. Lung pleural surface |
C
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10. In resting conditions, once the blood reaches the pulmonary capillaries it becomes saturated in about:
A. 0.3 s B. 30s C. 300s D. 1 min |
A
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11. The sigmoid shape of the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve is due to:
A. Stable T configuration B. Competition with hydrogen ions for Hem binding sites C. Stable R configuration D. Change from T to R configuration |
D
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12. Oxygen competes for Hem binding places with:
A. CO2 B. CO C. HCO3 D. Hydrogen ions |
B
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13. Select one protein with greater affinity for O2 than hemoglobin:
A. Hemoglobin B. Myoglobin C. Fetal Hemoglobin D. Methemoglobin |
B or C
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14. The Hb-O2 dissociation curve in the 0 to 100% Hb saturation scale, shows that if oxygen partial pressure in the alveoli is 60 mmHg, oxygen saturation will be:
A. < 20% B. Between 20-40% C. About 50% D. Over 75% |
D
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15. The Hb-O2 dissociation curve is shifted to the right by
A. Decrease in concentration of hydrogen ions B. Decrease in temperature C. Increase in metabolism D. Decrease in CO2 concentration |
C
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21. For a normal person about to start a heavy exercise:
A. The partial pressure of oxygen in arterial blood decreases to 60 mmHg B. Partial pressure of arterial CO2 increases to 100 mmHg C. The activity of the dorsal column neurons is reduced by the ventral column neurons. D. Ventilation increases and CO2 concentration decreases. E. Intra-pleural pressure changes from -3 mmHg to +7 mmHg |
D
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22. The cardiac output of the RIGHT VENTRICLE in heavy exercise can reach about:
A. 700 ml/min B. 3 L/min C. 7 L/min D. 27 L/min |
D
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27. Carbon dioxide completes the diffusion from the blood to the alveoli in _______of the total time (one second) that the blood stays in the pulmonary capillary
A. 1/2 B. 1/ 3 C. 1/4 D. 1/7 |
B
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28. The hemoglobin CO and O2 dissociation curves have the same shape because both:
A. Saturate hems at the same partial pressure B. Change Hb T-R configuration C. Oxidize hem iron to ferric state D. Have the same affinity for Hem |
B
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29. Most CO2 is transported in blood:
A. As Carbamino groups in the hemoglobin B. As Carbonic acid inside the red cell C. As bicarbonate in the plasma D. Dissolve in the plasma |
C
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30. An increase in blood CO2 may induce:
A. Increase blood pH B. Decrease in pulmonary ventilation C. Acidosis D. Alkalosis |
C
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31. According to the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation,
A. At pH of 7.4, the ratio HCO3-/H2CO3 (CO2) is about 20 B. Increase in concentrations of HCO3(-) reduces pH C. Reduction in CO2 increases carbonic acid pK D. Balance of HCO3(-) and CO2 are given by same concentrations of these gases. |
A
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32. Blood oxygenation does not occur in:
A. Terminal bronchioles B. Respiratory bronchioles C. Alveoli ducts D. Alveoli |
A
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33. Select the gas with the greatest coefficient of solubility:
A. Oxygen B. Carbon dioxide C. Argon D. Nitrogen E. Helium |
B
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34. Hematocrit in venous blood is greater than in arterial blood mainly because:
A. Greater number of red cells B. Increased concentration of Hb C. Increased in erythrocytes volume D. reduction in plasma osmolarity |
C
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38. The rhythm generator in the brain stem is:
A. The pneumotaxic center B. Depressed by activation of carotid bodies C. Activated by activation of chemo-sensitive bulbar area D. Not affected by changes in arterial O2 |
C
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39. Which of the following muscles intervenes in breathing under resting conditions?
A. external intercostals B. Scalenus C. Sternocleidomastoid D. Rectus Abdominis E. None of the above |
A
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40. Which of the following would be most affected in restrictive pulmonary disease?
A. FVC/FEV1 B. Tidal Volumen (Vt) C. IRV D. ERV E. FRC |
E
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41. Expiration is more affected than inspiration in obstructive pulmonary disease because:
A. There is no change in intra-pleural pressure during expiration B. The activity of expiratory muscles decreases C. Bronchioles are constricted during expiration D. Alveoli collapse during inspiration E. Surfactant is deficient |
C
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42. A regional reduction in oxygen alveolar concentration will LOCALLY produce:
A. Vasoconstriction/decrease perfusion B. Vasodilatation/increase in perfusion C. Increase in binding of O2 to Hemoglobin D. Increase in capillary osmotic pressure E. Increase in Lymphatic negative pressure |
A
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43. Select a mechanism implicated in respiratory acclimatization at highs altitude:
A. Lack of response to hypercapnia by chemo sensitive area B. De-synchronization of Vagal receptors C. Depression of carotid chemo-receptors D. Depression of the bone marrow |
A
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44. The Ondine’s curse refers to:
A. Loss of automatic control of breathing B. Loss of voluntary control of breathing C. Damage in sensorial pathways to medullar centers D. Severe respiratory arrhythmia E. Hiper-ventilation |
A
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1. Write the Henderson-Hesselbach equation for pH in the space provided (use the ENTIRE space) that involves CO2 production, minute ventilation and other appropriate parameters as presented IN CLASS.
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pH=pK+log(([〖HCO〗_3^-])/(.03((.863*Q ̇_(〖CO〗_2 ))/V ̇_Alv ) ))
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2. With PaO2 = 200 mmHg, [Hb]= 0 and CO=4560 mL/min, DO2 (in mLO2/dL blood) is about .
a. 360 b. 57.8 c. 27.1 d. 2.3 |
C
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4. Given the values for atmospheric pressure, water vapor pressure and FIO2 used in class and given that PaCO2 is 120 mmHg , the PAO2 is about
a. 150 b. 123 c. 45 d. 5 |
D
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[D PAO2= (760-47)0.21 – 1.2 x 120 = 149.7-144 = 5.73
5. Carotid bodies are able to transmit data to the brainstem control centers about which of the following a. pH, PaCO2 b. PACO2, PaO2 c. pH, PaCO2, PaO2 d. PaO2, pH |
C
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6. Persons who live with chronically high levels of PaCO2 will exhibit breathing stimulation that shows
a. Accentuated response to increased CO2 b. Accentuated response to high O2 c. Accentuated response to low PaO2 d. Reduced response to small changes in water vapor pressure |
C
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7. SOD helps to protect the body from
a. SOD- mutase b. very low Oxygen levels (hypoxemia) c. sustained high levels of O2 d. high CO2 levels (hypercarbia) |
C
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8. Supplemental O2 is required on the top of Mount Everest because
a. atmospheric O2 concentration is low b. atmospheric CO2 is very high c. CO2 production is high d. atmospheric pressure is low |
D
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9. Arrange the following in order from the blood compartment to the final urine output.
1. ALH 2. DLH 3. DCT 4. PCT 5. CD 6. BC A. 1, 2, 5, 6, 4, 3 B. 6, 4, 2, 1, 3, 5 C. 5, 4, 1, 2 , 3 6 D. None of the above |
B
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10. The number of liters of urine water formed per day is ____ and the amount of water reabsorbed is _____ liters
A. 180, 179 B. 500, 6 C. 100, 0.2 D. 200, 300 |
A
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11. The numerical value of creatinine clearance is about
A. 100 mL/sec B. 140 L/sec C. 125 mL/min D. 250 mL/sec |
C
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12. In a normal person with serum glucose is 75 mg/dL urine glucose concentration will be about ______
A. 150 mg/dL B. 0.75 mg/L C. 0 mg/dL D. 75 mg/dL |
C
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14. Put a R adjacent to substances filtered and heavily reabsorbed, F next to those filtered but not heavily reabsorbed or secreted, and S next to those filtered and heavily secreted
Glucose Creatinine Urea Inulin Sodium (top to bottom above is left to right below) A. R,F,S,F,R B. R,R,S,S,R C. S,S,R,F,R D. F,F,S,F,F |
A
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15. Which segment of the nephron does most of the active reabsorption
A. DCT B. DLH C. ALH D. PCT |
D
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16. Under NORMAL conditions identify the formula that describes the correct relationship among pressures that determines fluid flow across the tubulo-capillary membrane (Bowman’s Capsule).
J= fluid flow from Blood to Urine compartments BB= blood capillary pressure AA= plasma oncotic pressure CC= Bowman’s capsular hydrostatic pressure A J= [BB] – [AA] – [CC] B J= [AA] – [BB +CC] C J = [BB +AA] – [CC] D J= [CC] – [AA] – [BB] |
A
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17. In normal humans urine entering the collecting ducts has an osmolarity of about _____ and when it exits the CD’s the osmolarity is about ____ (max)
A. 100, 300 B, 200, 600 C. 300, 1300 D. 600, 2300 |
C
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18. A stenotic renal artery will cause the following to increase.
A. angiotensin I B. renin C. angiotensin converting enzyme D. A and B E. B and C |
D
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19. The kidney is the only organ that can correct a mild acid/base disorder 100%. It is able of to this because it regulates ___ and _____ in the blood
A. renin, H+ B. erythryopoietin, albumin C. H+, HCO3- D. HCO3-, angiotensin I |
C
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20. The hormone that regulates water flow across the CD membranes is
A. LDH B. aldosterone C. arginine vasopressin D. LTH |
C
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21. HCO3- is a good buffer because
A. its pK is near pH B. its pK is very acid C. there is a large amount HCO3- in the blood D. there is large amount of HCO3- in the blood that can be managed by the kidneys |
D
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22. Amadori products result from _______ and, over time, create the condition called ___________
a. high blood pressure, retinopathy b. Hypoglycemia, Retrolental fibroplasia c. Hypotension, coronary artery disease d. High blood glucose, peripheral vascular disease |
D
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23. The common mechanism of all DIURETICS is
A. decreasing ADH B. increasing ADH C. loading collecting ducts with non-permeant species D. increasing aldosterone secretion |
C
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24. Chronic arterial hypoxemia induces (causes)
A. an increased GFR B. polycythemia C. decreased red cells D. decreased hemoglobin concentration |
B
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25. A large increase in plasma albumin will cause GFR to
A. increase B. decrease C. remain unchanged |
B
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26. In the feedback hierarchy of blood pressure/volume control involving the kidney, low arterial blood pressure will
A. constrict afferent arterioles and constrict efferent arterioles B. constrict afferent arterioles and dilate efferent arterioles C. dilate afferent arterioles and constrict efferent arterioles D. dilate afferent arterioles and dilate efferent arterioles |
C
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27. When plasma osmolarity changes you expect a rapid and dramatic change in
A. serum albumin B. ADH secretion C. bicarbonate secretion D. insulin secretion |
B
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28. Damage to the liver increases the risk of renal dysfunction
A. Yes B. No |
A
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29. When renin secretion increases you expect to see
A. decreased blood pressure B. increased red blood cell production C. increased blood pressure D. increased gastric acid production |
C
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30. In the feedback hierarchy of blood pressure/volume control involving the kidney, rapid blood loss will cause
A. decreased red blood cell production B. increased ADH production C. increased urine production D. decreased ADH production |
B
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31. Solutes and water that are reabsorbed from the urine space in the nephron have to be returned to the vascular space (system). This occurs via the
A. JGA B. DCT C. Vasa recta D. ALH |
C
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32. The renovascular endothelium is
A. 3 cell layers thick B. fenestrated C. covered by podocytes and fenestra D. essentially all basal lamina |
C
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33. A person who has a normal diet and no metabolic disorders suddenly develops a Tm[glucose]=45 mg/dL. He/she will have the following laboratory findings IMMEDIATELY after the event
A. Hyperglycemia B. anuria C. glucoseuria D. polyuria and glucoseuria |
D
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34. The juxtagolmerular apparatus and macula densa combine to provide feedback control of __________ by way of _______ and _________
A. GFR, ACE, renin B. blood pressure, renin, angiotensin II C. ADH, aldosterone, renin D. blood osmolarity, AVP, angiotensin I |
B
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35. What is the SOUCE of ADH?
A. the adrenal gland B. the pituitary gland C. the thymus D. the hypothalamus |
D
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36. What is the SOURCE of Aldosterone?
A. the adrenal gland B. the pituitary gland C. the thymus D. the hypothalamus |
A
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14. Many liver diseases cause all of the following EXCEPT
A. defective platelets B. decreased clotting factors C. abnormal “male” and “female” hormone levels D. increased sodium loss |
D
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15. The average amount of fluid that enters and then leaves the GI tract in one day is about
A. 250 mL B. 180 L C. 9 L D. 125 mL |
C
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16. Liver diseases can cause a person’s hematocrit to increase to 70%
A. True B. False |
B
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17. Liver disease like cirrhosis often causes _______ and _______
A. increased SVR (TPR), ascites B. peripheral edema, decreased SVR (TPR) C. ascites, tissue dehydration D. portal hypotension, and ascites |
B
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18. Bacteria in the bowel are an absolute requirement for proper absorption of some nutrients
A. True B. False |
A
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19. With portal hypertension there is you are likely to see
A. ascites and tissue dehydration B. esophageal varices and GU bleeding C. increased absorption of food, anemia D. high platelet count, increased SVR |
B
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20. The gut (bowel) is a complex structure and has how many distinct nerve cell layers in the walls?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 |
B
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21. In our models we have always included blood volume (BV) in transfer functions. We usually consider fluid intake and losses via sweat, the kidney etc. Considering the lungs, spleen and liver and knowing that they are capable of squeezing fluid out of the parenchymae (tissues) – how much blood would be available from these organs to replace blood loss?
A. 1 L B. 2 L C. 4 L D. 6 L |
B
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22. In order to correct renal hypertension (caused by increased renin) you could give
A. serotonin inhibitors and an ACE inhibitor B. an ARB and an ACEi C. angiotensinogen and an ARB D. ACE and angiotensin II |
B
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