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149 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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sensation of excessive motion compared to physical reality
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vertigo
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... is most commonly due to dysfunction within the vestibular system
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vertigo
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the oculomotor nerve enters the orbit via the ...
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superior orbital fissure
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ophtalmic nerve(CN V1) branches enter the orbit via the ...
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superior orbital fissure
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trochlear nerve(CN IV) enters the orbit via the ...
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superior orbital fissure
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abducens nerve(CN VI) enters the orbit via the ...
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superior orbital fissure
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superior ophtalmic vein enters the orbit via the ...
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superior orbital fissure
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function of mesolimbic-mesocortical system
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regulates behavior
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nigrostriatal system's function
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coordination of voluntary movements
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function of tuberoinfundibular system
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controls prolactn secretion
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disturbance of mesolimbic-mesocortical system
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schizophrenia
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disturbance of nigrostriatal system
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parkinsonism
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disturbance of tuberoinfundibular system
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hyperprolactinemia
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aneurysm or atherosclerotic calcification of the internal carotid artery can laterallt impinge on the ...
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optic chiasm
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impingement of optic chaism by aneurysm or atherosclerotic calcification can cause ....
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nasal hemianopia
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damage of uncrossed optic nerve fibers from the tmporal prtion of the ipsilateral retina causes
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nasal hemianopia
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a lesion in the optic tract can produce ...
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contralateral homonymous hemianopia
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.... branches off the basilar artery and supplies cranial nerves III and IV and other structures in the midbrain
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posterior cerebral artery
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blood supply of thalamus
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posterior cerebral artery
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blood supply of medial temporal lobe
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posterior cerebral artery
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blood supply of splenium of the corpus callosum
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posterior cerebral artery
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blood supply of occipital lobe
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posterior cerebral artery
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most common finding with posterior cerebral artery stroke is ...
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cotralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing
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S2-S4 nerve roots damage
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cauda equina syndrome
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saddle anesthesia and loss of the anocutaneous refle are symptoms of ...
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cauda equina syndrome
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common AD disroder resulting from a defect in the NF-1 gene on chromosme 17
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neurofibromatosis type I
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Schwann cell e,bryologically derived from the ...
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neural crest
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total sensory loss on the contralateral side of the body
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thalamic syndrome
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... are the result of small vessel lipohyalinosis and atherosclerosis involving the penetrating vessels supplying the deep brain structures; unctontrolled hypertensio and diabetes mellitus are risk factors for this condition
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lacunar infarctions
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nonfluent aphasia that results from damage to Broca's area in the inferior frontal gyrus of the dominant hemisphere
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Broca's aphasia
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location of Broca's area
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inferior frontal gyrus of the dominat hemisphere
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patients with ... understand language but cannot properly formulate the motor caommands to form words or write
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Broca's(motor) aphasia
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the tight junctions between endothelial cells in the capillary beds of the CNS for mthe ...
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blood-brain barier
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the combination of fied segmental loss of upper extremity pain and T sensation, upper extremity lower motor neuron signs, and/or lower extremity upper motor neuron signs in the setting of scoliosis suggests a diagnosis of ...
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syringomyelia
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acoustic neuromas are commonly located at the ... and arise from CN VIII
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cerebellopontine angle
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bilateral acoustic neurmoas are associated with ...
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neurofibromatosis type 2
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... contain the satiety center and regulate food intake
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ventromedial hypothalamic nuclei
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ptosis, downward and laterally deviated eye, impaired pupillary constriction and accomodation, and diagonal diplopia
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lesion of CN III
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cause of CN III palsy
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enlarging intracranial aneurism
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CSF flows from the third ventricle to the fourth ventricle via ...
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the cerebral queduct of Sylvius
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obstruction at the .... would cause enlargement of only the affected lateral ventrcle
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foramen of Monro
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obstruction at the .... causes enlargement of all 4 ventricles
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foramen of Magendie and Luschka
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is a painful condition characterized by shooting pain down the posterior thigh and leg that typically results from impingement of one of the spinal nerves as it leaves the vertebral column
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sciatica
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compression of .... results specifically in pan purely in the posterior thigh and leg as well as diminution of the ankle jerk reflex
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S1 root
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trochlear nerve palsy is characterized by ...
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vertical diplopia
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.... supply the demial portions of the 2 hemispheres (frontal and parietal lobes); occlusion can cause contralateral motor and sensory deifcits of the lower extremities, behavioral changes, and urinary incintinence
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anterior cerebral arteries
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the stapedius muscle is innervated by the ...
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stapedius nerve(a branch of the facial n.)
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paralysis of the stapedius muscle results in ....
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hyperacusis(increased sensitivity to sound)
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general sensation from the anterior 2/3 of the tongue is carried by the ....
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mandibular devision of the trigeminal nerve
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gustatory innervation of anterior 2/3 of the tongue is provided by ....
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chorda tympani of the facial nerve
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pancoast tumors are non-small cell lung cancers(squamous cell ca, adenoca) that arise near the ...
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superior sulcs
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Horner's syndrome occurs due to involvement of the ...
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cervical sympatetic ganglia
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the middle meningeal artery is a branch of the .... that neters the skull at the .... and courses intracranially deep to the pterion
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maillary rtery; foramen spinosum
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.... injury results in weakness and paralysis of the gluteus medius, gluteus minimus, nad tensor fasciae latae muscles
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superior gluteal nerve
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mandible originates from ...
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first pharyngeal arch
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maxilla originates from ...
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first pharyngeal arch
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malleus originates from ...
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first pharyngeal arch
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incus originates from ...
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first pharyngeal arch
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zygoma originates from ...
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first pharyngeal arch
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vomer originates from ...
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first pharyngeal arch
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palate originates from ...
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first pharyngeal arch
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temporal lobe originates from ...
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first pharyngeal arch
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first pharyngeal arch innervated by ...
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trigeminal nerve
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lies in the inferolateral wall of the anterior horn of the lateral ventricle
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the head of the caudate
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the head of the caudate is separated from the globus pallidus and putamen by the ...
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internal capsule
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results from trauma to the leg near the head of the fibula
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coomon peroneal nerve injury
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sensory innervation of the external aurditory canal
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auricular branch of the vagus(posterior part of the canal); CN V3(rest canal)
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injury to Meyer's loop in the temporal lobe results in ...
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contralateral superior quadrantanopia
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... characterized by well-articulated, nonsensical speech paired with a lack of language comprehension
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receptive aphasia(Wernicke's)
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located in the auditory association cortex within the posterior portion of the superior temporal gyrus in the dominant lobe
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Wernicke's area
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then neural structure most frequently affected in patients with Wernicke encepahlopathy is ...
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the mammilary body
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lesions of the occipital corte can produce ...
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contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing
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hemiparesis with the arm affected more than a leg occurs due to occlusion of the ...
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middle cerebral artery
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the deep branch of the radial nerve arises near the ...
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lateral epicondyle of the humerus
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radial head subluxation can damage ....
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the deep branch of the radial nerve
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weakness of the forearm and hand extensors without sensory loss
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damage of the deep branch of the radial nerve
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loss of the gag reflex, loss of sensation in the upper pharynx, posterior tongue, tonsils and middle ear cavity, and loss of taste sensation on the posterior one-third of the tongue
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lesions of the glosspharyngeal nerve
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location of the chemoreceprtor trigger zone(CTZ)
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area postrema of the dorsal medullar near the fourth ventricle
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coagulase negative, novobiocin resistant, catalas +
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Staph. saprophyticus
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coagulase negative, novobiocin sensitive, catalas +
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Staph. epidermidis
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catalse +, coagulase + coccus
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staph. auresus
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catalase + cocci
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staphylococci
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DNase is produced by...
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group A strep
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pyrophasphate analog that does not require intracellular activation; directly inhibits both DNA polymerase in herpesvirus and reverse transcriptase in HIV
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foscarnet
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... must be administered IV and is most commonly used in trting advanced AIDS patients who ahve acyclovir-resistant herpesvirus infections or ganciclovir-resistant CMV infections
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foscarnet
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... is nucleoside analog that must be intracellulary converted to its monophosphate form by a virally encoded thymidine kinase; cellular kinases convert the monophospahte form into a triphosphate form, which inhibits herpesviral DNA polymerase-demiated replication
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acyclovir
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... is a cytosine analog classified as a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor(NRTI); it must be phophorylated to its active form, triphophate, by intracellular kinase; inhibits HIV reverse transcription through viral DNA chain termination
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lamivudine
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protease inhibitor that binds to the catalytic site of an HIV aspartic protease, preventing the cleavage of polyprotein precusrors necessary for the generation of functional viral proteins
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saquinavir
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huanine nucleoside nalogue that is structurally similar to acyclovir; requires intracellular conversion to its monophosphate form by a virally encoded kinase, and has greater activity than acyclovir against CMV DNA moplymerase
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ganciclovir
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antiviral agent that binds to and inhibits the M2 ion channels protein of influenza A viruses, bloking viral uncoating after host cell endocytosis
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amantadine
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antiviral agent; sialic acid analogue inhibitor of influenza A and B virus neuraminidase
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oseltamivir
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medium that used to isolate N. gonorrhoeae from clinical specimens
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THayer-Martin medium - chocolate agar-based medium containing various antibiotics
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once acyclovir enters the herpesvirus-infected host cell, it is converted to acyclovir monophosphate principally via a virally-encoded ...
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thymidine kinase(TK)
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CMV has increased sensitivity to .... beacuse of differences in viral DNA polymerase structure
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ganciclovir
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active forms of anri-herpesviral drugs inhibit ...
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viral DNA polymerase
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fever and sweating that occur every 48 hours are especially characteristic of P. ... and P. ... infection
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vivax and ovale
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.... must be used in addition to chloroquine to completely aredicate infections by P. vivax and P. ovale and prevent relapses
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primaquine
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long-term adverse effect related to chloroquine use
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retinopathy
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first-line trt for enterobiasis
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albendazole
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trt for enterobiasis in pregnant patients
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pyrantel pamoate
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trt for loiasis and lymphatic filiriasis infections
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diethylcarbamazine
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trt for strongyloidiasis and onchocerciasis
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ivermectin
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trt for trypanosamoses(T. cruzi)
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nifurtimox
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trt for schistosomiasis, clonorchiasis, paragonimiasis
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praziquantel
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Gram(-) anaerobic rods that produce beta-lactamase;
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bacteroides
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second-generation fluoroquinolone taht acts by interferring with bacterial DNA gyrase (topoisomerase II); active against most gram-neg rods and bacilli, including Legionella and Pesudomonas aeruginosa; not effective against anerobic infections
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ciprofloxacin
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triicyclic glycopeptide that inhibits the synthseis of peptidoglycan, a main component of the cell wall of gram-positive bacteria
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vancomycin
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vancomycin use
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MRSA; clostridium difficle
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most common clinical manifestation of primary infection with HSV-1 infection
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acute gingivostomatitis
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HSV characteristic
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enveloped with double-stranded DNA genome
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zidovudine-?
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thymidine analogue; nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor used to treat HIV infection
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the methotrexate is a chemoterapeutic agent that inhiits DNA synthesis by inhibiting ...
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dihydrofolate reductase(tetrahydrofolate regenerated from DHF by this enzyme)
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integration of viral DNA into the host genome is mediated by ..., a retroviral enzyme that is inhibited by raltegravir
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integrase
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facultative intracellular gram-pos rod, with distinctive flagellar-based tumbling motility;
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listeria monocytogenes
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trt for listeria monocytogenes
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ampicillin
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listeria is most commonly transmitted through ...
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food ingestions
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listeria can cause ... in ID adults
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meningitis
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the genome of .... is a partially double-stranded circular DNA molecule housed within the hexagonal capsid
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HBV
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composed of icosaedral nuclecapsid and a +single-stranded RNA genome
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picornaviridae(coxackie virus)
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icosaedral core surrounded by a lipoprotein envelope and have double-starnded, linear DNA
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herpesviridae family(CMV; EBV ...)
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contains a bar-shaped protein core surounded by a glycoprotein envelope; genome is diploid consisting of 2+ single stranded RNA molecules that are transcribed into double-stranded DNA
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HIV
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small nonenveloped icosahedral virus with linear single-stranded DNA genome
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parvovirus B19
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most invasive strain of H. Influenzae can can cause sepsis, meningitis, pneumonia
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type b
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most common bacterial causes of otitis media, sinusitis and bacterial conjuctivitis in childhood (3)
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1. Sterp. pneumoniae; 2. nontypeable H. influenzae; 3. Moraxella catarhalis
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oxidase negative; lactose non-fermenter; gram-negative rod without H2S production
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shigella
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non-lactose fermenting organisms that produce acid during glucose fermentation; non-motile and do not produce H2S
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shigella
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non-lactose fermenting organisms that produce acid during glucose fermentation; non-motile and do produce H2S
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salmonella
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.... can cause inflamation and enlargement of the lymphoid tissue around the appendix and terminal ileum(pseudoappendicitis), leading to right lower qudrant pain and that can e confused with acute appendicits
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yersinia entercolitica
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essential pathogenic mechanism for Shigella infection
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mucosal invasion of the M cells in Peyer's patches
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.... is recomended fr individuals at high eposure risk of rabies
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prophylactic vaccination
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postexposure prophylais of ravies includes
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rabies IG and vaccination
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anogenital squamous cell carcinomas and their propsed precursors, quamous ntraepithelial lesions, have been linked to infection with ....
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HPV
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most frequently causes retinits in AIDS patients
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CMV
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vesicular, blistering eruption eventually leading to formation of a golden yellow crust; frquently occurs periorally, and can be caused by either Staph. aureus or Strep. pyogenes
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impetigo
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dimorphic fungi (3)
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blastomyces; histoplasma; coccidioides
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thin, septate hyphae with acute V-shaped branching
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Aspergillus fumigatus
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gram-pos, catalse-pos, aerobic/facultatively anaerobic, club-shaped rods
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corynebacteria
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... grows on cysteine-tellurite agar as dark black, slightly iridescent colonies
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C. diphteriae
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can be cultured in Loffler's medium where it will develop cyoplasmic metachromatic granules
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C. diphteriae
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... agar is used to grow many of the enteric bacteria
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MacConkey agar
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bile salt-containing agar that restricts the growth of msot Gram positive organisms
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MacConkey
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... medium will encourage growth of Neisseria species while prohibiting growth of other organisms
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Thayer-Martin VCN
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cocci, ableto growin the presence of both bile salts and 6.5% hypertonic saline
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enterococci
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streptococci that grow in the presence of bile but not in the presence of hypertonic saline
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group D strep(Str. bovis; str. equinus)
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medium used to culture Bordetella pertussis
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Bordet-Gengou medium
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.... is required for the release of virus from infected cells and for the spread of virus within the respiratory tract
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neuraminidase
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impairs uncoating or disassembly ofthe influenza A virion after host cell endocytosis
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amantadine
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herpseviruses bud through nad acquire the lipid bilayer envelope from the host ....
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cell nuclear membrane
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structural analogs of D-Ala-D-Ala that inhibit transpeptidase
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penicillins
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