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102 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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What office maintains the flight and jump record folders?
a. HARM b. SARM c. Stan/Eval d. TARM |
a. HARM
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Flight record folders for members who have been disqualified for 5 years or more are:
a. maintained in an inactive file cabinet b. shredded to protect the privacy of the individual c. returned to the member d. sent to the staging facility for disposition |
c. returned to the member
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Which of the follwoing documents is filed on the right side of the flight record folder?
a. Aeronautical Orders b. Military Pay Orders c. Flying History Report d. OFDA waiver letter |
c. Flying History Report
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In which part of the jump record folder is the AF Form 702 , individual physiological training record filed?
a. Part 1 b. Part 2 c. Part 3 d. Part 4 |
a. Part 1
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When auditing the flight/jump record folder, verify that the date on the AF Form 702 matches the date on the member's:
a. Flying History Report b. Aeronautical Order d. Military Pay Order d. Individual Data Summary |
d. Individual Data Summary
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What must be accomplished first when reconstructing lost or destroyed records?
a. Complete local inprocessing checklist b. Obtain aircraft totals from the National Peronnel Records Center c. Review ARMS record for missing information d. Contact the losing HARM for copies of the member's outprocessing products |
a. Complete local inprocessing checklist
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When reconstructing lost or destroyed records, what action should be taken to verify military pay actions of the member?
a. contact the local finance office tfor a copy of the member's pay history. b. Ask the member for a copy of his or her most recent LES c. Review the member's incentive pay screen in the ARMS database d. Use a locally developed browser to retrieve pay information from ARMS |
a. Contact the local finance office for a copy of his or her most recent LES
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Which of the following ARMS screens is included in the automatic inprocessing cycle?
a. Profile assignment b. Career total hours c. Aircrew data d. Organization |
c. Aircrew data
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Once inprocessing actios are completed, when must the gaining HARM forward the ARMS record transfer acknowledgement letter to the losing HARM?
a. After the member's initial records review b. within 5 days after updating the member's record in ARMS c. within 3 days after receipt of the member's electronic record d. within 30 days after the member inprocesses through the HARM |
b. within 5 days after updating the member's record in ARMS
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What resource management product is reviewed to determine which aircrew members have a reassignment pending?
a. HORUS report audit list b. Aviation Management Suspense list c. Aviaition Service Suspense list d. Headquarters Allocation Recap |
b. Aviation Management Suspense List
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If changes are necessary to a member's ARMS record, what action must be taken if the record has been outprocesed from ARMS?
a. Retransmit the member's record with your HARM code in the appropriate field b. Normalize the member's record and have the gaining HARM delete the record c. Delete the record and have the gaining HARM retransmit the record d. Open the member's record and click the 'undo' button |
b. Normalize the member's record and have the gaining HARM delete the record
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During outprocessing actions, the 'close-out-date' in ARMS refers to the date:
a. the member outprocesses from the MPF b. listed on the mmeber's PCS orders c. the member picks up his or her FRF d. you are outprocessing the member's record |
d. you are outprocessing the member's record
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After outprocessing a member's record from ARMS, what action is taken to ensure the member's information does not appear on future ARMS reports?
a. change the member's HORIS code to 'P' for PCS b. Transfer the member's record to HARM code "FGWD" c. assign the member to the 9999SQDSQ organization d. delete the member's record from ARMS |
c. assign the member to the 9999SQDSQ organization
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When an aircrew member is initially placed on flying status, which of the following information is available for the records review?
a. AF form 702, Flying History Report, and member's Aeronautical Order b. AF Form 1042, Flying History Report, and individual currency summary c. Member's initial IDS, Aeronautical Order, and individual training summary d. AF Form 1042, AF Form 702, and member's initial IDS |
d. AF Form 1042, AF Form 702, and member's initial IDS
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Within how many days must an aircrew member in an active flying status conduct an inprocessing records review?
a. 10 days b. 20 days c. 30 days d. 45 days |
c. 30 days
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After inprocessing an inactive aircrew member, within how many days must a records review be accomplished?
a. 45 days b. 60 days c. 90 days d. 120 days |
d. 120 days
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How is the annual records review accomplished for members who are on TDY?
a. member accomplishes the review via telephone b. member completes the review within 30 days of returning from TDY c. HARM mails a copy of the member's annual products d. HARM publishes an MFR waiving the annual requirement |
c. HARM mails a copy of the member's annual products
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Which of the following duty positions are NOT valid for OFDA credit?
a. F and R b. M and S c. N and W d. O and X |
d. O and X
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Which of the following ASC's would allow an aircrew member to accumulate OFDA credit?
a. ASC AL b. ASC BA c. ASC IJ d. ASC 2K |
b. ASC BA
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What is the effective datre of the FSC S for an aircrew member initially placed on flying status effective 28 August but did NOT perform an OFDA flight until 12 December?
a. 28 August b. 29 August c. 12 December d. 13 December |
b. 29 August
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What is the effect date for an FSC change from FSC S to FSC A for an aircrew member who was initially placed on flying status 4 March, and performed an OFDA flight on 7 June?
a. 4 March b. 5 March c. 7 April d. 7 June |
c. 7 April
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What is the effective date of an FSC S for an aircrew member on active flying status who performed an OFDA flight on 11 January and did NOT perform another OFDA flight until 27 Jul?
a. 11 January b. 1 May c. 27 may d. 27 July |
b. 1 May
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What is the effective date for an FSC change from FSC S to FSC A for an aircrew member who performed an OFDA flight on 6 April and did not perform another OFDA flight until 12 October?
a. 6 April b. 7 April c. 12 September d. 12 October |
d. 12 October
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What entry on the AF Form 142, Aviation Service Audit Worksheet, is required for rated aircrew members?
a. OFDA as of 30 September 1991 b. OFDA as of 30 September 1999 c. OFDA at the 22-year gate d. OFDA as of 25 years of aviation service |
a. OFDA as of 30 September 1991
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Which of the following criteria must be met before a member is eligible for an OFDA waiver?
a. assigned a transition status code of D or E b. Be a rated officer with at least 72 months of OFDA credit c. Wait at least 5 years since the last OFDA waiver was approved |
b. Be a rated officer with at least 72 hours of OFDA credit
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How many months of OFDA muyst an aircrew member who must meet the requirements of the Aviation Career Incentive Act of 1974 have at the 18-year gate to be eligible for continuous ACIP through 25 years of aviation service?
a. 108 months b. 96 months c. 132 months d. 144 months |
c. 132 months
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How many months of OFDA must an aircrew member who must meet the requirements of the NDAA of fiscal year 1996 have at the 18-year gate to be eligile for continuous ACIP through 22 years of aviation service?
a. 72 months b. 96 months c. 108 months d. 120 months |
d. 120 months
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The HARM office is responsible for maintaining what?
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Flight and jump record folds
maintaining aviation and parachutist service publishing aeronautical orders, determining eligibility for flight and parachutist incentive pay monitoring flight physicals and physiological training requirements |
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The HARM is also responsible for the overall operation and maintenance of
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the Aviation Resource Management System ARMS
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what office monitors and executes flight activities?
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SARM
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What skill level acts on matters pertaining to ARMS
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7
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what skill level inspects ARM files of functional publications and directives for current guidance
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7
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What skill level interviews aircrew and parachutists to obtain related data?
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3
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What skill level maintains control and accountability of flight and parachutist records?
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3
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What skill level does the planning, organizing, scheduling, directing, and evaluating workloads and duty assignments of ARM personnel
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9
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What does AFCFM stand for?
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Air Force Career Field Manager
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What is the AFCFM responsible for?
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establishing AFSC entry and training requirements.
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Who reviews and updates CFETP (Career Field Education and Training Plan)
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ARCFM
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What is the AAG?
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Aviation Resource Management System Advisory Group
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What do you call the individual who is in charge of the HARM office?
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CHARM
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Which functional area is the central station for all flight management issues?
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HARM
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List a few duties of the SArM office
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Aircrew scheduling
Training Publishing flight authorization conducts GO-No-GO |
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Which functional area is responsible for requesting diplomatic clearance when US aircraft enters foreign airspace?
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Current Ops
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Where can you find the list of duties and responsibilities of ARM personnel at each skill level?
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CFETP
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Unique senior noncommissioned officers leadership positions name 3
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AIR FORCE CAREER FIELD MANAGER
MAJOR COMMAND FUNCTIONAL MANAGER WING FUNCTIONAL MANAGER |
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List some of the responsibilities of the MFM
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validate Manpower Requirements
Ensure Personnel operate within the guidelines of AFSC Provide Career Broadening Opportunities across 1Cox2 functions |
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What is the life and soul of the AF Specialty training program
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STS
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What is the purpose of the CFETP?
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the CFETP is designed as a comprehensive core training document for planning, managing, and conducting an affective career field training program.
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What does the CFETP outline?
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the training that you should receive and the qualification level that you must maintain in order to develop and progress throughout your career
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Part 1 of CFETP contains what?
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Provides the information necessary for the overall management of the AF.
It's divided into several sections. |
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What does Section A of the CFETP provide?
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general information such as the purpose and use of the plan.
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What does Section B of the CFETP contain?
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identifies career progression, duties, responsibilities, and training strategies. It also includes a career chart that depicts an ideal career path
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What does Section C of the CFETP contain?
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outlines the skill level training qualification requirements such as knowledge, education, training, and experience for entry, award, and retention at each skill level.
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What does Section D of the CFETP contain?
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Lists all known resource constraints such as facility, finding, and manpower that prevent the desired training from being accomplished.
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What information is in Part 2 of the CFETP?
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STS lists the most common tasks, knowledge, and technical references necessary for Airmen to perform in the 3,5, and 7 skill level.
Section B, C reserved for future use Section D All in resident school and career development courses that are available to our AFSC Section E has other courses HARM, SARM, ect |
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What is the AF Form 623
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On-the-job Training Record
Its a standard folder used as a training record where the CFETP is kept. Supervisors must make sure the training folders are maintained for all airmen in the grades of airmen basic through tech sergeant |
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STS (Specialty Training Standard)
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Lists all the core tasks required for upgrade training. STS is used by your supervisor or trainer to plan, conduct, and document every training task that you preform
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How is the STS developed and who are the people involved in developing the STS
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Occupational surveys and analysis
the development starts with data gathering technique called "occupational survey" The surveys are sent from Air Force Occupational Measurement Squdron (AFOMS) at Randolph AFB, |
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When are the occupational surveys conducted ?
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Once every three years or whenever the AFCFM deems it is necessary
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What is the purpose of the STS?
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is to bring together the expertise needed to determine the required education and training requirements and to establish the most effective mix of formal and OJT for airmen at each skill level.
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The STS is divided into how many columns?
What are they? |
4
1-Tasks, knowledge and technical reference 2- core tasks/war time codes 3-certification for OJT 4- Proficiency Codes Used to Indicate Training/Information Provided |
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Which column of the STS serves as a contract between the trainee and the AETC training community?
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4
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List all training requirements for 5- skill level
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complete 5 level CDCs
Complete 12 month OJT be certified for all core tasks recommended by supervisor |
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What is the purpose of the STS?
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provides a solid foundation for planning and conducting training, it is an essential part of the overall training program.
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What information will you find in column 1 of the STS ?
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Tasks, Knowledge and Technical References
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What information is contained in column 2 of the STS?
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Core tasks
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What does the term go signify when conducting OJT?
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the trainee has gained the skill knowledge and experience to perform the task without supervision
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What is the purpose of the 797?
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defines locally assigned duty position home station training, and deployment training requirements not included in the STS. Its used to develop the AFJOS & CJQS if deemed necessary by the AFCFM
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What tool is used to gather feedback on recent tech school graduates?
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GAS graduate assessment survey
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When conducting a task evaluation on 5-level trainees, what percentage of technical tasks is required to be evaluated?
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10%
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What form is used to document evaluations?
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AF Form 803
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what is the purpose of the STRT
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bring together the expertise needed to determine the required education and training requirements and to establish the most effective mix of formal and OJT for Airmen at each skill level
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AF Form 8, what is it?
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Aircrew qualification
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AF Form 847
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used to suggest changes to AFIs and other pubs.
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Af Form 3520
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Extract of 781
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What are the 5 modules in ARMS?
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Resource
Training Flight Jump System |
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What are the modules under Resource
These are the largest modules |
Personnel Management
Flying Management Aircrew Management Aviation Management Jump Management |
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What is in the training module?
What are the three menus under training? |
training profiles
accomplishment administration management |
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What is the flight module used for?
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update individual flying hours
contains all functions pertaining to individual and aircraft flight activity This window closely resembles 781 |
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Name the different ARMS governing bodies
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(AAG) Aviation Resource Management System Advisory Group-wing level
(AWG) Aviation Resource Management System Working Group- major command ASG Aviation resource Management System steering group- Air force level |
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What is the AWGs purpose?
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Concentrate and solve issues affecting ARMS implementation, technical operation, maintenance, and modification?
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What are the two types of career aviators?
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Rated Officers
Career Enlisted Aviators |
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What are the five rated specialties in the AF?
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Pilot
Observer Flight Surgeon Air Battle Manager -ABM Combat System Officer- CSO |
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When is an Aviation Service Date established?
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When a member is initially placed in aviation service
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What date do you use to establish the ASD for a licensed physician?
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The date of (AMP) Aerospace Medicine Primary Course completion
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When is a periodic flight PHA required?
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Every 15 months from the date of the last flight PHA.
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When a member is re-qualified for aviation service, the member's ASD must be adjusted to account for breaks in service and/or periods of non permanent disqualification. What must the HARM office due at this point?
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send an ASD adjustment request to HQ USAF/A3O-AT (for active duty) or HQ AFRC/A3TF for reserve
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How many days can a Career aviator be DNIF without being medically disqualified?
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365 days
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How long can a non-career aviator be DNIF without being medically disqualified?
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180 days
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What do you update in ARMS when you have a medically cleared aviator?
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Physical Availability date
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Where in ARMS do you go to update to update member's physical information?
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Flyer Availability window
Resource/ Flying Management |
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Where are flight physical status codes listed?
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AFI 11-421 Aviation Resource Management
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What wold you use a 1042 for?
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Medically restrict a member from special operations duty
Place a member in DNIF status Document categorical waivers |
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Which date is used to compute the officer service date (OSD)?
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the date the officer took the oath of office
Commissioning date in USAF |
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Where can you find a list of flying activity codes?
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11-401 Aviation Management
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How many days in a calendar month must a member be in an active flying status code to receive one month of operational flying duty accumulator credit?
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15
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The first letter of the aviation service code is the
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entitlement status code
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When amending an AO you must locate the original AO in the master record set and document in ink in the lower left hand margin
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the order number and request date of amendment AO
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the AO number of the last AO published in the previous year must be annotated
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Above the heading of the first Ao of the current year
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Supporting documents used in publishing AO are annotated in ink where?
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In the lower right hand corner with the AO number which it pertains
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A member receives one month of OFDA credit when assigned to an active FSC of A, U, X, or Z when assigned
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for at least 15 days in the year
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If a member is actively flying, change the member's FSC to "S" effective when?
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the first day of the fourth month following the month in which flying duties were last performed.
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