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70 Cards in this Set

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Rated Officers remain in Aviation career status as long as they remain

a) an officer
b) qualified
c) a flyer
d) rated
b) qualified
Which date is used to compute the OSD?

a)Completion date of undergraduate flying training
b) Class start date of undergraduate flying training
c) Date member arrived at first duty station
d) Commissioning date in the USAF
d) Commissioning date in the USAF
Medical officers enter aviation career on the

a) date of graduation from the Aerospace Medicine Primary Course
b) completion date 1 year of postgraduate training
c) date arrived first operational duty station
d) date assigned as a flight surgeon.
a) date of graduation from the Aerospace Medicine Primary Course
The ASD for a CEA who was on Flying status when the National Defense Authorization Act of 2000 was enacted is the date

a) arrived first operational duty station
b) the memeber entered a formal AETC flying training course
c) of the member's initial AO placing him or her on flying status
d) the member started an approved local IQT course
c) of the member's initial AO placing him or her on flying status
The ASD for a CEA who enters an approved local IQT course where flying is part of the course is the date

a) arrived duty station
b) departed last duty station
c) the member entered a formal AETC flying training course
d) of the member's initial AO placing him or her on flying status
a) arrived duty station
Before placing a nonrated aircrew member on flying status, ensure

a) the member has a duty prefix of J,K, or Q
b) you place the member in aviation career status
c) the member has applied for an advanced aircrew badge
d) the member's duty AFSC appears on the crew composition table in AFI 65-503
d) the member's duty AFSC appears on the crew composition table in AFI 65-503
The duty prefix X identifies an aircrew member

a) listed as inactive
b) qualified as basic aircrew
c) limited to performing ground duties only
d) transitioning to his or her next duty station
b) qualified as basic aircrew
Aviation service for a nonrated aircrew member is terminated when the member is

a) reassigned to a duty AFSC not requiring active flying
b) suspended from active flying
c) injured during off-duty activities
d) assigned a duty prefix of T
a) reassigned to a duty AFSC not requiring active flying
Operational support members are individuals who

a) are required to perform a specific in-flight duty that cannot be accomplished by rated or nonrated aircrew members
b) are nonrated aircrew members flying on standby status during emergency situations
c) serve as an augmented crew to supplement normal operational missions
d) maintain aviation career status and fly frequent and regular flights
a) are required to perform a specific in-flight duty that cannot be accomplished by rated or nonrated aircrew members
To qualify for HDIP, operational support members must

a) have an active AO placing them in aviation career status
b) perform at least one training mission per month
c) perform frequent and regular flights
d) perform an operational mission
d) perform an operational mission
Major commands consolidate man-year requirements into the categories of

a) active and inactive
b) officer and enlisted
c) operational and training
d) peacetime and wartime
b) officer and enlisted
Operational support members are placed on flying status

a) one month at a time
b) for the duration of the assigned mission
c) until the man-year allocation is exhausted
d) until the flying requirement no longer exists
a) one month at a time
A bronze star may be worn by a parachutist

a) for each combat jump accomplished
b) who performs at least one jump every 3 months
c) who has been awarded the advanced parachutist badge
d) as long as the individual remains in active parachutist status
a) for each combat jump accomplished
Temporary jump status is authorized by commanders for
a) peacetime training missions
b) individuals in the 1C2X1 career field
c) individuals unable to qualify for parachute duty pay
d) qualified parachutist personnel not assigned to a J-coded postion
d) qualified parachutist personnel not assigned to a J-coded postion
Individuals placed ion temporary jump status cannot exceed

a) 30 days
b) 90 days
c) 120 days
d) 180 days
d) 180 days
Individuals placed in permissive jump status must

a) be assigned to parachute duty
b) have at least 3 years of jump experience
c) have a duty AFSC identified as a parachutist
d) be able to qualify for hazardous duty incentive pay
b) have at least 3 years of jump experience
ABM's receive their basic rating

a) when assigned to their first operational duty station
b) on the same day they are assigned an approved duty AFSC
c) upon graduation of an approved FTU course
d) upon completion of 1 year of experience as an authorized aircrew member
c) upon graduation of an approved FTU course
Captain Jones, a former qualified navigator, attended pilot training and was awarded basic pilot rating. If all requirements are met, what is the next advanced rating Capt. Jones will be eligible for?

a) Senior pilot
b) Senior navigator
c) Both senior pilot and navigator
d) must apply for a dual rated advanced rating
a) Senior pilot
When computing years of rated service for determining elgibility for advanced ratings

a) do not credit years accumulated in one rated specialty toward an advanced rating in another
b) do not credit years of service with previous US military branches
c) credit only the time the officer was assigned to an active flying position
d) compute the total years of rated service regardless of rated specialty
a) do not credit years accumulated in one rated specialty toward an advanced rating in another
When determining eligibility for the senior pilot rating, flying time requirements are

a) 2,000 total hours only
b) 1,300 hours in any combination of primary, instructor, and/or other time only
c) 2,000 total hours or 1,300 hours in any combination of primary, instructor, and/or evaluator time
d) 2,300 total pilot hours or 1,700 hours in any combination of primary, instructor, and/or other time
c) 2,000 total hours or 1,300 hours in any combination of primary, instructor, and/or evaluator time
The three types of nonrated aviation badges include the

a) officer aircrew member, airman aircrew member, and weather services officer
b) officer aircrew member, airman aircrew member, and flight nurse
c) airman aircrew member, flight nurse, and weather services officer
d) career enlisted aviator, airman aircrew member, and flight nurse
b) officer aircrew member, airman aircrew member, and flight nurse
To be eligible for the officer aircrew member badge, the member must

a) complete a Flying Class II physical
b) be assigned a DAFSC prefix of X,K, or Q
c) not be in DNIF status
d) complete a minimum of 6 months of badge creditable flying
b) be assigned a DAFSC prefix of X,K, or Q
Parachutists applying for the master parachutist badge must

a) apply be letter through the unit commander
b) complete qualification as a military free fall parachutist
c) complete 24 months of jump status with an organization assigned a parachute jump mission
d) complete 36 months of jump status with an organization assigned a parachute jump mission
d) complete 36 months of jump status with an organization assigned a parachute jump mission
The final approval authority for action required by an ARB is

a) the member's unit commander
b) HQ AFPC/DPAOY
c) the MAJCOM/CC
d) the MAJCOM/DO
d) the MAJCOM/DO
Upon the approval of an ARB, an AO awarding the USAF rating is published by

a) HQ AFPC/DPAOY
b) the CSAF
c) the member's unit SARM office
d) the member's unit HARM office
a) HQ AFPC/DPAOY
A commander will convene an FEB when

a) a rated officer's duty performance becomes suspect
b) rated officers and CEAs fail to meet professional standards
c) determining the eligibility of rated officers for advanced ratings
d) an operational support member applies for consideration for full-time flying duties
a) a rated officer's duty performance becomes suspect
The final decision authority for actions required by an FEB is the

a) unit commander
b) FEB convening authority
c) Member's MAJCOM/DO
d) Member's MAJCOM commander
d) Member's MAJCOM commander
Member's appearing before an FEB due to a lack of proficiency include

a) officers enrolled in formal flying training programs
b) career enlisted aviators who fail a qual check
c) officers who display negligent violation of flying procedures
d) officers who fail to meet annual physical examination requirements
c) officers who display negligent violation of flying procedures
AEBs are convened for

a) CEAs only
b) rated navigators who apply for undergraduate pilot training
c) other than USAF officers who apply for a USAF rated position
d) nonrated officers and enlisted aircrew members including CEAs
d) nonrated officers and enlisted aircrew members including CEAs
Permanent disqualification from aviation service for rated membersand CEAs includes

a) voluntary request
b) disenrollment from survival school
c) failure to maintain medical certification
d) personnel reliability program decertification
a) voluntary request
When a rated officer or CEA is under investigation for suspected drug abuse, the HARM will

a) publish an AO assigning ASC 04 and terminate flight pay
b) notify the member in writing and forward the letter to the commander for indorsement
c) request HQ AFPC/DPAOY to publish an AO assigning ASC 06
d) forward documentation to an FEB for review of the member's qualifications for continued aviation service
a) publish an AO assigning ASC 04 and terminate flight pay
Nonpermanent disqualification for rated officers and CEAs includes

a) failure to maintain medical fitness
b) action resulting from an FEB or AEB
c) Failure to maintain professional standards
d) transfer to other military service
a) failure to maintain medical fitness
A rated officer or CEA does not complete a medical examination or recertification within 60 days following the date of suspension,

a) the HARM office publishes an AO assigning ASC 06
b) an FEB or AEB convenes
c) a request is sent to HQ AFPC/DPAOY to disqualify the member
d) the flight surgeon's office forwards a request to disqualify the member
b) an FEB or AEB convenes
A rated officer who has been disqualified for nonpermanent reasons less than 5 years may be requalified

a) only after FEB action results in a recommendation to requalify the member
b) for aviation service upon approval by HQ AFPC/DPAOY
c) without appearing before an FEB
d) upon approval by the member's unit commander
c) without appearing before an FEB
Rated officers who were medically disqualified more than 1 year but less than 5 years may be requalified

a) once HQ AFPC/DPAOY publishes an AO returning the member to active status
b) after HQ AFMOA/SGPA certifies the officer is medically qualified for active flying
c) after successful completion of an FEB
d) if approved by the local medical authority
b) after HQ AFMOA/SGPA certifies the officer is medically qualified for active flying
When a nonrated aircrew member is found medically unfit, the HARM office will suspense the AF Form 1042 to disqualify the member after

a) 60 days
b) 90 days
c) 120 days
d) 365 days
c) 120 days
To manage the rated inventory, MAJCOMs use the

a) API code
b) FAC
c) TSC
d) FSC
a) API code
API code 3 identifies a rated officer

a) assigned to nonrated duty positions
b) above wing level with duties and responsibilities that require the member to fly
c) at wing level and below with duties and responsibilities that do not require the member to fly
d) who is a flight surgeon or pilot-physician and entitled to conditional ACIP
c) at wing level and below with duties and responsibilities that do not require the member to fly
API code 7 identifies

a) positions above wing level with duties and responsibilities that do not require the member to fly
b) USAF officers assigned to flying rated positions in other than USAF units
c) rated officers assigned to nonrated duty positions
d) positions used primarily for cockpit duty
b) USAF officers assigned to flying rated positions in other than USAF units
API code E identifies

a) CEA positions that are used for line flying
b) enlisted personnel not performing CEA duties
c) staff or supervisory positions above wing level that have duties and responsibilities that require aircrew expertise but do not require the member to actively fly
d) CEA positions assigned to an AMOG and a TALCE
c) staff or supervisory positions above wing level that have duties and responsibilities that require aircrew expertise but do not require the member to actively fly
A FAC is used to determine

a) how an individual is being used in an API coded position
b) whether or not the position is included in the rated inventory
c) whether the aircrew member is in an active or inactive status
d) what requirements a member must have to be eligible for continuous flying incentive pay
a) how an individual is being used in an API coded position
A CEA who is an instructor assigned to fly TF-coded aircraft would be assigned a

a) FAC A
b) FAC B
c) FAC C
d) FAC D
b) FAC B
A TSC is used by the HARM office to

a) identify which rated officers are in an inactive status
b) identify operational flying positions held by line officers
c) describe how the individual is being used in a manpower position
d) determine which OFDA requirements are required
d) determine which OFDA requirements are required
Rated officers who have at least 6 but less than 12 years of aviation service and have accrued less than 72 months of OFDA on 1 October 1991 would be assigned a

a) TSC A
b) TSC B
c) TSC C
d) TSC D
b) TSC B
The ACIA of 1989

a) reduced the required months of OFDA at the 12-year gate from 108 months to 96 months
b) changed the anniversary date of aviation service from the OSD to the ASD
c) set standards of minimum experience rated officers must achieve to receive ACIP
d) increased the number of months of OFDA required at the 12-year and 18-year gates
d) increased the number of months of OFDA required at the 12-year and 18-year gates
The CEFIP program was established by the

a) ACIA of 1989
b) NDAA of 1996
c) NDAA of 1999
d) NDAA of 2000
d) NDAA of 2000
The ASC is a two-character code that indicates

a) entitlement to continuous or conditional flight pay and current flying status
b) specific rated inventory positions and how the individual is being utilized in that position
c) the member is within 3 months of the due date for his or her flight physical and record review
d) the required months of OFDA and whether the member is assigned to a supervisory position
a) entitlement to continuous or conditional flight pay and current flying status
ESC 3 indicates a

a) pilot who has accumulated at least 132 months of OFDA at the 18-year gate
b) Flight surgeon who is eligible to receive continuous ACIP
c) navigator who has accumulated less than 72 months of OFDA at the 12-year gate
d) CEA who has accumulated at least 168 months of OFDA at the 20 year gate
a) pilot who has accumulated at least 132 months of OFDA at the 18-year gate
A rated officer who has completed 25 years of aviation would be assigned an ESC of

a) 3
b) 5
c) 7
d) 9
c) 7
THe ESC for a flight surgeon is

a) ESC 5
b) ESC 6
c) ESC 7
d) ESC 8
d) ESC 8
An FSC identifies

a) how many OFDA months a rated officer must accumulate to be eligible for continuous flying incentive pay
b) whether a member must comply with the ACIA of 1974 or the ACIA of 1989
c) a member as an active or inactive flyer in aviation career status, flying status, or parachute status
d) a manppower position on the UMD
c) a member as an active or inactive flyer in aviation career status, flying status, or parachute status
Which AO action does not require a termination date?

a) awarding a rating or badge
b) assigning ASC 1J
c) assigning ASC 04
d) Initiating aviation service for a CEA
a) awarding a rating or badge
The effective date of an AO that confirms an ASC change as a result of a PCS move is the

a) effective date of duty
b) date the member departed last duty station
c) day after the member signed in to the operational unit
d) day after the member signs out from the losing organization
d) day after the member signs out from the losing organization
AO termination dates for rated officers are based on

a) aviation service gates and anniversaries for years of aviation service
b) the date estimated return from overseas
c) the member's officer service date
d) the member's date of seperation
a) aviation service gates and anniversaries for years of aviation service
The termination date on AOs for nonrated officers is

a) required
b) the DOS
c) the years from the effective date of the AO
d) the anniversary date when the member reaches an aviation service gate
b) the DOS
an FSC identifies

a) how many OFDA months a rated officer must accumulated to be eligible for continuous flying incentive pay
b) whether a member must comply with the ACIA of 1974 or the ACIA of 1989
c) a member as an active or inactive flyer in aviation career status, flying status, or parachute status
d) a manpower position on the UMD
c) a member as an active or inactive flyer in aviation career status, flying status, or parachute status
Which AO action does not require a termination date?

a) Awarding a rating or a badge
b) Assigning ASC 1J (inactive)
c) Assigning ASC 04 (suspended)
d) Initiating aviation service for a CEA
a) Awarding a rating or a badge
The effective date of an AO that confirms an ASC change as a result of a PCS move is the

a) effective date of duty
b) date the member departed last duty station
c) dat after the member signed in to the operational unit
d) day after the member signs out from the losing organization
d) day after the member signs out from the losing organization
AO termination dates for rated officers are based on

a) aviation service gates and anniversaries for years of aviation service
b) the date estimated return from overseas
c) the member's officer service date
d) the member's date of serperation
a) aviation service gates and anniversaries for years of aviation service
the termination date on AOs for nonrated officers is

a) required
b) the DOS
c) the years from the effective date of the AO
d) the anniversary date when the member reaches an aviation service gate
b) the DOS
AOs are authenticated by

a) any individual authorized by the unit commander
b) individuals in military grade E-7 or above, or a civilian GS-6 or higher
c) the HARM chief regardless of rank
d) the NCIOC of the SARM office
b) individuals in military grade E-7 or above, or a civilian GS-6 or higher
When data in the MILPDS interfaces with the ARMS, certain elements will not overwrite ARMS if

a) the "do not overwrite" function in ARMS has been enabled
b) the data in ARMS is more current than the data in MILPDS
c) the MILPDS interface is run before the end of the month
d) MILPDS displays the element as blank in its system
d) MILPDS displays the element as blank in its system
What agency is responisble for the operation and maintenance of the HORIS

a) HQ AFASA/SCF
b) HQ USAF/SGPA
c) HQ USAF/XOOT
d) HQ AFPC/DPAOY
c) HQ USAF/XOOT
a special interface of the HORIS should be requested

a) on a quarterly basis
b) when directed by HQ USAF/XOOT
c) when errors in the database prevent deferred processing
d) at the end of each month after requesting end-of-month products
b) when directed by HQ USAF/XOOT
Which computer product is used to administer the ACIA of 1974 and the ACIA of 1989?

a) Aviation Service Suspense List
b) Sonic Boom Transmittal LIst
c) Flying History Report
d) HQ Allocation Recap
a) Aviation Service Suspense List
Which report does the HARM office review to verify man-years are available before publishing an AO placing an operational support member on flying status?

a) HQ Allocation Recap
b) Individual Data Summary
c) Aviation Service Audit Worksheet
d) ASC Conditional Entitlement Flying Hours
a) HQ Allocation Recap
Which part of the AMSL displays aircrew members who have gone 3 months without performing an OFDA flight?

a) Part 0
b) Part 4
c) Part 6
d) Part 8
d) Part 8
Part 9 of the AMSL is used to

a) determine if aircrew members in FSC S have performed an operational flying duty event
b) track individuals who are projected inbound into the ARMS
c) identify individuals who are currently assigned an ASC 06
d) determine if an aircrew member should be disqualified from aviation service
a) determine if aircrew members in FSC S have performed an operational flying duty event
The ARMS product, Report of Aircraft Accident Investigation, is handled as

a) FOUO
b) unclassified but sensitive
c) a privileged document
d) Confidential
c) a privileged document
During an aircraft mishap, what action must be taken before the HARM office prints reports from the ARMS

a) Complete an AF Form 614, Charge out Record
b) Identify authorized members of the aircraft accident board
c) Ensure an accident board member signs for the flight record folder
d Ensure all flight and training accomplishments have been input into ARMS
d Ensure all flight and training accomplishments have been input into ARMS