• Shuffle
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Alphabetize
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Front First
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Both Sides
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Read
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
Reading...
Front

Card Range To Study

through

image

Play button

image

Play button

image

Progress

1/74

Click to flip

Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;

Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;

H to show hint;

A reads text to speech;

74 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
What are the layers of the epidermis? (In order)
Californians Like Girls in String Bikinis

Striatum Corneum
Lucidum
Granulosum
Spinosum
Basalis
Where are blood vessels located in the skin?
BVs in dermis, none in epidermis (gets nutrition by diffusion)
Zona occludens:
Role
tight junction--prevents diffusion across paracellular space (composed of claudins and occludins)
Zona adherens:
Role
Intermediate jn--surounds perimeter below zona occludens; cadherins connect to actin
Macula adherens:
Role
Desomosome; small, discrete sites of attachment; cadherins connect to intermediate filaments
Pemphigus vulgaris:
Pathophys
Autoantibodies to DESMOSOME (MACULA ADHERENS)
Hemidesmosome:
Role
COnnects cells to underlying ECM
Bullous pemphigoid:
Pathophys
Autoantibodies to HEMIDESMOSOME
Describe the steps of leukocyte extravasation.

Include the adhesion molecules and cytokines needed.
1. Rolling--E-selectin, P-selectin

2. Tight binding: ICAM-1

3. Diapedesis (leukocyte travels between endothelial cells and exits BV)--PECAM-1

4. Migration--leukocyte travels through interstitium to site of injury, guided by chemotactic signals--CILK: C5a, IL-8, LTB4, Kallikrein
What are the acute phase cytokines?
IL-1
IL-6
TNF-alpha
Which of the following joins only cells of the same type and does not attach cells to the basement membrane?

Hemidesmosome
Cadherin
Integrin
ICAM-1
Cadherin
What is the unhappy triad?
Force from lateral side injuring:
MCL
ACL
Lateral meniscus
ACL vs PCL:
Attachment
ACL: Anterior tibia
PCL: Posterior tibia
Pudendal nerve:
Innervation
Saddle region (block this area to relieve pain of delivery)
Where are lumbar punctures performed?
Between L3 and L4 (iliac crest)
Rotator cuff:
Components and their actions
Which component is most commonly injuyed?
SItS (small t for teres minor :))

Supraspinatus--abducts arm initial 10 degrees; most commonly injured

Infraspinatus--laterally rotates arm (pitching injury)

Teres minor--adducts and laterally rotates arm

Subscapularis: medially rotates and adducts arm
Which muscles of rotator cuff:
Initial 15 degrees of arm abduction
Supraspinatus
Which muscles of rotator cuff:
Lateral rotation of the arm
Infraspinatus
Teres minor
Which muscles of rotator cuff:
Medial rotation of the arm
Subscapularis
Where does new bone formation take place in growing long bones?
Epiphyseal plate
A football plays who was kicked in the leg suffers from a damaged medial meniscus.

What else is likely to have been damaged?
ACL
MCL
Lateral meniscus
(UNHAPPY TRIAD)
What is the difference between a dislocated and separated shoulder?
Dislocated--head of humerus rotates out of glenoid cavitiy

Separated--clavicle separates from acromion and coracoid process of scapula
What structure can be damaged in anterior shoulder dislocation?
How would you test for this?
Axillary nerve damage--test sensation over deltoid

Supraspinatus tendon
Lateral vs Medial epicondylitis:
Pathophys
Lateral epicondylitis: tennis elbow
Medial epicondylitis: golf elbow

Both are degenerative injuries due to repeated use; leads to tiny tears in tendons and muscles. May be inflammatory.
Label
Type 1 vs Type 2 Muscle fibers
One slow red ox!

Type 1: Slow twitch, red fibers due to inc'd mitochondria and myoglobin concentration (inc'd ox-phos)-->sustained contractions

Type 2:
Fast twitch, white fibers due to dec'd mitochondria and myoglobin concentrations (inc'd anerobic glycolysis); ex: weight training
Endochondrial vs Membranous FR3Ossification
Endochondral: Longitudinal bone growth, cartilaginous model of bone first made by chondrocytes

Membranous ossification: flat bone growth (skull, facial bones, axial skeleton); woven bone formed directly without cartilage.
Achondroplasia:
What is it?
Mutation?
Risk of inheritance?
Failure of longitudinal bone growth (endochondral)

Due to mutation in FGFR3

AUTOSOMAL DOMINANT: 50% risk of inheritance if one normal parent, one dwarfed parent
Osteoporosis:
Risk factors
Presentation
Prophylaxis
Note: normal bone mineralization and lab values!!

Risks:
older age
smoking
steroids
white
thin
No weight-bearing exercise
Poor ca2+, vit D
hypogonadism (menopause included)
heparin

Presents with vertebral crush fractures (acute back pain, kyphosis, loss of height)
Femoral neck fracture

Prophylaxis: exercise, calcium ingestion before age 30

Tx: SERMs, calcitonin, bisphosphonates!
Bisphosphonates:
Suffix
MOA
AE
-dronates

MOA: inhibit osteoclasts

AE: corrosive esophagitis; must remain upright for a few hours after ingesting drug
Osteopetrosis:
Pathophys
Lab values
Failure of normal bone resorption-->thik, dense bones prone to fracture

Due to abnl fn of osteoclasts

Labs: Normal ALP, normal Ca2+, normal phosphate
Dec'd marrow space-->anemia, low PLT, infection (PANCYTOPENIA), inc'd extramedullary hematopoiesis
Osteomalacia/Rickets:
Pathophys
Lab values
Vitamin D deficiency, low calcium levels, inc'd PTH, low serum phosphate
Paget's Disease of Bone:
Pathophys
Lab values
Treatment
Abnl bone architecture caused by inc in both oblast and oclast activity

Hat size can be inc'd, hearing loss common due to auditory foramen narrowing

Labs: inc'd ALP with anl bone architecture

Tx: bisphosphonates
Vitamin D intoxication:
Effects
What disease can mimic this?
Inc'd absorption of Ca2+ and PO4
Dec'd PTH
ALP normal
Granulomatous dz ~sarcoidosis can cause elevated vitamin D
Effect of renal insufficiency on:
Calcium
Phosphate
PTH
Dec'd serum Ca2+ (can't activate Vit D as well)
Elevated PTH
Elevated Phosphate (can't excrete)
Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia:
Pathophys
Presentation
Bone replaced by fibroblasts, collagen, irregular boney trabeculae

A form of this is McCune-Albright Syndrome--precocious puberty, unilateral pigmented lesions (cafe-au-lait spots)
Which bony disease:
Reversible when Vitamin D replaced
Osteomalacia/Rickets
Which bony disease:
Excess osteoclastic activity results in disorganized bony architecture
Paget's
Which bony disease:
Bone replaced by fibroblasts, collagen, irregular bony trabeculae
Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia
Which bony disease:
Soft bones due to defective mineralization of osteoid
Osteomalacia/Rickets
Which bony disease:
Failure of bone resorption-->thickened and dense bones
Osteopetrosis
Which bony disease:
Genetic deficiency of carbonic anhydrase II
Osteopetrosis
What are the following lab values like in Paget's disease?

Serum Ca
Serum Phos
Alk Phos
PTH
Elevated Alk Phos
What are the following lab values like in osteomalacia/Rickets?

Serum Ca
Serum Phos
Alk Phos
PTH
Low vit D-->Low serum Ca
Elevate PTH (phosphorus trashing hormone!)
Low serum phos
What are the following lab values like in osteitis fibrosa cystica?

Serum Ca
Serum Phos
Alk Phos
PTH
PTH high
High serum Ca
Inc'd Alk Phos
Low serum phos
What are the following lab values like in osteoporosis?

Serum Ca
Serum Phos
Alk Phos
PTH
ALL NORMAL :)
What are the following lab values like in osteopetrosis?

Serum Ca
Serum Phos
Alk Phos
PTH
ALL NORMAL :)
Osteosarcoma:
Incidence
Risk factors
Presentation on x-ray
Peak incidence in men 10-20 years of age

Risk factors: Paget's dz, bone infarcts, XRT, familial retinoblastoma (Rb gene)

Poor prognosis

Codman's triangle or sunburst pattern (form elevation of periosteum) on x-ray
Ewing's sarcoma:
Presentation
Hallmark feature
Anaplastic small blue cell tumor (malignant) in boys <15
Extremely aggressive with early mets, but responsive to chemo

Hallmark = onion-skin appearance in bone (going out for eWINGS and ONION rings)
Pseudorosettes
Which bone tumor:
Most common malignant primary bone tumor of children
Osteosarcoma
Which bone tumor:
Most common malignant primary bone tumor in adults
Multiple myeloma
Which bone tumor:
Most common benign bone tumor
Osteochondroma
Which bone tumor:
11;22 translocation
Ewing Sarcoma
Which bone tumor:
Soap-bubble appearance on x-ray
Giant Cell Tumor
Which bone tumor:
Onion-skin appearance of bone
Ewing Sarcoma
Which bone tumor:
May actually be a hamartoma
Osteochondroma
Which bone tumor:
Codman's triangle on x-ray
Osteosarcoma
Which bone tumor:
Associated with Gardner's syndrome
Osteoma; note Gardner's syndrome = familial adenomatous polyposis!!!!!!
Osteoarthritis:
Pathophys
Risk Factors
Presentation
Treatment
Pathophys: Wear and tear dz; wear away cartilage

Risk factors: age, obesity, joint deformity

Presentation: pain in weight-bearing joints after use (at end of day for example)
NON INFLAMMATORY

Tx: acetaminophen, NSAIDS, COX-2 inhibitors, injected steroids into joint
Rheumatoid Arthritis:
Pathophys
Diagnosis
Presentation
Treatment
SYSTEMIC autoimmune dz--affects MCP, PIP (not DIP)

This is a TYPE III HYPERSENS RXN; 80% of pts have RF (+)

Presentation: Morning stiffness > 30 minutes and improving with use, symmetric joint involvement, systemic syx (fever, fatigue, pleuritis, pericarditis)

Treatment: NSAIDs, TNF-alpha inhibitors (Etanercept, infliximab, adalimumab)
Sjogren's Syndrome:
Presentation
Diagnosis
Can't see, can't spit, can't climb up shit:
Dry eyes, dry mouth, arthritis

Dx: SS-A (Ro), SS-B (La) antibodies; parotid enlargement (inc'd risk B cell lymphoma)
Swan neck deformity-->RA
Gout:
Presentation
Diagnosis
Treatment
Asymmetric joint distribution. Joint is swollen, red, painful.
Classic at MTP joint of BIG TOE (podagra).
Tophus formation often of external ear, olecranon bursa, or Achilles tendon.

Acute attack after large meal or alcohol consumption

ELEVATED URIC ACID LEVELS ≠ GOUT DIAGNOSIS

Dx: Negatively birefrignent uric acid crystals!

Tx:
Acute: Indomethacin (NSAID), colchicine
Chronic: Allopurinol, probenecid (uricosuric)
Colchicine:
MOA
Bind and stabilizes tubulin to inhibit polymerization, impairing leukocyte chemotaxis and degranulatoin (it's an NSAID)
Probenecid:
MOA
Inhibits reabsorption of uric acid in PCT
Allopurinol:
MOA
Inhibits xanthine oxidase; dec'd conversion of xanthine to uric acid
NSAIDs:
MOA
-Inhibit both COX-1 and COX-2
-Block PG synth
This drug can close PDAs.
Indomethacin--an NSAID
Celecoxib:
Drug Class
Irreversible COX-2 inhibitor
What is the treatment of acute out exacerbation?
Colchicine
NSAIDs--DRUG OF CHOICE
Steroids
What is the treatment of chronic gout?
Probenecid
Allopurinol
Colchicine
NSAIDs
Pseudogout:
How does it differ from gout?
Diagnosis?
Calcium pyrophosphate crystals (Rhomboid)
Weakly positive birefringent

Dx: Chondrocalcinosis; cartilage has calcium deposits (in knee for ex bc pseudogout affects large joints)
Gold standard = joint aspirate
Young, sexually active person with a swollen knee.

Cause?
Infectious arthritis--Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Man presents with pain and swelling of knees, subcutaneous nodules around joints and Achilles tendon, and exquisite pain in the metatarsophalangeal joint of his right big toe.

Biopsy reveals needle-like crystals.

Diagnosis?
Gout